Fractures generally & ankle Flashcards

1
Q

what is a transverse fracture

A

a straight break through a bone at a right angle, caused by a force applied directly to the site of the fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a spiral fracture

A

a corkscrew type fracture due to a rotational injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is an oblique fracture

A

a rare fractrue; straight break through the bone but at an angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is subluxation

A

malalignment of the joint surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a greenstick fracture

A

fracture that occurs in children due to the soft bone making it flexible; bone bends without fracturing across the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name the nerve affected in the following fractures

  • midshaft humerus
  • supracondylar fracture
  • shoulder dislocation
  • hip dislocation
  • fibula neck fracture
A
  • radial nerve
  • median nerve
  • axillary nerve
  • sciatic nerve
  • common peroneal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name 5 causes of pathological fractures

A
  • osteoporosis
  • osteopaenia
  • tumours
  • infection
  • metabolic bone disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when should stabilisation be achieved by in a traumatic fracture in a and e

A

within 24 hours on a daytime trauma list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which opioid out of; morphine, fentanyl and pethidine is preferred in known renal failure, and why?

A

fentanyl

because it is shorter acting so therefore prevents accumulation of active metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the clinical presentation of a hip fracture?

A

hip shortened and externally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 3 steps in managing a fracture?

A
  1. Reduce
  2. Stabilise
  3. Rehabilitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is reduction of a fracture?

A

surgical procedure to correct the alignment of the bone so that the fracture can heal with minimal deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 2 types of reduction?

A

open and closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is open reduction of a fracture?

A

fracture segments are exposed surgically by dissecting the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is closed reduction of a fracture?

A

manipulation of the bone fragments without surgical exposure of the fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is a reduced fracture maintained?

A

either internal or external fixation

17
Q

what is external fixation?

A

stabilising frames, metal pins or screws placed into the bone through small incisions into the skin and muscle

18
Q

what is internal fixation?

A

plates, screws, nails, rods, wires, pins

19
Q

what is ORIF?

A

open reduction internal fixation

open surgery, fixation with screws/plates/intramedullary bone nails

20
Q

what is closed reduction infernal fixation

A

reduction without surgery

21
Q

what do you do if manipulation and external mobilisation devices are unsuccessful in managing a trauma fracture

A

surgical reduction of internal fixation

22
Q

what prophylaxis should be given for open wounds?

23
Q

when should open fractures be debrided and lavaged by?

A

by 6 hours of the injury

24
Q

what is delayed union defined as?

A

failure to reach bony union @ 6 months post injury

25
what is compartment syndrome?
when the pressure within the fascial compartment exceeds the perfusion pressure within the compartment resulting in ischaemia of the tissues within that compartment
26
what are the early signs of compartment syndrome? (3)
- does not respond to analgesia - associated with skin mottling - severe pain on passive stretch
27
late signs of compartment syndrome?
- pulselessness | - paraesthesia
28
what are the indications for an ankle x-ray?
Pain in the malleolar zone & one of following - bony tenderness at lateral malleolar zone - bony tenderness at medial malleolar zone - inability to walk 4 weight bearing steps immediately after the injury & in ED
29
name of classification of ankle fractures
weber
30
What is weber classification A & typical mechanism of injury
fracture of fibula below the level of syndemosis typically from an inversion injury
31
What is weber classification B & typical mechanism of injury
fracture at level of syndesmosis & extends proximally in oblique fashion typically eversion injury
32
What is weber classification C & typical mechanism of injury
fracture above the syndesmosis may be associated wtih an avulsion fracture or rupture of deltoid ligament always unstable - requiring fixation
33
what type of bacteria is staph aureus
gram positive cocci
34
1st and 2nd most common isolated organisms of most series
- strep pyrogens | - group B strep
35
name 2 gram negative rods
- E.coli | - Klebsiella
36
which organism is most commonly seen in septic arthritis in IVDU?
Pseudonomas aeruginosa
37
abx course duration in septic arthritis
6 weeks
38
abx of choice for gonococcal arthritis
ceftriaxone
39
what causes tibial plateau fractures?
- high energy trauma in young | - low energy falls in elderly