Fraud P&D Flashcards

1
Q

The primary purpose of AU Section 240 is to:
A. Establish standards for auditors in fulfilling their responsibilities related to fraud during a financial statement audit
B. Emphasize that the primary responsibility for establishing internal controls rests with auditors
C. Establish auditors as being primarily responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud within an organization
D. All of the above

A

Establish standards for auditors in fulfilling their responsibilities related to fraud during a financial statement audit
Auditors have the responsibility to plan and perform an audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement, whether caused by error or fraud. The auditing standard codified in AU Section 240, Consideration of Fraud in a Financial Statement Audit, establishes standards and provides guidance to auditors in fulfilling that responsibility, as it relates to fraud, in conducting a financial statement audit. While this standard focuses on the auditor’s consideration of fraud in an audit of financial statements, management is primarily responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud.

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2
Q
Edward Gross and other criminologists have asserted that organizations are inherently:
 A. Criminogenic  
 B. Exploitative   
 C. Averse to misconduct  
 D. None of the above
A

Criminogenic
Sociologist Edward Gross has asserted that all organizations are inherently “criminogenic” (prone to committing crime), but not necessarily criminal. Without necessarily meaning to, organizations can invite fraud as a means of obtaining goals. Gross makes this assertion because of the reliance on the “bottom line.”

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3
Q

AU Section 240 requires auditors to brainstorm how management could perpetrate and conceal fraudulent financial reporting.
A. True
B. False

A

True
AU Section 240 requires auditors to hold a “brainstorming” session to discuss the potential for material misstatements due to fraud. This discussion should cover:
•How and where the entity’s financial statements might be susceptible to fraud
•How management could perpetrate and conceal fraudulent financial reporting
•How the entity’s assets could be misappropriated

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4
Q
In the area of criminological theory, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the theory that tries to prevent crime by using the threat of criminal sanctions.
 A. Deterrence  
 B. Adherence   
 C. Punishment  
 D. None of the above
A

Deterrence
As a strategy to control crime, deterrence is designed to detect law violations, determine who is responsible, and penalize offenders to deter future violations. Deterrence systems try to control the immediate behavior of individuals, not the long-term behaviors targeted by compliance systems. Deterrence theory assumes that humans are rational in their behavior patterns. Humans seek profit and pleasure while they try to avoid pain. Deterrence assumes that an individual’s propensity toward lawbreaking is in inverse proportion to the perceived probability of negative consequences.

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5
Q

A corporation cannot be held criminally liable for its employees’ actions if there were specific policies in place that prohibited the activity undertaken by the employees.
A. True
B. False

A

False
A corporation can generally be held criminally responsible for criminal acts committed by its employees even if those in management had no knowledge of or participation in the underlying criminal events and even if there were specific policies or instructions prohibiting the activity undertaken by the employees. The acts of any employee, from the lowest clerk to the CEO, can impute liability upon a corporation. In fact, in many jurisdictions, a corporation can be criminally responsible for the collective knowledge of several of its employees even if no single employee intended to commit an offense.

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6
Q

As part of a fraud risk assessment, the assessment team should identify the individuals most likely to commit fraud and the methods they are likely to use.
A. True
B. False

A

True
In identifying potential fraud risks, the risk assessment team should evaluate the incentives and pressures on individuals and departments to commit fraud. The team should then use the information gained in that process to identify the individuals and departments most likely to commit fraud and the methods they are likely to use. This knowledge will assist the organization in tailoring its fraud risk response, including establishing appropriate segregation of duties, proper review and approval chains of authority, and proactive fraud auditing procedures.

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7
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the core principles of sound corporate governance? 
 A. Transparency  
 B. Fairness   
 C. Independence  
 D. Responsibility
A
Independence  
Most systems of corporate governance are focused on several core principles or values, which include:
•Accountability
•Transparency
•Fairness
•Responsibility
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8
Q

The Treadway Commission was established with the purpose of defining the responsibility of the auditor in preventing and detecting fraud.
A. True
B. False

A

True
The National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting (commonly known as the Treadway Commission) was established in 1985 with the purpose of defining the responsibility of the auditor in preventing and detecting fraud. The commission was formed and sponsored by five predominant professional auditing organizations at the time—the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, The Institute of Internal Auditors, the American Accounting Association, Financial Executives International, and the Institute of Management Accountants.

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9
Q

What is the objective of a fraud risk assessment?
A. To help an organization identify what makes it most vulnerable to fraud
B. To provide an estimate of an organization’s fraud losses
C. To assess the design and effectiveness of an organization’s internal controls over financial reporting
D. To establish the guilt or innocence of an employee suspected of committing fraud

A

To help an organization identify what makes it most vulnerable to fraud
In the simplest terms, the objective of a fraud risk assessment is to help an organization identify what makes it most vulnerable to fraud. Through a fraud risk assessment, the organization is able to identify where fraud is most likely to occur, enabling proactive measures to be considered and implemented to reduce the chance that it could happen.

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10
Q

According to the joint COSO and ACFE publication Fraud Risk Management Guide, who has responsibility for managing fraud risk?
A. The board of directors
B. Personnel at all levels of the organization
C. Internal audit
D. Executive management

A

Personnel at all levels of the organization
According to the joint COSO/ACFE Fraud Risk Management Guide, “personnel at all levels of the organization—including every level of management, staff, and internal auditors—have responsibility for managing fraud risk.”

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11
Q
Of the following parties, who is responsible for the oversight of the organization’s financial, accounting, and audit matters?
 A. The internal auditors   
 B. The CFO   
 C. The external auditors   
 D. The audit committee
A

The audit committee
As a sub-group of the board of directors, the audit committee is often delegated oversight of the organization’s financial, accounting, and audit matters and reports to the full board. As part of this responsibility, the committee must take an active role in overseeing the assessment and monitoring of the organization’s fraud risks. This involves:
•Receiving regular reports on the status of reported or alleged fraud
•Being aware of fraud risks that are common in the organization’s industry
•Meeting regularly with key internal parties (such as the chief audit executive or other senior financial persons) to discuss identified fraud risks and the steps being taken to prevent and detect fraud
•Understanding how internal and external audit strategies address fraud risk
•Providing external auditors with evidence that the audit committee is dedicated to effective fraud risk management
•Engaging in open conversations with external auditors about any known or suspected fraud
•Seeking advice of legal counsel whenever it deals with allegations of fraud

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12
Q

According to criminologist Donald Cressey, which of the following is NOT essential to the commission of fraud?
A. General information about how the company might be defrauded
B. Absence of controls
C. Technical skill
D. All of the above are essential

A

Absence of controls
In Cressey’s view, there were two components of the perceived opportunity to commit a trust violation: general information and technical skill. General information is simply the knowledge that the employee’s position of trust could be violated. This knowledge might come from hearing of other embezzlements, from seeing dishonest behavior by other employees, or just from generally being aware of the fact that the employee is in a position where he could take advantage of his employer’s faith in him. Technical skill refers to the abilities needed to commit the violation. These are usually the same abilities that the employee needs to obtain and keep his position in the first place.

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13
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act provides both civil and criminal penalties for retaliating against corporate whistleblowers.
A. True
B. False

A

True
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act contains two provisions that establish broad protections for corporate whistleblowers. Section 806 creates a civil liability for an employer who retaliates against an employee who provided information or assisted in an investigation of fraudulent activity or violation of securities laws and regulations. This provision only covers employees of publicly traded companies. Section 1107 establishes criminal sanctions for anyone who intentionally retaliates against another party for providing information regarding an alleged federal offense to a law enforcement officer.

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14
Q

During an admission-seeking interview of a fraud suspect, Gary, a Certified Fraud Examiner, accuses the suspect of having committed a fraud. Gary’s accusation violates the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics.
A. True
B. False

A

False
Article V of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics states: “An ACFE member, in conducting an examination, will obtain evidence or other documentation to establish a reasonable basis for any opinion rendered. No opinion shall be expressed regarding the guilt or innocence of any person or party.” Although it does not specifically state such, Article V really applies to statements of opinion made to third parties. If the fraud examiner was interviewing a suspect whose guilt was highly probable, the Code would not prohibit the fraud examiner from making accusations. The admission-seeking process, used extensively by fraud examiners, requires that accusations be made of the probable guilty party. As long as these accusations are not communicated to third parties, the fraud examiner would not be in violation of the Code.

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15
Q

All of the following are advantages to using data analysis software EXCEPT:
A. Fraud examiners can use data analysis software to ensure that an investigation is accurate and complete.
B. Fraud examiners can use data analysis software to centralize fraud investigations.
C. Fraud examiners can use data analysis software to produce accurate results from bad data.
D. Fraud examiners can use data analysis software to search for red flags of possible fraud.

A

Fraud examiners can use data analysis software to produce accurate results from bad data.
There are five significant advantages to using data analysis software. First, data analysis software allows the fraud examiner to centralize an investigation, relying less on others to gather data. Second, data analysis software allows the fraud examiner to ensure that an investigation is accurate and complete. Third, data analysis allows the fraud examiner to base predictions about the probability of a fraudulent situation on reliable statistical information. Fourth, data analysis allows the fraud examiner to search entire data files for red flags of possible fraud. Finally, data analysis can assist the fraud examiner in developing reference files for ongoing fraud detection and investigation work.

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16
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ interview is one that has the potential to bring about strong emotional reactions in the respondent.
 A. Volatile  
 B. Chronemic   
 C. Evasive  
 D. None of the above
A

A volatile interview is one that has the potential to bring about strong emotional reactions in the respondent. Typical volatile interviews involve close friends and relatives of a subject, co-conspirators, and similar individuals. The personality characteristics of those involved in the volatile interview vary. Some individuals are resentful of authority figures, such as fraud examiners and law enforcement officers, by nature. A target’s friends, relatives, and romantic interests often make for a difficult interview. They perceive that the fraud examiner is deliberately targeting someone close to them.

17
Q

According to AU Section 240, the auditor is only concerned with fraud that:
A. Is perpetrated by one or more members of management
B. Involves the misappropriation of company assets
C. Causes a material misstatement in the financial statements
D. Is determined to meet the legal definition of fraud

A

Causes a material misstatement in the financial statements
Although fraud is a broad legal concept, for the purposes of AU Section 240, the auditor is primarily concerned with fraud that causes a material misstatement in the financial statements. Two types of intentional misstatements are relevant to the auditor—misstatements resulting from fraudulent financial reporting and misstatements resulting from misappropriation of assets. Although the auditor might suspect or, in rare cases, identify the occurrence of fraud, the auditor does not make legal determinations of whether fraud has actually occurred.

18
Q

According to a study conducted by Dr. Steve Albrecht, college graduates are more likely than non-college graduates to spend the proceeds of an occupational crime on luxuries, such as extravagant vacations or expensive automobiles.
A. True
B. False

A

False
According to Dr. Steve Albrecht, perpetrators who were interested primarily in “beating the system” committed larger frauds. However, perpetrators who believed their pay was not adequate committed primarily small frauds. Lack of segregation of responsibilities, placing undeserved trust in key employees, imposing unrealistic goals, and operating on a crisis basis were all pressures or weaknesses associated with large frauds. College graduates were less likely to spend their illegal income on extravagant vacations, recreational property, extramarital relationships, and expensive automobiles. Finally, those with lower salaries were more likely to have a prior criminal record.

19
Q

As part of a fraud risk assessment, the assessment team should identify the individuals most likely to commit fraud and the methods they are likely to use.

A

True
In identifying potential fraud risks, the risk assessment team should evaluate the incentives and pressures on individuals and departments to commit fraud. The team should then use the information gained in that process to identify the individuals and departments most likely to commit fraud and the methods they are likely to use. This knowledge will assist the organization in tailoring its fraud risk response, including establishing appropriate segregation of duties, proper review and approval chains of authority, and proactive fraud auditing procedures.

20
Q

According to the U.S. Corporate Sentencing Guidelines, the payment of full restitution to victims of crime is considered an adequate form of punishment.

A

False
The U.S. Corporate Sentencing Guidelines require that, whenever possible, the organization must pay full restitution to the victims of the crime. Restitution is not, however, viewed as a form of punishment in the Guidelines, but rather as a means of remedying the harm caused by the offense.

21
Q

Which of the following should be covered in employee anti-fraud training?
A. A detailed explanation of the company’s anti-fraud controls
B. Examples of past transgressions and how they were handled
C. The exact procedures management uses to detect fraud
D. All of the above

A

Examples of past transgressions and how they were handled
The content covered by the organization’s anti-fraud training should focus on the specific risks faced by the organization to provide employees with practical, implementable knowledge. However, it should not give employees the information they need to circumvent the normal rules by explaining the details of controls and procedures used to detect fraud

22
Q
Which of the following behavioral responses involves withdrawing a positive stimulus or applying a negative stimulus in response to an undesired behavior?
 A. Punishment  
 B. Positive reinforcement   
 C. Negative reinforcement   
 D. None of the above
A

Punishment
In an act of punishment, the polarities, so to speak, are reversed. Punishment involves withdrawing a positive stimulus or applying a negative stimulus in response to an undesired behavior. For example, faced with an undesired behavior, the punisher applies a negative stimulus.

23
Q

The theory of differential association is used frequently to explain white-collar criminality. Which of the following is one of the assertions or principles of differential association?
A. Criminal behavior is explained by an individual’s general needs and values.
B. People are genetically predisposed to be criminals.
C. Learning is the same as pure imitation.
D. Criminal behavior is acquired through participation with intimate personal groups.

A

Criminal behavior is acquired through participation with intimate personal groups.
The theory of differential association was developed by criminologist Edwin Sutherland. It states that: (1) criminal behavior is learned; (2) it is learned from other people in a process of communication; (3) criminal behavior is acquired through participation with intimate personal groups; (4) the learning process includes the shaping of motives, drives, rationalizations, and attitudes; (5) motives are learned from definitions of legal codes as being favorable or unfavorable; (6) a person becomes a criminal because of an excess of definitions favorable to violation of the law over definitions unfavorable to violation of the law; (7) differential association may vary in frequency, duration, priority, and intensity; (8) learning criminal behavior involves all the mechanisms of other learning; (9) learning differs from pure imitation; and (10) while criminal behavior is an expression of general needs and values, it is not explained by these needs and values.

24
Q

Under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics, fraud examiners are absolutely prohibited from expressing opinions regarding the guilt or innocence of any party.

A

True
Under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics, fraud examiners are absolutely prohibited from expressing opinions regarding the guilt or innocence of any party.

25
Q
According to the requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, which of the following parties is responsible for establishing procedures to handle complaints regarding irregularities in a publicly traded company’s accounting methods, internal controls, or auditing matters?
 A. Executive management 
 B. The internal audit function   
 C. The audit committee 
 D. The external audit firm
A

The audit committee
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act has several provisions that set out specific requirements for the audit committees of public companies. Specifically, the audit committee has the sole responsibility for hiring, overseeing, and paying the external auditors and for resolving any disputes that arise between the auditors and management regarding financial reporting issues. The audit committee is also required to establish procedures (e.g., a hotline) for receiving, retaining, and dealing with complaints, including confidential or anonymous employee tips, regarding irregularities in the company’s accounting methods, internal controls, or auditing matters. Additionally, the committee is required to pre-approve all services to be performed by the external auditors. While the audit committee may consult with outside advisors, it is not required to approve those advisors hired by management.

26
Q
Which of the following parties has some responsibility regarding an organization’s fraud detection and prevention efforts?
 A. Management  
 B. In-house legal counsel   
 C. Board of directors   
 D. All of the above
A

All of the above

27
Q

An entity’s corporate culture is most effectively assessed using a checklist of initiatives to make sure all the elements of a strong tone at the top are in place.

A

False.
A strong corporate culture can most often be observed by its outcome, rather than by any individual component. Fostering a culture of ethics and compliance runs deeper than simply implementing a checklist of initiatives; similarly, a culture of corruption can exist even in companies with seemingly sound policies in place.