FRCA Main Flashcards

(479 cards)

1
Q

How thick is a phospholipid bilayer?

A

10 nm

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2
Q

List three adaptations that maximise exchange at capillaries.

A

Low velocity (0.05-0.1 cm/s compared to 25 cm/2 in the aorta)
Large surface area (6300 m2)
Thin walls

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3
Q

What are pericytes?

A

Cells that projects onto endothelial cells and are involved in mediating luminal diameter, synthesising constituents of the basement membrane and releasing vasoactive agents

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4
Q

List some locations where you would find fenestrated capillaries?

A

Glomerulus
Endocrine glands (e.g. thyroid, pituitary)

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5
Q

Where do you find discontinuous capillaries?

A

Liver sinusoids

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6
Q

Which factors cause precapillary sphincters to dilate allowing blood to flow through the capillary bed?

A

Nitric oxide
Decreased PO2 or increased PCO2
Elevated temperature
Rising K+
Acidosis (e.g. lactate)
Prostacyclin, thromboxane and endothelins

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7
Q

What colloid oncotic pressure is exerted by albumin in the intravascular space?

A

26 mm Hg

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8
Q

State the Starling equation for capillary fluid dynamics.

A

Q = KA[(pc - pi) - s(πc - πi)]

K = permeability constant
A = area of membrane
Pi = interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure
S = reflection coefficient for albumin (0.6-0.9 depending on capillary bed)
πi = interstitial oncotic pressure
πc = capillary oncotic pressure

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9
Q

What does reflection coefficient for albumin mean?

A

Indicates how much a membrane, like a capillary wall, restricts the passage of albumin across it

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10
Q

What are the rough capillary hydrostatic pressures at the arteriolar and venous ends of a capillary?

A

Arteriolar: 32 mm Hg
Venous: 15 mm Hg

NOTE: interstitial hydrostatic pressure ranges from - 2 mm Hg in the subcutaneous tissue to +6 mm Hg in the brain

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11
Q

How much fluid is returned to the circulation by the lymphatics every day?

A

2-4 L/day

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12
Q

List some factors that increase capillary permeability.

A

Substance P
Histamine
IL1, IL4 and IL6 (in inflammatory responses)
Kinins (e.g. bradykinin)
Accumulation of osmotically active substances in interstitial space
Burns
Acute lung injury
Reperfusion injury

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13
Q

What proportion of blood volume is in the venous system?

A

54%

NOTE: heart is 12%, capillaries 5%, arteries 8%, pulmonary 18%

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14
Q

What are the four main functions of the lymphatics?

A

Return excess fluid to circulation
Carry chylomicrons from intestines
Carry proteins back from the interstitium
Carry lymphocytes back from the interstitium

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15
Q

Which tissues do NOT have lymphatic drainage?

A

CNS
Eyes
Cartilage

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16
Q

What keeps lymphatic vessels open?

A

Collagenous anchoring fibrils hold the lymphatics open and are important for fly by generating negative intraluminal hydrostatic pressure

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17
Q

Which factors aid flow within the lymphatics?

A

Negative intra-thoracic pressure during inspiration
Suction effect of high velocity flow in the brachiocephalic veins where lymphatics terminate
Unidirectional valves in major lymph vessels
Transmitted pulsations from major arteries

IMPORTANT: the main force causing flow is the tissue interstitial pressure (ultrafiltration > reabsorption)

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18
Q

Describe the anatomy of the thoracic duct.

A

Arises from the cisterna chyli (between aorta and right crus in front of L1 and L2) and ascends via the aortic hiatus and empties into the brachiocephalic vein

NOTE: drains the lower body and left half of upper body. Rest is drained by the right lymphatic duct.

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19
Q

Which groups of lymph nodes drain the abdominal viscera?

A

Pre-aortic nodes drain into the intestinal lymph trunk then into the cisterna chyli
Para-aortic node efferents are the right and left lumbar trunks – these unite to drain into the cisterna chyli

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20
Q

What are the contents of lymph?

A

Neutrophils
Glucose of 3-5 mmol/L
Chylomicrons
Roaming macrophages (act as filter for microbes and foreign particles)
Protein (mainly in lymph draining the liver and intestine)

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21
Q

What does pancreatic lipase do?

A

Aided by colipase to convert triglycerides to free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides

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22
Q

Which apolipoproteins are found on chylomicrons?

A

APO B-47
APO C-II
APO C-III

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23
Q

What happens to chylomicrons in the periphery?

A

APO C-II will activate lipoprotein lipase on the capillary endothelium
This cleaves the chylomicron and releases fatty acids and monoglycerides which can then enter the cell
Remnants of chylomicrons are taken up by hepatocytes

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24
Q

Fats with what length of carbon chain will need to be absorbed via the lymphatics?

A

More than 12 carbons

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25
What are the different parts of a sarcomere?
Z-discs: ends of a sarcomere I band: only actin (thin) filament A band: overlap of actin and myosin filaments H zone: myosin filament only M disc: anchoring point of thick filaments
26
Describe the function of the ryanodine receptor on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Calcium stimulates the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Inhibited by dantrolene
27
What are the three main types of receptor on the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Ryanodine Receptor (CICR) Inositol Triphosphate Receptor (calcium channel) Phospholamban (inhibits sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase)
28
What are the two main types of junction between cardiomyocytes?
Desmosome Junctional Complex: provide structural integrity and tensile strength Gap Junctions: hexameric proteins (connexons) that span the sarcolemma and allow small molecules to pass
29
Describe the structure of myosin.
Dimers in a staggered helical fashion with globular heads forming six rows Central portion of adjacent filaments joints at M-disc by creatine kinase, M protein and myomesin Tail is made up of light meromyosin (LMM) and heavy meromyosin (HMM) arranged in an alpha helix with a flexible hinge region
30
Describe the structure of thin filaments.
Two actin filaments are arranged in a helix Tetramer of alpha-tropomyosin is wound around it (blocking the binding of myosin heads to actin) Inhibitory (TnI), calcium-binding (TnC) and tropomyosin-binding (TnT) troponins are found on tropomyosin
31
Describe the role of tropomyosin and troponins.
At rest, tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin Calcium binds to TnC triggering the unbinding of tropomyosin, making the binding sites available for engagement Myosin head binds and fully displaced tropomyosin allowing more heads to bind Once calcium is sequestered, tropomyosin will bing to actin again
32
What is the helical ventricular band (Torrent-Guasp) model of the heart?
The fibres are arranged into a single overlapping and looping band extending from the pulmonary artery to the aorta This explains the ascending, descending and rotational forces during systole
33
What is the normal flow velocity through the aortic valve?
1 m/s
34
What are the phases of the cardiac cycle?
Atrial systole Isovolumetric contraction Rapid ejection Reduced ejection Isovolumetric relaxation Rapid filling Reduced filling
35
What are the different components of the JVP waveform?
A wave: atrial contraction C wave: isovolumetric contraction causes AV valves to bulge into atria X descent: atrial relaxation + pulling downwards of AV ring during early rapid ejection V wave: ventricular systole Y descent: AV valves open and blood rapidly leaves the atria into the ventricle during diastole
36
What is the difference between the incisura and the dichrotic notch?
Incisura: sharp downward deflection occurring immediately after the aortic valve closes as blood being ejected from the LV suddenly stops Dicrotic Notch: smaller notch caused by brief backflow of blood as the aortic valve closes and the aorta recoils in on itself
37
What causes the third and fourth heart sounds?
3rd Heart Sound Occurs during early rapid ventricular filling due to tensing of connective tissues that support the valve cusps Occurs in conditions associated with ventricular dilation 4th Heart Sound Occurs during atrial systole Represents vibration of the ventricular wall during atrial contraction Occurs in conditions associated with stiff ventricles
38
Which part of a left ventricular pressure volume loop denotes stroke work?
Area within the loop (pressure x volume)
39
What is the end systolic pressure volume relationship suggestive of?
The gradient of the end-systolic pressure volume relationship (ESPVR) and end-diastolic pressure volume relationship (EDPVR) is the reciprocal of the ventricle's compliance Shallower gradient means greater change in volume for a small change in pressure (i.e. more compliant ventricle)
40
How does the RV pressure volume loop differ from that of the LV?
Ejection from the RV begins earlier in systole before peak RV pressure is reached Pulmonary circulation is high capacitance and low pressure, so RV ejection continues whilst RV pressure is falling (up to 60% of stroke volume ejected after peak systolic pressures)
41
What's the difference between the Nernst equation and the Goldman Constant Field equation?
Nernst: predicts transmembrane potential based on one ion at a time Goldman Constant Field: considers all major ions
42
What are the phases of the cardiac action potential?
0: depolarisation, Na channels open allowing Na influx 1: Na channels close and K channels open, allowing K efflux 2: Ca channels open allowing Ca influx to balance K efflux 3: Ca channels close, K efflux continues causing repolarisation 4: Na/K ATPase re-established resting membrane potential and concentration gradients
43
Which leads should be used to calculate the cardiac axis?
I and aVF as they are at right angles to each other Should be -30 to +90 degrees
44
Describe the phases of the pacemaker potential.
Phase 4: initially at -60 mV, funny sodium channels open allowing sodium influx, at -50 mV T-type Ca channels open, then at -40 mV L-type Ca channels open, reaching threshold potential Phase 0: ongoing flow through L-type Ca channels leads to depolarisation Phase 3: Ca channels close and opening of K channels returns to membrane potential
45
What are the normal durations of the P wave, PR interval, QRS complex and QTc?
P wave: < 0.12 seconds PR Interval: 0.12-0.20 seconds QRS Complex: < 0.12 seconds QT Interval Men: < 440 ms Women: < 460 ms
46
Describe the effect of beta-1 stimulation on the cardiac action potential.
Increases Na and Ca permeability resulting in faster upward drift of pacemaker potential and increased heart rate In myocardial cells, increased calcium influx leads to stronger contraction
47
Describe the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the cardiac action potential.
Vagus nerve releases acetylcholine to stimulate M2 receptors Leads to opening of K channels that hyperpolarises the cells, thereby slowing the rate at which the threshold potential in pacemaker cells
48
What is the normal partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere, alveolar gas, arterial blood and mixed venous blood?
Atmosphere: 21.2 kPa Alveolus: 14 kPa Arterial: 13.3 kPa Mixed Venous: 5.3 kPa
49
What are the two zones of the airways?
Conducting Zone - No alveoli - Generations 1-16 (trachea to terminal bronchioles) - Volume: 150 mL - Bulk flow during inspiration and expiration - Warming and humidifying inspired air Respiratory Zone - Has alveoli - Generations 17-23 (bronchioles to alveoli) - Volume: 3000 mL - NO bulk flow, gases move by diffusion  - Function: gas exchange 
50
State the equation for alveolar minute ventilation.
Alveolar Minute Ventilation = (Tidal Volume – Dead Space) x Respiratory Rate 
51
What are the two different types of dead space?
Anatomical: upper airways and conducting zone Alveolar: proportion of minute ventilation that does NOT take part in gas exchange due to entering unperfused or underperfused alveoli
52
What factors determine the diffusion capacity of oxygen in the lungs?
Surface area of the lungs  Diffusion constant for oxygen  Thickness of the alveolar and capillary membrane Difference between the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli and the blood
53
State Fick's Law of Diffusion.
Flow of Gas is directly proportional to: (A/T) x D(P1 - P2) A: surface area T: thickness of interface D: diffusion constant for oxygen P1: partial pressure in alveolus P2: partial pressure in capillary
54
What is the rate of oxygen diffusion across the gas exchange interface at rest?
250 mL/min
55
How long does equilibration of gases across the gas exchange interface take?
0.25 seconds NOTE: red cell transit time through the capillaries is 0.75 seconds
56
Define shunt in terms of the respiratory system.
The total proportion of the circulation entering the LEFT side of the heart which has bypassed the oxygenation process of the lungs 
57
What constitutes the normal physiological shunt?
Bronchial circulation and Thebesian drainage (venous drainage from heart muscle into the left ventricle) 
58
Why are the bases of the lungs better ventilated than the apices?
The weight of the lungs compresses the bases meaning that the intrapleural pressure at the bases is less negative This means that the bases have a lower resting volume and require less pressure to bring about a change in volume (i.e. are more compliant)
59
What are the West zones in respiratory physiology?
Zone 1: alveolar pressure greater than arterial pressure so there is no flow (does NOT exist under normal circumstances) Zone 2: arterial > alveolar > venous - flow is dependent on arterial-alveolar pressure gradient Zone 3: arterial > venous > alveolar - flow determined by arterio-venous gradient
60
How does shunt and dead space vary between the apex and base of the lung?
Shunt fraction is higher towards the bases Dead space is greater towards the apices
61
Describe the alveolar pCO2 against pO2 graph for different regions of the lung.
62
Why is there a difference between the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen and the arterial partial pressure?
The PO2 at the apex is about 40 mm Hg higher than at the base  due to differences in V/Q The difference in ventilation between the apex and the base is much less than the change in perfusion  Most blood comes from the bases of the lungs which has a lower pO2 and higher pCO2 – this will lower the pO2 and increase the pCO2 of arterial blood when compared to alveolar gas  NOTE: normal alveolar-arterial oxygen difference is 4 mm Hg
63
What causes an increase in A-a oxygen difference?
High or Low V/Q Ratios Low V/Q Ratio: ventilation is significantly reduced relative to perfusion, leads to fall in PAO2 and even greater fall in PaO2, this can be partially corrected by increasing FiO2 High V/Q Ratio: PAO2 remains stable but PaO2 falls due to reduced perfusion
64
State the shunt equation.
Qt x CaO2 = (Qs x CvO2) + ((Qt - Qs) x CcO2) Qs/Qt = (CcO2 - CaO2)/(CcO2 - CvO2) Qs = shunt blood flow Qt = total blood flow (cardiac output monitoring) CcO2 = End capillary oxygen content (estimated using alveolar gas equation) CaO2 = arterial oxygen content (from arterial blood gas) CvO2 = mixed venous oxygen content (from pulmonary artery floatation catheter sample)
65
State the oxygen content equation.
CaO2 = (Hb x 1.39 x SaO2) + (0.003 x PaO2) NOTE: 1.39 mL of oxygen is carried per gram of fully saturated haemoglobin Hb in grams per 100 mL PaO2 in mm Hg
66
What factors increase haemoglobin affinity for oxygen?
Alkalosis Hypothermia Decreased 2,3-DPG
67
How does carbon dioxide shift the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve in the lungs compared to the tissues?
Lungs - CO2 is eliminated and pH rises, thereby shifting the curve to the left - This enhances the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin Tissues - Cellular metabolism leads to CO2 and H+ production, thereby shifting the curve to the right - This means that the haem releases oxygen more readily 
68
Describe the action of 2,3-disphosphoglycerate.
Produced as side reaction from glycolysis Binds to beta-globin and reduces haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Improves oxygen offloading in anaemia and low oxygen states
69
What is each heme molecule made up of?
Protoporphyrin ring (four pyrole rings) and iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) state NOTE: protoporphyrin is synthesised in the mitochondria from glycine and succinyl CoA and combined with ferrous iron
70
List three forms of haemoglobin.
Haemoglobin A: 2 alpha and 2 beta Haemoglobin A2: 2 alpha and 2 delta Haemoglobin F: 2 alpha and 2 gamma
71
How are red cells broken down?
By the reticuloendothelial system Globin chains are broken down into amino acids which are recycled Iron is reused by the bone marrow to make more haemoglobin Protoporphyrin is opened to form biliverdin, which is metabolised to bilirubin
72
What is Hufner's constant?
The amount of oxygen (in mL) carried by each gram of haemoglobin  Values in vitro are 1.39 mL/g whereas in vivo its 1.34 ml/G - this is thought to be due to the presence of minor haemoglobin variants like HbA2 and HbF
73
What is the Bohr effect?
Refers to the reduced affinity of oxygen for haemoglobin when pH is lower  (and carbon dioxide is higher) This is adaptive – for example, the pH in exercising muscles is low and this helps offload oxygen 
74
What is the Double Bohr effect?
Uptake of foetal CO2 by maternal blood shifts the maternal oxy-haemoglobin curve to the right, and the foetal curve to the left 
75
How does the 2,3-DPG level change in stored blood?
Stored blood quickly loses 2,3-DPG and its ability to deliver oxygen 
76
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of thalassemia.
There are four alpha globin genes on chromosome 14 - Alpha thalassemia results from mutations to 1 to 4 of these genes  There are two beta globin genes on chromosome 11  - Mutations in these genes causes beta thalassemia  - It usually manifests at 6 months of age when HbA takes over from HbF 
77
Which mutation causes sickle cell disease?
Glutamic acid is substituted for valine at position 6 of the beta globin chain
78
Describe the effect of carbon monoxide binding to haemoglobin on oxygen affinity.
Binding changes the confirmation of haemoglobin making it less likely to release oxygen (I.e. shifting the curve to the left) and it reduces the availability of binding sites for oxygen
79
How much oxygen is carried by 100 mL of 100% saturated blood under normal conditions?
20 mL/100 mL
80
State the oxygen consumption (VO2) equation.
VO2 = CO x (Arterial O2 Content – Mixed Venous O2 Content) = CO(CaO2 – CvO2) 
81
What is the normal VO2 in a healthy subject?
Normal mixed venous PO2 is around 5.3 kPa - at this pO2, haemoglobin is 75% saturated  Remember, 100% saturated blood contains 20 mL/100 mL of oxygen (meaning that 75% saturation will give 15 mL/100 mL of oxygen) Therefore: VO2 = 5000 x (20-15)/100 = 250 mL/min
82
What is a low central venous oxygen saturation suggestive of?
Oxygen delivery is insufficient and the oxygen extraction ratio has been increased to compensate NOTE: normal is around 75%
83
How are glucose, fatty acids and amino acids metabolised for use in Phase 2 reactions?
Glucose --> 2 Pyruvate via glycolysis in the cytoplasm 2 Pyruvate --> 2 Acetyl CoA due to oxidative decarboxylation in the mitochondria Free Fatty Acids --> Acetyl CoA via beta oxidation Amino Acids --> Pyruvate + Acetyl CoA + Krebs Cycle Intermediates via oxidation
84
What comes out of the Krebs cycle for each molecule of glucose?
2 ATP 2 CO2  6 NADH+ 2 FADH
85
What happens in the electron transport chain?
In the mitochondria, reduced enzymes (NADH and FADH) are reoxidised releasing electrons and energy used to convert ADP to ATP 1 NADH2 = 3 ATP 1 FADH2 = 2 ATP Oxygen is the final electron acceptor which combines with hydrogen ions to produce water 
86
How many molecules of ATP are generated per molecule of glucose undergoing aerobic respiration?
38 ATP
87
What are the four main types of tissue hypoxia?
Hypoxia Hypoxia Anaemic Hypoxia Ischaemia/Stagnant Hypoxia Histotoxic Hypoxia
88
What is the critical intracellular pO2 requires for aerobic metabolism to continue?
0.4 kPa
89
What are the anoxic thresholds for the brain?
2 mins anoxia = irreversible cell damage  4 mins anoxia = cell death 
90
What are the early local, ventilators and cardiovascular changes that occur in response to tissue hypoxia?
LOCAL: acid accumulation from anaerobic respiration leads to right shift of ODC, 2,3-DPG also rises, vasodilation due to low pO2, high pCO2 and low pH VENTILATORY: minute ventilation increases when pO2 < 7 kPa CARDIOVASCULAR: Stimulation of the chemoreceptors results in vasoconstriction and tachycardia resulting in improved tissue perfusion by increasing blood pressure and heart rate
91
Plot a graph that demonstrates the ventilatory response to hypoxia with and without the presence of hypercapnia.
92
Plot a graph that demonstrates the ventilatory response to hypercapnia with and without hypoxia.
93
Over what range in mean arterial pressure is cerebral blood flow kept constant?
50-150 mm Hg
94
Below what pO2 do you get an exponential increase in cerebral blood flow?
6.7 kPa NOTE: brain is responsible for 20% of total body oxygen consumption
95
What is the oxygen extraction of coronary tissues?
75% Compared to 25% in other tissues. This can increase to 90% when demand increases (e.g. exercise)
96
What mediates the vasoconstrictive response of the pulmonary vasculature to tissue hypoxia?
Inhibition of nitric oxide production Local production of vasoconstrictors (e.g. endothelin) Direct effect of hypoxia on vascular smooth muscle 
97
Why is end-tidal CO2 slightly lower than PACO2?
Due to the mixSting with expired gas from unperfused alveoli
98
State the equation for alveolar PACO2 percentage.
(CO2 x 100)/Alveolar Ventilation = ~5%
99
What are the four main causes of hypercapnia?
Increased inspired pCO2 (rebreathing) Primary respiratory depression (e.g. CNS depression) Increased CO2 production (e.g. sepsis, MH) Compensatory (to metabolic alkalosis)
100
What are the neurological effects of hypercapnia?
Increased cerebral blood flow Increased ICP (due to vasodilation) Narcosis (at pCO2 > 12 kPa) Autonomic effects (due to increased circulating catecholamines)
101
Why is the ventilatory response to a respiratory acidosis greater than that of a metabolic acidosis of the same severity?
CO2 rapidly crosses the BBB and, in the CSF, dissolves to release H+ (which cannot go back across the BBB leading to a drop in CSF pH) BBB is more permeable to CO2 than it is to H+
102
What are the respiratory effects of hypercapnia?
Linear increase in minute ventilation Pulmonary vasoconstriction (if PaCO2 > 7) ODC shifts to the right
103
What are the cardiovascular effects of hypercapnia?
Impaired heart rate and contractility (due to acidosis) Systemic vasodilation and pulmonary vasoconstriction Arrhythmia Increased catecholamine release (opposes the direct myocardial impairment mentioned above)
104
State the main physiological buffers and their buffering capacity.
Bicarbonate: 18 mmol H+ per L Plasma Proteins: 1.7 mmol H+ per L Haemoglobin: 8 mmol H+ per L Phosphate: 0.3 mmol H+ per L TOTAL: 28 mmol H+ per L
105
What is the solubility coefficient of carbon dioxide at 37 degrees?
0.231
106
Which mineral is carbonic anhydrase dependent on?
Zinc Zinc hydrolyses water to a reactive Zn-OH species  Nearby histidine removed H+ from Zn and transfers to any buffer molecules near the enzyme Carbon dioxide combined with Zn-OH forming HCO3- The HCO3- dissociates from the zinc atom 
107
What is carbamino carriage?
Amino groups of haemoglobin can combine with CO2 to form carbamic acid Deoxyhaemoglobin is about 3.5 times more effective at carbamino carriage than oxyhaemoglobin NOTE: this is a major component of the Haldane effect. Oxygenation reduces its affinity for CO2.
108
Define the Haldane effect.
Physiological phenomenon where the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin in the lungs promotes the release of carbon dioxide, and conversely, the release of oxygen from hemoglobin in the tissues facilitates the uptake of carbon dioxide.
109
Which amino acid is primarily responsible for the buffering capacity of haemoglobin?
Imidazole group of histidine Each Hb tetramer has 38 histidine molecules
110
Why does the pKa of a buffer matter?
Buffering capacity is a measure of a solution's ability to resist changes in pH when acid or base is added  A buffer works best when pKa is close to physiological pH because it means that, at physiological pH, the buffer has significant amounts of both its acid and its conjugate base to be able to neutralise any acid or base that is added to the solution, thereby minimising changes in pH 
111
What mechanism explains the Haldane effect?
In deoxyhaemoglobin, the imidazole group of histidine is more basic As oxygen dissociates, it becomes more basic and binds more H+ Removal of H+ shifts the carbonic acid equilibrium towards H+ and HCO3- generation, thereby 'consuming' CO2 This leads to increased movement of CO2 into the red cells Deoxyhaemoglobin also has increased carbamino carriage
112
What is the difference between the Haldane effect and the Bohr effect?
Haldane effect is what happens to pH and CO2 binding because of oxygen, and Bohr effect is what happens to oxygen binding because of CO2 and lower pH.
113
How is the H+ and HCO3- generates by the action of carbonic anhydrase within the red cell dealt with?
Haemoglobin buffering (H+ soaked up by histidine residues) Hamburger Shift (HCO3- exchanged for Cl- by Band 3 protein) NOTE: hereditary spherocytosis is caused by inherited defect in Band 3
114
Draw the CO2 dissociation curve.
115
What is a paramagnetism and which gases are paramagnetic?
Paramagnetic gases are attracted by a magnetic field (and can be analysed by a paramagnetic analyser) due to the presence of unpaired outer orbital electrons. Examples: oxygen, nitric oxide
116
What is the critical temperature of a substance?
A substance above its critical temperature cannot be liquified irrespective of the pressure applied to it.
117
What is the critical temperature of oxygen?
-118 degrees
118
What is the difference between dynamic compliance and static compliance?
Dynamic compliance is affected by both airway resistance and elastic resistance, while static compliance is affected by elastic resistance alone.
119
What is a sieving coefficient?
The sieving coefficient provides a measure of how different molecules move across a semi-permeable membrane. In renal replacement therapy, it is the ratio of the concentration of a molecule in the ultrafiltrate compared to the concentration in the blood. NOTE: smaller molecules equilibrate across the membrane more readily and have a coefficient around 1
120
What is the transpulmonary pressure?
Transpulmonary pressure = pressure in the right side of the heart – pressure in the left side of the heart. NOTE: Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is often used as a surrogate for left atrial pressure
121
Which other endogenous hormone has similar effects to ADH when given in large doses?
Oxytocin
122
What is the half-life of ADH?
5 mins
123
Which antihypertensive reduces blood pressure by affecting the autonomic nervous system?
Blocks post synaptic β1 receptors (part of the autonomic nervous system).
124
Briefly explain how a pulse oximeter works.
In pulse oximetry, red (660nm) and infrared (940nm) LEDs blink on and off 30 times per second. The degree of absorbance of these wavelengths by a photodetector is measured, and is correlated with known data to provide an estimate of oxygen saturations. Oxygenated haemoglobin absorbs infrared (940nm) light to a greater degree than deoxygenated haemoglobin. The reverse is true of red light. The off:off signal allows for the photodetector to establish the degree of ambient light which is then subtracted from the received signal.
125
Which spinal nerve roots are the obturator and femoral nerves derived from?
Anterior rami of L2-L4
126
What is closing capacity and how does it change with ageing?
Closing capacity (the sum of residual volume and closing volume), is the lung volume at which small airways begin to close during expiration. With advancing age, it is increased to the extent that it may exceed FRC. This leads to closure of the small airways during normal tidal breathing.
127
What is a purpose of a diode?
Convert AC to DC current (knowing as rectification)
128
Which factors affect the transfer of a drug through the placenta?
Lipid solubility: More lipid soluble, more transfer Ionisation: More ionised, less transfer Protein binding: More protein binding, less transfer pH: Determines degree of ionisation, which in turn affects transfer Molecular weight: Large, bulky molecules, pass less readily.
129
How does hypothermia affect the pH of blood?
CO2 is more soluble in water as the temperature decreases such that maintenance of the same PCO2 in the blood when hypothermia requires more total CO2  Decreasing temperature reduces the ionisation of water so pH increases by around 0.016 per degree fall in temperature Therefore, if CO2 production and excretion remain constant, hypothermia would lead to alkalosis
130
What is the pH stat hypothesis with regards to responses to hypothermia?
Animals try to maintain blood pH in hypothermia by hypoventilating (this is seen in hibernating animals)
131
What is the alpha stat hypothesis with regards to responses to hypothermia?
The ionisation state of histidine and, hence, its buffering ability changes with temperature to a similar degree to the ionisation of water  So, as temperature decreases and blood/tissue pH rises, the ionisation of histidine can buffer this change in pH 
132
List the mechanisms and possible causes of respiratory acidosis.
Increased inspired CO2: rebreathing Increased production of CO2: hyperthermia, hyperthyroidism, laparoscopic surgery Decreased excretion: increased dead space, failure of respiratory muscle function
133
What does the alveolar gas equation show?
The partial pressure of oxygen within the alveolus once the partial pressure of oxygen delivered and the amount consumed to meet the metabolic demands of the body have been considered.
134
State the alveolar gas equation.
PAO2 = FiO2(Patm - Ph2o) - (PCO2/RQ)
135
What is the saturated vapour pressure of water at 37 degrees?
6.3 kPa
136
Why is saturated vapour pressure important in the alveolar gas equation?
Air becomes 100% saturated with water as it passes through the airways The SVP of water at body temperature is 6.3 kPa As per Dalton's law, as the vapour takes up space within the airways, it must be subtracted from the partial pressure of atmospheric air
137
How does FiO2 change with altitude?
It doesn't - the FiO2 remains the same, however, the total atmospheric pressure decreases meaning that the pO2 will decrease
138
What causes high altitude pulmonary oedema?
Caused by excessive pulmonary vasoconstriction 
139
How much does pressure increase by as you go underwater?
1 atmosphere for every 10 m of depth
140
What are some of the consequences of rapid ascent when scuba diving?
Barotrauma in air-filled spaces (e.g. lungs, ear) Arterial air embolus Bubbles forming in vessel poor tissues (e.g. cartilage) with avascular necrosis  Potentially permanent neurological damage
141
List some indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
Anaerobic infections CO poisoning Decompression sickness
142
What are some important considerations when air transferring an unwell patient?
If hypoxia at sea level, more vulnerable to desaturation and requiring more oxygen at altitude  Pressurisation and depressurisation in planes occurs suddenly which can cause air filled spaces (e.g. pneumothorax, bulla) to expand rapidly Boiling pressure of volatiles falls
143
Describe a covalent bond.
Two atoms share one or more outer shell electrons The negatively charged electrons are attracted to both nuclei simultaneously and this overcomes the repulsion which would otherwise exist between two nuclei, thereby forming a strong bond Occurs between non-metals
144
Describe an ionic bond.
An outer electron is transferred from one atom to another The electron-accepting atom becomes negatively charged (anion) whilst the other becomes positive (cation) resulting in an electrostatic attraction between them Occurs between metals and non-metals
145
Define latent heat of vaporisation.
Energy required to change one unit of mass from liquid to gas (e.g. water boiling)
146
Define latent heat.
Energy required to transform matter from one state to another
147
Define latent heat of fusion.
Energy required to change one unit of mass from solid to liquid (e.g. when ice melts)
148
Define specific heat capacity.
Determines the energy needed to raised 1 kg of the substance by a temperature of 1 degree
149
State the equation that determines the energy required to change the temperature of a material.
Q = cmΔT Q: energy required c: specific heat capacity m: mass ΔT: temperature change
150
What is the specific heat capacity of water?
4.18 J/g/C
151
Why doesn't the temperature of water go above 100 degrees in a kettle?
When the water starts becoming a vapour (changing phase), it is absorbing energy (latent heat of vaporisation) and the temperature does not rise
152
What is the triple point with regards to phases of matter?
Pressure and temperature where all three states can coexist
153
Define critical pressure.
Minimum pressure required to liquefy the gas at the critical temperature
154
Define vapour (as opposed to gas).
Any substance in the gas phase at a temperature lower than its critical temperature This means that vapours can be condensed into a liquid or to a solid by increasing the pressure without reducing the temperature
155
Define solid, liquid and gas.
Solid: A state of matter with a fixed shape and volume, where particles are tightly packed and vibrate in place. Liquid: A state of matter with a fixed volume but no fixed shape, allowing it to flow while particles move more freely than in a solid. Gas: A state of matter with no fixed shape or volume, where particles move rapidly and spread out to fill any container.
156
State Newton's first law.
CONSTANT VELOCITY: objects move in a straight line at constant speed or remain stationary unless a force acts upon the object
157
State Newton's second law.
Acceleration of a body is proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object F = m x a
158
Define pressure.
Force applied to an object per unit area P = F/A
159
State Hooke's law.
There is a linear relationship between the force applied and the extension of a spring within the elastic limits for that spring F = -kx F: force k: spring constant x: extension
160
Define spring constant.
The degree of stiffness or springiness The higher the spring constant the more difficult it is for the spring to extend The amount of displacement from equilibrium can be positive (extension) or negative (compression) - the negative sign, therefore, indicates that the spring exerts a force in the opposite direction to the displacement
161
Define boiling point in relation to saturated vapour pressure.
Temperature at which the saturated vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure NOTE: At boiling point, further heat does NOT increase the temperature but provides the latent heat of vaporisation which makes gas molecules evaporate from the liquid phase
162
Why is boiling point defined as the temperature at which SVP equals atmospheric pressure?
Atmospheric pressure pushes down on the liquid, preventing vaporisation. When the liquid's saturated vapour pressure matches the atmospheric pressure, the gas molecules inside the liquid can form stable bubbles without being crushed by external pressure. These bubbles rise and escape, leading to boiling. NOTE: this is why the boiling point is lower at higher altitudes
163
Define saturated vapour pressure.
Pressure exerted by the vapour phase of a substance when in equilibrium with the liquid phase (i.e. molecules entering liquid phase are equal to molecules leaving it)
164
How does letting vapour out of a vaporiser affect its temperature?
It will shift the equilibrium favouring the movement of molecules out of the liquid phase which increases the initial rate of vaporisation but indirectly leads to a lowering of the temperature, a fall in the saturated vapour pressure and, ultimately, a lower vaporisation rate
165
How does SVP relate to volatility?
A higher SVP means that the agent will more readily vaporise NOTE: a standard temperature must be set when comparing SVP
166
What is the boiling point of desflurane and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: 23 SVP at 20 degrees: 89 kPa
167
What is the boiling point of sevoflurane and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: 59 SVP at 20 degrees: 21 kPa
168
What is the boiling point of isoflurane and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: 49 SVP at 20 degrees: 32 kPa
169
What is the boiling point of halothane and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: 50 SVP at 20 degrees: 33 kPa
170
What is the boiling point of enflurane and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: 57 SVP at 20 degrees: 23.3 kPa
171
What is the boiling point of nitrous oxide and its SVP at 20 degrees?
Boiling Point: -88 SVP at 20 degrees: 5200
172
Why does desflurane need a special vaporiser?
At room temperature, it mainly exists in the vapour phase Tec 6 heats desflurane to 39 degrees and injects it directly into the fresh gas flow Given desflurane's tendency to vaporise, using a standard vaporiser would require a very high fresh gas flow and its high latent heat of vaporisation would lead to cooling and inconsistent vaporisation
173
Describe how alveolar ventilation, FRC and cardiac output affect the speed of onset of a volatile anaesthetic.
High alveolar ventilation = faster onset because more rapid increase in alveolar partial pressure High FRC = slower onset because of dilution of agent S High cardiac output = slower onset because of more rapid removal from the alveoli (alveolar partial pressure cannot build fast)
174
State the blood: gas partition coefficients at 37 degrees for the following gases: desflurane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, halothane and nitrous oxide
Halothane: 2.3 Isoflurane: 1.4 Sevoflurane: 0.65 Nitrous Oxide: 0.47 Desflurane: 0.45 NOTE: water solubility decreases as molecular weight decreases
175
Describe the relationship between blood: gas partition coefficients and the speed of onset of volatile anaesthetics.
The lower the blood: gas partition coefficient the faster the onset of action because the gas is better able to achieve high alveolar partial pressures as it does not transfer into the blood as readily
176
Define MAC.
The minimum alveolar concentration of an anaesthetic agent that prevents movement in response to a standard skin incision in standard conditions in 50% of subjects when breathing 100% oxygen in the absence of other analgesic or anaesthetic agents NOTE: inversely related to potency (smaller MAC means more potent)
177
State the MAC of the following drugs: nitrous oxide, isoflurane, sevoflurane, halothane and desflurane
Nitrous Oxide: 104 Desflurane: 6.6 Sevoflurane: 2 Isoflurane: 1.1 Halothane: 0.75
178
What is thought to be the mechanism of action of volatile anaesthetics?
Potentiate GABA-A and glycine receptor, and may inhibit NMDA receptors
179
What is the Meyer-Overton hypothesis?
MAC increases with oil: gas partition coefficient
180
List factors that increase MAC.
Young age Chronic alcohol consumption Hyperthermia Hyperthyroidism Cocaine and amphetamine use
181
List factors that decrease MAC.
Neonates and elderly Acute alcohol intoxication Hypothermia Hypothyroidism Other sedatives Pregnancy
182
What are the physical features of an ideal volatile anaesthetic?
Liquid at room temperature Stable at room temperature and in light Non-flammable Inert in contact with metal, rubber and soda lime Inexpensive Environmentally safe Low latent heat of vaporisation High saturated vapour pressure
183
What are the pharmacological properties of the ideal volatile anaesthetic?
Pleasant smell No respiratory irritation Low blood: gas partition coefficient (fast onset/offset) Potent (high oil: gas partition coefficient so low MAC) Minimal metabolism Excretion via the lungs Cardiovascular stability Analgesic properties Non-epileptogenic No increase in intracranial pressure
184
What are some unwanted CNS effects of volatile anaesthetics?
Cerebral vasodilation (resulting in raised ICP) Excitatory phenomena (agitation/delirium - most common with sevoflurane)
185
What are the main effects of volatile anaesthetics on the respiratory system?
Reduced alveolar ventilation (due to reduced tidal volume and only slight increase in respiratory rate) Bronchodilation (sevoflurane and isoflurane)
186
What are the main effects of volatile anaesthetics on the cardiovascular system?
Decreased MAP (usually by decreasing SVR though halothane reduces cardiac output) Sevoflurane can prolong QTc NOTE: desflurane and sevoflurane cause an increase in HR
187
What is the main danger of using halothane?
CYP450 pathways produce a toxic metabolite called trifluoroacetic acid which led to some patients going into acute fulminant hepatitis NOTE: most other volatile agents are excreted unchanged by the lungs
188
What is malignant hyperthermia?
Rare autosomal dominant (chromosome 19) condition that can be triggered by volatile agents and suxamethonium Incidence of 1 in 10,000
189
What are the clinical manifestations of malignant hyperthermia?
Muscle rigidity Tachycardia Rising ETCO2 Rising oxygen requirement Hyperpyrexia Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
190
Outline the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia.
Triggering agents (volatiles or suxamethonium) causes uncontrolled release of free calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum due to a mutation in the ryanodine receptor of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
191
What measures should be considered for a patient requiring anaesthetic who is at risk of malignant hyperthermia?
Consider using regional anaesthesia Avoid suxamethonium and volatiles Use TIVA Use a clean machine (no volatiles used by machine beforehand) Have dantrolene to hand Monitor temperature and ETCO2 closely
192
Define viscosity.
A measure of a fluid's resistance to flow.
193
What is a Newtonian fluid?
Constant viscosity regardless of flow rate NOTE: non-Newtonian fluids can become more or less viscous with increasing flow rate
194
What is surface tension and what causes it?
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules on the surface of a liquid are stronger than those in the middle as there are fewer surrounding molecules This pulls neighbouring molecules as close to each other as possible (causing the bubble shape)
195
State the law of Laplace.
The larger the radius of the vessel, the greater the wall tension required to withstand a given internal fluid pressure
196
State the equations that reflect the law of Laplace in spherical bubbled and in cylinders.
Sphere: ΔP = 2T/R Cylinder: ΔP = T/R NOTE: wall tension and surface tension are measured in force per unit length (N/m)
197
Why do aortic aneurysms often form spheres?
Initially, it looks like a cylinder and the increase in radius leads to increasing wall tension in a vicious cycle If it bulges towards a more cylindrical shape, the tension will decrease because the wall tension of a sphere is half that of a cylinder for the same difference in pressure and radius.
198
How does the role of surfactant in alveoli relate back to the law of Laplace?
ΔP = 2T/R Smaller alveoli have a higher pressure for a given surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli are harder to inflate and would empty into larger alveoli. Surfactant reduces surface tension and is present in greater concentrations in smaller alveoli.
199
Define work in the context of physics.
Product of the force applied and the distance the object is moved Work = Force x Distance
200
Define energy.
Capacity for doing work
201
Define power in the context of physics.
Rate at which energy is being done (or the rate of energy transfer) Power = Work Done/Time Taken
202
What is a joule?
The amount of energy required to exert a force of one newton through a distance of one metre A calorie is another unit for energy and is approximately 4.2 J
203
What is the unit for power?
Watt 1 watt = 1 joule per second
204
Derive how the work done by a ventilator is equal to pressure x volume.
Work Done = Force x Distance Force = Pressure x Area Work Done = Pressure x Area x Distance Volume = Area x Distance Work Done = Pressure x Volume
205
Why is the pressure in the lungs different from the pressure generated by the ventilator?
Energy is lost due to airway resistance At end inspiration and end expiration, the pressure between the lungs and ventilator will temporarily equilibrate because there is no air flow meaning that there can be no resistance
206
Why do the lungs demonstrate hysteresis when inflating and deflating?
Elastic hysteresis - different volumes for identical pressures during inspiration and expiration This occurs because lung tissue resists stretching during inspiration and recoils more readily during expiration Surfactant dilutes during inspiration leading to increasing surface tension
207
Define compliance.
Change of volume with respect to pressure (a measure of ease of expansion) C = ΔV/ΔP Measured in metres per Newton
208
What is the relationship between compliance and elastance?
Elastance is the reciprocal of compliance
209
List some causes of high lung compliance.
Age Emphysema
210
Describe the balance between compliance and elastance in lung physiology
Your lungs need to be compliant enough to expand relatively easily during inspiration They also need to be elastic enough to deflate during expiration without requiring too much work from the expiratory muscles
211
What is the work of one inspiration in joules?
The work of one inspiration is around 0.36 J NOTE: for 15 breaths/min Power = 0.36 x 15/60 = 0.09 J/s = 90 mW As the respiratory muscles are only 90% efficient, the power required for resting breathing is around 900 mW The total metabolic rate of a subject at rest is 80-90 W so respiratory power is about 1% of energy consumed by the body
212
Why does hyperventilation require more power?
Rapid breathing causes higher flow rates resulting in more turbulence Turbulent flow (as per the relationship described above) requires more power than laminar flow for a given flow rate resulting in higher energy consumption by the respiratory muscles The oxygen demands of the hyperactive respiratory muscles can exceed the supply of oxygen resulting in hypoxia
213
How much power does the heart require?
At rest, the mechanical output power of the heart is 1.3 W Efficiency of the Heart 10% of energy supplied to the heart is converted into mechanical energy 90% is converted to heat This means the heart requires 13 W of power to function at rest
214
What is a COBRA perilaryngeal airway?
A supraglottic airway device used for ventilation during general anesthesia, designed to seal the upper airway and facilitate breathing The COBRA airway has a ramp which helps to guide tracheal tubes towards the larynx.
215
What features of a circle system minimise rebreathing?
Unidirectional valves are between the patient and the reservoir bag on both inspiratory and expiratory limb. Fresh gas flow introduced between soda lime and the inspiratory valve. APL valve between expiratory valve and soda lime. The ventilator is typically located between the unidirectional valve in the expiratory limb and the soda lime
216
Draw a circle system layout.
217
Which cells secrete the following in the stomach: gastric acid, gastrin, pepsinogen and somatostatin?
Gastric Acid: Parietal Cells Gastrin: G-Cells Pepsinogen: Chief Cells Somatostatin: D-Cells
218
What is the rate constant?
Rate of change in the plasma concentration per unit time.
219
What is the time constant?
Time taken for the plasma concentration to reach zero, had it continued at its initial rate. This is also the time for the plasma concentration to reach 1/e of its original value, which is roughly 37%.
220
State the equations that relate half-life to volume of distribution, clearance, rate constant and time constant.
t1/2 = 0.693 x Vd/Cl t1/2 = 0.693/k t1/2 = 0.693 x time constant
221
What should cuff pressure be?
20-30 cm H2O
222
How does thiopentone demonstrate tautomerism?
Thiopentone is buffered at a pH of 10.5 at which point the water-soluble enol form is favoured At physiological pH, it becomes a more lipid soluble keto form which can cross the blood-brain barrier
223
What features of a plenum vaporiser are there to enhance safety?
A long inlet port into the vaporising chamber ensures that the bypass channel is not contaminated by retrograde flow (creates increased resistance to backflow) Downstream flow restrictors maintain vaporiser at a pressure greater than at the gas outlet. Downstream pressure relief valves act to prevent back pressure being transmitted to the ventilator. Anti-spill valves prevent contamination of the breathing circuit. Wicks and baffles are used to ensure gas leaving the vaporisation chamber is fully saturated with vapour.
224
What stimulus is used by peripheral nerve stimulators and why?
A supramaximal stimulus of 50mA is used in peripheral nerve stimulators. This is 25-50% higher than that needed to produce a maximal response which ensures all motor fibres depolarise simultaneously and eliminates variation due to impedance and position of electrodes.
225
In which part of the sympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine found as a neurotransmitter?
Sweat glands NOTE: the rest uses noradrenaline
226
What are the main advantages and disadvantages of a mainstream gas analyser?
Advantages: no sampling tube, reduced chance of obstruction, no lag time, no pollution, no effect due to changes in water vapour pressure. Disadvantages: sensor windows clog with secretions, bulky, increased risk of patient cross-contamination.
227
What are the main advantages and disadvantages of a sidestream gas analyser?
Advantages: easy to connect, no problem with sterilisation, can be used in awake patients, easy to use in unusual patient position e.g. prone, light weight, robust. Disadvantages: lag time, possible sampling tube obstruction, water vapour pressure can change ETCO2 concentrations, sampled gas vented to atmosphere or returned to circle system, moisture trap required to dry gas, pressure drop along sampling tube affects ETCO2 concentrations.
228
Why would a mainstream gas analyser be better in an unwell neonate on NICU?
A mainstream analyser would add minimal dead space and be able to rapidly display changes in carbon dioxide with a high respiratory rate and small tidal volume. A rapid response time is desired, and this is less possible with side stream capnography.
229
What is a hypoxic guard on a rotameter flowmeter?
It makes it impossible to deliver an oxygen concentration below 25% E.g. when nitrous oxide is turned up to 9 L/min, the oxygen flow rate will increase to 3 L/min to achieve a concentration of 25%
230
List drugs that are associated with gynaecomastia.
Digoxin Spironolactone Isoniazid Cimetidine
231
What are the two main bundles of optical fibres in a flexible fibreoptic endoscope?
Coherent bundle (to transmit image) Non-coherent/illumination bundle (to transmit light) NOTE: a working channel surrounded by a flexible steel braid, angulation wires and a protective sheath
232
What is the approximate diameter of fibres of the coherent bundle of a fibreoptic endoscope?
The coherent sheath can consist of as many as 10’000 fibres of diameter 5-20 μm.
233
What is the chemical name for propofol?
2,6-diisopropylphenol
234
Describe the L2 dermatome and myotome.
Dermatome: anterior aspect of thigh Myotome: hip flexion
235
What are some features of an ideal microbial filter.
Low penetration rate Effective bidirectionally Small internal volume (minimise dead space) Minimal resistance to gas flow Effective when wet or dry Disposable Cheap Transparent and lightweight
236
State the equation for calculating total resistance in parallel circuits.
1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + … 1/Rn, where n is the number of parallel branches.
237
State the equation that links volume of distribution, target plasma concentration and initial dose.
Loading dose (mg) = concentration (mg/ml) x volume of distribution (ml)
238
What is the composition of soda lime?
90-95% calcium hydroxide. 2-5% sodium hydroxide. Silica and zeolite – varying amounts. Indicator dye NOTE: pH is 13.5 with a moisture content of 14-19%. Calcium carbonate is formed during the series of reactions between carbon dioxide and the constituents of soda lime.
239
State Gay-Lussac law.
Pressure and temperature are directly proportional
240
State Charles' law.
Volume and temperature are directly proportional
241
State Boyle's law.
Product of pressure and volume is constant (k=PV). Therefore, P1V1 = P2V2 in a closed system.
242
State Henry's law.
Describes how the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above said liquid.
243
State Graham's law.
Describes how the rate of a diffusion of a substance is inversely proportional to its molecular weight.
244
What is the minimum monitoring for transfer as per the AAGBI guidelines?
ECG SpO2 NIBP a Capnography (if airway device in place)
245
What is the induction dose of propofol?
1-3 mg/kg
246
What is the induction dose of thiopentone?
3-7 mg/kg
247
What is the IV induction dose of ketamine?
1-2 mg/kg
248
What is the induction dose of etomidate?
0.3 mg/kg
249
What is the pKa of propofol?
pKa 11
250
What is the pKa of thiopentone?
pKa 7.6
251
What is the pKa of ketamine?
pKa 7.5
252
What is the pKa of etomidate?
pKa 4.0
253
What is the protein binding of propofol?
Protein Binding 98%
254
What is the protein binding of thiopentone?
Protein Binding 80%
255
What is the protein binding of ketamine?
Protein Binding 25%
256
What is the protein binding of etomidate?
Protein Binding 75%
257
What is the volume of distribution of propofol?
4 L/kg
258
What is the volume of distribution of thiopentone?
2.5 L/kg
259
What is the volume of distribution of ketamine?
3 L/kg
260
What is the volume of distribution of etomidate?
3 L/kg
261
What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?
Non-competitive NMDA antagonist
262
What is the total CSF volume of an average person?
150 mL NOTE: total volume of CSF produced per day is 450 mL
263
What is post-tetanic stimulation on a peripheral nerve stimulator?
5 second tetanic stimulus (50 Hz) followed by a 3 second pause and then 20 stimuli at a rate of 1 Hz. During the period of stimulation, pre-synaptic receptors are activated which leads to the synthesis and mobilisation of additional acetylcholine. This explains why twitches appear following tetanic stimulation, yet did not appear with the conventional train of four. NOTE: used for deep neuromuscular block
264
Define damping.
Decrease in the amplitude of an oscillation as a result of energy loss in a system due to frictional or resistive forces. The damping coefficient gives a measure of how quickly an oscillating system will come to rest at a new value.
265
What damping coefficient does an optimally damped system have?
0.64
266
What is the theoretical minimum fresh gas flow required for a circle system?
250 ml/min to meet basal oxygen consumption
267
Which feature of fentanyl makes it inappropriate for use as a total intravenous anaesthetic agent?
Highly lipid soluble (600 x morphine) meaning that it enters and accumulates in tissues This gives it a high context-sensitive half-time meaning that a timely wake up is impractical.
268
What is the vasoconstrictive mechanism of action of methylene blue?
Inhibits nitric oxide induced cGMP activity resulting in vasoconstriction
269
Define a Coulomb.
The amount of charge that passes a given point, per second, when 1 ampere of current is flowing.
270
At what vertebral position does the larynx lie in children compared to adults?
Children: C2/C3 Adults: C5/C6
271
What is the purpose of the Selectatec interlock system on anaesthetic machines?
Ensures that only one vaporiser % control dial may be turned on at any time through the use of interlocking extension rods
272
What makes up the portal triad?
Hepatic artery Portal vein Branch of biliary tree
273
How much of hepatic oxygen requirement and blood flow is supplied by the hepatic portal vein?
Hepatic portal vein 60% flow 40% oxygen NOTE: common hepatic artery is a branch of the coeliac trunk
274
How does the composition of CSF facilitate control of ventilation?
Reduced protein concentration in CSF limits buffering capacity allowing changes in pH to occur This affects central chemoreceptors which controls ventilation
275
What are the second line agents used in status epilepticus after two maximal doses of benzodiazepines?
Levetiracetam (30-60 mg/kg over 5 minutes, maximum 3g) Phenytoin (20 mg/kg by slow IV infusion over 20 minutes with ECG monitoring) Phenobarbital (20 mg/kg IV over 5 minutes)
276
What is the volume of oxygen within a full size E cylinder?
680 L Pressure of 137 bar
277
What is the volume of oxygen within a full size D cylinder?
340 L
278
What is the volume of oxygen within a full size CD cylinder?
460 L
279
How are people tested for suxamethonium apnoea?
Dibucaine number Patient's plasma is added to a mixture of benzylcholine Emitted light is measured Dibucaine (inhibits plasma cholinesterase if cholinesterase is normal) is then added Dibucaine reduces the emission of light if pseudocholinesterase is normal Normal reduction in light emission with dibucaine is 80% NOTE: with other subtypes of pseudocholinesterase, the dibucaine number is lower because there is less inhibition of pseudocholinesterase by dibucaine
280
What is the only laryngeal muscle that is NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Cricothyroid muscle Innervated by the external laryngeal nerve (which is a branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, which is a branch of the vagus nerve)
281
What is the difference between resistance, reactance and impedance in electrical circuits?
Resistance describes the opposition to flow of direct current Reactance is used when the current is alternating Impedance (Z) is the sum of resistive and reactive components NOTE: all are measured in ohms
282
What is the zeroth law of thermodynamics?
If two thermodynamic systems are in equilibrium with a third then they are also in equilibrium with each other
283
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
Energy can neither be created or destroyed only converted from one form to another
284
What is the second law of thermodynamics?
Entropy (i.e. a measure of unavailable energy) tends to increase with time.
285
What is the third law of thermodynamics?
As a system approaches absolute zero (-273.15ºc) all processes cease and entropy approaches a minimum
286
What is Pasteur point?
Partial pressure at which aerobic metabolism is no longer possible. This is normally around 0.3 kPa
287
Why might venous saturations be increased in cyanide poisoning?
Cells are unable to utilise oxygen despite an adequate supply This leads to reduced cellular consumption and venous oxygen saturations may be elevated
288
Why is a biphasic current used in defibrillation?
Allows compensation for wide variations in thoracic impedance by electronically adjusting waveform magnitude and duration Lower peak current delivered Less energy required for defibrillation Improved safety profile NOTE: biphasic means that current flows in one direction before reversing
289
How does a Haemocue provide a point-of-care estimate of haemoglobin concentration?
1: sodium deoxycholate haemolyses erythrocytes releasing Hb 2: sodium nitrite converts Hb to MetHb which then reacts with sodium azide to give azidemethaemoglobin 3: absorbance is measured at two wavelengths (570 nm and 880 nm). Degree of absorbance is relative to Hb concentration so estimate is generated 4: after each reading, photometer zeros itself and checks the intensity of the light source and photocell
290
What is a Wright respirometer?
Small, compact device used to measure tidal volume and minute volume of expiratory flow.
291
How much carbon dioxide can be absorbed by 100 g of soda lime?
25 L of CO2
292
What are the 3 subclasses of domestic electrical equipment?
Class 1: a mains powered device enclosed within an earthed metal casing to ground any leakage current Class 2: double insulated electrical device, this mitigates the need for an earth wire Class 3: SELV (safety extra low voltage) of typically 24-50V. These devices may be battery powered or connected to mains via a transformer.
293
What are the 3 subclasses of medical electrical equipment?
Type B: touches skin but does not penetrate (e.g. ECG) Type BF: part that touches the patient is electrically isolated from the rest of the device (e.g. thermometer) Type CF: for equipment that touches the heart or is inserted into the body (e.g. pacing wires)
294
Which interleukin is anti-inflammatory?
IL-10
295
Describe the hepatic artery buffer response mechanism.
This is a compensatory mechanism where the hepatic artery vasodilates in response to reduced portal venous flow Adenosine is secreted at a constant rate into the space of Mall (periportal space) via oxygen-independent mechanisms. Reduced portal blood flow leads to reduced clearance of adenosine and the accumulating adenosine has a direct vasodilatory effect on the hepatic artery.
296
How does vancomycin work?
Glycopeptide antibiotic Inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to and interfering with the ongoing synthesis of peptidoglycan cell wall.
297
What is the difference between muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs?
Muscle spindles are stretch transducers that maintain a constant muscle length despite a change in load. Golgi tendon organs are found in muscle tendons and function to limit tension generated within the muscle.
298
What is an RC circuit?
Where a resistor and capacitor are placed in series as a circuit. It acts as a low pass filter i.e. allows frequencies below a certain value to pass
299
What equation is used to determine the length to which the endotracheal tube should be inserted in children?
(age/2) + 12
300
What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?
Tyrosine kinase linked receptor
301
What is Avogadro's law?
Equal volumes of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure will contain an equal number of molecules, and that one mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 litres.
302
What is carboprost?
Prostaglandin analogue used in management of PPH It can precipitate bronchospasm
303
What is the mechanism of action of nicorandil?
Potassium channel activator Activation of ATP-sensitive potassium channels within the walls of arterioles causes hyperpolarisation, which reduces intracellular calcium. In turn, this leads to arteriolar vasodilation and subsequent reduced blood pressure.
304
What are some indications for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
Previous cardiac arrest due to VF or unstable VT VT with structural heart disease Non-ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy Severely impaired ejection fraction (< 35%) despite 3 months of optimal medical management
305
Which structures are pierced when performing an epidural?
Skin Subcutaneous tissue Supraspinous ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum Epidural space
306
Which nerve roots are responsible for sympathetic innervation to the heart?
T1-T4
307
Describe how adrenaline is synthesised.
L-tyrosine --> L-Dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase L-Dopa --> dopamine by dopa decarboxylase Dopamine --> noradrenaline by dopamine hydroxylase Noradrenaline --> adrenaline by PNMT (phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase)
308
What are some features of TCA overdose?
Anticholinergic effects – dry mouth, dry nose, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, sweating, increased body temperature. CNS effects – drowsiness, confusion, myoclonus, seizure, coma. Cardiovascular effects: tachycardia, arrhythmias, hypotension, transient hypertension, VT, VF and prolonged QT interval.
309
What is the triple point of water?
273.16 K, and sub-atmospheric pressure (611 Pa) NOTE: this is the point at which it exists in solid, liquid and gas phases at equilibrium
310
Describe the pKa, protein binding and relative solubility of prilocaine.
pKa: 7.7 Protein Binding: 55% Solubility: 50 times the solubility of procaine
311
Which specific complication is associated with interscalene blocks?
Phrenic nerve palsy The phrenic nerve runs on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene
312
Which class of antibiotics exhibits concentration-dependent killing?
Aminoglycosides (the higher the concentration, the greater the bactericidal action) NOTE: beta-lactams are time-dependent
313
What are the effects of an intra-aortic balloon pump?
1) Inflation in diastole – higher early diastolic blood pressure (via reduction of apparent internal volume of aorta) leading to improved end organ perfusion, particularly the heart. 2) Deflation as late as possible – results in reduced end diastolic pressure in the aorta, reducing afterload and myocardial O2 demand.
314
List the main blocks in order of decreasing incidence of local anaesthetic toxicity.
Intercostal space > caudal > epidural > brachial plexus > femoral > subcutaneous
315
Which measurements from oesophageal Doppler are used to provide a value for cardiac output?
Area under velocity time graph x aortic cross-section x heart rate NOTE: area under the velocity-time graph is referred to as stroke distance
316
What are the anode and cathode made of in a Clark electrode?
Anode: Silver Cathode: Platinum
317
What does 'relaxation' mean in the context of MRI?
Radiofrequency (RF) energy is applied perpendicularly to the applied magnetic field at the Larmor frequency which rotates the net magnetisation of hydrogen ions in tissue. When the RF energy is switched off, net magnetisation returns to equilibrium and energy is lost to surrounding tissue. This is relaxation.
318
Which aspect of a current that passes through a body during electrocution is the most important factor in causing ventricular fibrillation?
Frequency of the current (at 50-60 Hz the sensitivity of biological tissues to unwanted electrical stimulus is maximal)
319
What is the normal range for systemic vascular resistance on a LiDCO?
900-1200 dynes.sec.cm-5
320
What stroke volume variation on a LiDCO would suggest that the patient is unlikely to be fluid responsive?
< 10%
321
What is the terminal elimination half life of midazolam?
1-4 hours NOTE: clearance of 6-10 mL/kg/min
322
Which cells in the kidney respond to increased pCO2 by upregulating acid secretion?
Alpha intercalated cells in the collecting duct
323
Why might a Wrist respirometer overestimate minute volume?
Momentum of the vanes can cause an overestimation
324
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycoside antiboitics?
325
Why is it important that an HME filter has as low a volume as possible?
Minimise dead space and prevent rebreathing. NOTE: tidal volume should be at least 5 times the internal filter volume
326
What reaction is responsible for the conversion of lactate to pyruvate?
Cori cycle
327
State the periods of omission for antiplatelet agents prior to neuraxial blockade?
Aspirin – continue. Clopidogrel and prasugrel – 7 days. Ticagrelor – 5 days. Tirofiban – 8 hours. Abciximab – 2 days.
328
What are the benefits of cisatracurium compared to atracurium?
More potent Leads to less histamine release Similar duration of action
329
Which classes of antibiotics work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?
Clindamycin, gentamicin and tetracycline inhibit protein synthesis. Clindamycin and erythromycin inhibit the 50S ribosomal subunit. Gentamicin and tetracycline inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit.
330
Which myotome is responsible for great toe extension?
L5
331
Which Mapleson system is this?
Mapleson A (Magill) FGF is near the reservoir bag and APL valve is near the patient
332
Which Mapleson system is this?
Mapleson D FGF near the patient APL valve near the bag
333
What is collision broadening with regards to end tidal CO2 measurement?
Carbon dioxide maximally absorbs IR radiation at 4.3 μm and nitrous oxide at 4.5 μm, however these spectra can overlap leading to an overestimation of end-tidal CO2 measured by IR spectroscopy.
334
What are some of the clinical manifestations of lithium toxicity?
Nausea/vomiting, a coarse tremor, oligouria, ataxia, hyper-reflexia, nystagmus, and convulsions/coma.
335
State the Bohr equation for the calculation of dead space.
Ratio of dead space volume (Vd) to tidal volume (Vt) is equal to: (PaCO2 - PeCO2)/PaCO2 Pa = arterial Pe = expired
336
What are the five types of muscarinic receptor.
M1: brain and secretory glands M2: heart, affects pacemaker M3: smooth muscle of bronchioles and arterioles, also found in the bladder M4: CNS M5: regulate dopamine release in the CNS
337
What are the ways in which heat is lost on the operating table?
Radiation (loss via infrared radiation): 40% Convection (loss to air currents): 30% Evaporation (loss of heat energy due to vaporisation): 20% Respiratory losses: 5-10% Conduction (loss to direct transfer to surfaces): 5%
338
What are the different indicator dyes used in soda lime canisters and their respective colour changes?
Ethyl violet – white to purple. Phenolphthalein – pink/red to white. Clayton yellow – pink/red to yellow/cream. Ethyl orange – orange to yellow. Mimosa Z – red to white.
339
What does the ulnar nerve innervate?
Sensory: medial 1.5 digits Motor: majority of small muscles in the hand except LOAF (median nerve)
340
What are the AAGBI guidelines regarding proceeding with surgery in patients who are hypertensive on the day of an elective operation?
Patients admitted for elective surgery should have a BP below 160/100 mm Hg in primary care On the day of surgery, you can proceed if blood pressure is below 180/110 mm Hg
341
What are the following derived from: Ketamine Propofol Thiopentone Etomidate
Ketamine: phencyclidine Propofol: phenol Thiopentone: barbituric acid Etomidate: imidazole
342
State the pKa, relative lipid solubility, relative potency and volume of distribution of pethidine.
pKa 8.7 Relative lipid solubility: 30 x morphine Relative potency: 0.1 x morphine Vd: 4 L/kg Protein binding: 60%
343
Which muscle relaxants can be reversed with sugammadex?
Aminosteroids: rocuronium and vecuronium
344
Why does desflurane require the Tec 6 vaporiser?
Desflurane has a low boiling point, and therefore fluctuations in temperature lead to significant fluctuations in saturated vapour pressure (SVP), which unless accounted for, would lead to substantial variation in the concentration of desflurane to the patient. To avoid this, the Tec 6 vapouriser is heated to 39 degrees and therefore the delivery of desflurane is predictable.
345
What mechanism enables gas driven nebulisers to humidify the gas?
Air is passed through a constriction leading to an increase in velocity and decrease in pressure (conservation of energy) as described by the Bernoulli effect. This reduction of pressure leads to entrainment of water via the Venturi effect.
346
Describe the structure of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Pentameric ligand gated ion channel 2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 delta, 1 epsilon NOTE: gamma instead of epsilon in foetus
347
Why are paediatric patients more prone to bradycardia during anaesthesia than adults?
Due to the increased parasympathetic tone in children compared to adults, they are prone to significant bradycardia under vagal stimulation
348
Which enzyme converts codeine to morphine?
CYP2D6
349
Describe the different parts of a Tuohy needle.
Usually 16G Huber tip with blunt leading edge and angled tip to allow catheter to be passed Lee's lines to allow measurement of depth Macintosh wings to stabilise the needle Stylet introducer to prevent coring of tissue A loss of resistance syringe is used when performing an epidural, but is not a feature of the Tuohy needle.
350
Give an example of a drug that is metabolised by red cell esterases.
Esmolol
351
How do you determine the steady state concentration of a drug if you know the infusion rate and clearance?
At steady state - input = output Infusion Rate = Elimination Rate Elimination Rate = Clearance (L/min) x Steady State Conc Infusion Rate/Clearance = Steady State Conc
352
Briefly describe how to interpret a TEG.
Prolonged R Time: anticoagulant or clotting factor deficiency Low Max Amplitude + Long K Time: weak clot suggestive ineffective platelet or fibrinogen action Short Lysis Time + High CL30: overactivity of fibrinolytic system
353
What are epidural filters made of?
0.22 micron mesh to prevent the passage of bacteria, viruses and foreign bodies into the epidural space.
354
What is the difference between absolute and relative humidity?
Absolute: mass of water vapour in a given volume of gas at a given temperature and pressure (g/m3) Relative: ratio of actual mass of water vapour compared to maximum amount of water vapour the gas could contain at the same temp and pressure
355
What is the absolute humidity of fully saturated air at 20 degrees Celsius at atmospheric pressure?
17 g/m³
356
What factors affect the natural frequency of an invasive blood pressure monitoring system?
NF is proportional to √(r²/clρ), where r = radius of the tubing, c = compliance, l = length and ρ = density of the fluid
357
What measures are taken to ensure that invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring systems don't resonate?
Has a natural frequency 10x higher than the fundamental frequency (sine wave 1-2 Hz, corresponds to heart rate 60-120 bpm), Frequency range of 0.5 to 40 Hz to include the first 10 harmonics of the heart rate
358
What happens if the frequency of the driving force in an invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring system coincides with the resonant frequency of the system?
A resonant sine wave will be superimposed on the pressure wave. This will raise the systolic blood pressure, reduce the diastolic blood pressure, but should have no effect on the mean arterial pressure.
359
What is a resistance wire thermometer?
As temperature increases, resistance through a thin piece of metal increases linearly Slow response time and fragile Needs Wheatstone bridge to increase sensitivity
360
What is a thermistor?
Consists of a semiconductor for which there is a non-linear relationship between resistance and temperature Cheap and small so can be used for invasive monitors (e.g. pulmonary artery flotation catheter) Respond quickly to changes but can have calibration error
361
What is a semiconductor?
A material whose electrical conductivity is is between an conductor and an insulator Conductivity can be controlled by adding impurities (doping), applying electrical fields or increasing the temperature
362
Describe how the nuclear arrangement of semiconductor enable are responsible for their properties.
In a semiconductor, electrons exist in two energy bands: - Valence Band: electrons are bound tightly to atoms and can't move freely - Conduction Band: electrons are free to move enabling conduction At room temperature, most electrons are in the valence band, however, applying energy (e.g. heat) enables the electrons to jump across the band gap to the conduction band so it can conduct electricity
363
What is a thermocouple?
Thermocouples rely on the Seebeck (thermoelectric) effect. At the junction of two dissimilar metals, a voltage will be produced in proportion to the temperature difference between two such junctions. Typically copper and constantan are the metals used. The response is nearly linear and passes through the origin as a temperature difference of zero produces zero output voltage. Multiple thermocouples in series produce a thermopile which will increase sensitivity.
364
Draw the resistance-temperature relationship for a resistance wire, thermistor and thermocouple.
365
Which intravenous antiviral agent is associated with causing obstructive crystal nephropathy?
Aciclovir
366
Which structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?
Oculomotor Nerve Trochlear Nerve Ophthalmic Nerve (Nasociliary, Lacrimal, Frontal) Abducens Nerve Superior Ophthalmic Vein Branch of inferior ophthalmic vein
367
Which types of reaction are carried out by the CYP450 system?
PHASE 1 Oxidation Reduction Hydrolysis Dealkylation Deamination
368
List how the train-of-four output relates to receptor occupancy by muscle relaxants.
All twitches present < 70% occupancy 1 twitch lost = 70% 2 twitches lost = 80% 3 twitches lost = 90% All twitches lost = 95-100%
369
State Poisuille's law.
Q = (πr4ΔP)/8nl where r = radius, ΔP = pressure gradient, n = viscosity, l = length, Q = flow rate.
370
How is Poiesuille's law related to Ohm's law?
Q = (πr4ΔP)/8nl This is analogous to Ohm’s law (V = IR –> I = V/R), where voltage is represented by the pressure gradient, current is represented by the flow rate, and resistance is given by 8nl/πr4.
371
What is the difference between the flow at the bottom compared to the top of a rotameter?
At the bottom (low-flow), the space between the bobbin and wall is narrow. Gas flow is laminar and dependent on viscosity. At the top (high flows) the space between the bobbin and wall is wider. Gas flow is more turbulent and dependent on density. The pressure difference across the bobbin is constant at all points in the rotameter.
372
Why is flow at the bottom of a rotameter dependent on viscosity, whereas at the top it is dependent on density?
At the bottom of a rotameter, the gap between the bobbin and tube is narrow, so flow is laminar and mainly affected by viscosity — the internal friction of the gas. At the top, the gap is wider, flow becomes turbulent, and is mainly influenced by density, which affects the inertia and turbulence of the gas.
373
Why do local anaesthetics preferentially exert their effects on sensory nerves compared to motor nerves?
They bind more readily to inactivated or open sodium channels and so affect nerves with a rapid firing rate (e.g. sensory nerves) compared to motor nerves
374
What is the saturated vapour pressure of isoflurane at 20 degrees?
33 kPa
375
Which two volatile anaesthetics are structural isomers?
Enflurane and Isoflurane
376
What is a structural isomer of dobutamine used in anaesthetics?
Dihydrocodeine
377
What dose of intralipid should be used in local anaesthetic toxicity?
1: Bolus Dose at 1.5 ml/kg over 1 min 2: Infusion at 15 mL/kg/hour 3: Second Bolus + Increase Infusion to 30 mL/kg/hour (if cardiovascular instability not sorted)
378
List the absolute contraindications for parecoxib.
History of ischaemic heart disease Active GI bleeding Active GI ulceration Cerebrovascular disease CABG IBD Heart failure Peripheral vascular disease
379
What are the effects on the results produced of a delay between collecting a blood gas sample and passing it through the machine?
Low PaO2 High PaCO2 Low pH High [H+]
380
Which antacids are absorbed in the GI tract and which are not absorbed?
NOT Absorbed: magnesium and aluminium Absorbed: sodium bicarbonate and sodium citrate NOTE: aluminium causes constipation whereas magnesium causes diarrhoea
381
What is a Goldman vaporiser?
30 mL in circuit draw-over variable bypass vaporiser NOT temperature compensated Small, cheap, lightweight Variable output
382
What is an Oxford miniature vaporiser?
Variable bypass draw-over vaporiser NOT actively temperature compensated but incorporates an ethylene glycol heat sink Any anaesthetic agent can be used by changing a removable scale on the dial
383
What is the difference between state and response entropy in depth of anaesthesia monitoring?
State Entropy: calculated from low frequency range waves Response Entropy: calculated from high frequency waves including EMG activity from frontalis muscle As a patient wakes, the difference between SE and RE increases due to diminishing effect of drugs affecting the central nervous system and the increased contribution of EMG values from the frontalis muscle. RE increases more quickly than SE.
384
What is the maximum safe dose of levobupivacaine?
2 mg/kg
385
What is the maximum cumulative dose of intralipid that can be given?
12 ml/kg i.e. 840 ml for a 70kg adult.
386
Which nerve roots is the ulnar nerve derived from?
Derived from medial cord of brachial plexus which is comprised of nerve roots C8-T1
387
Which small muscles of the hand are innervated by the median nerve?
Lumbricals 1+2 Opponens Pollicis Abductor Pollicis Brevis Flexor Pollicis Brevis
388
What is co-oximetry?
Requires a blood sample to be taken and spectrophotometric techniques are then performed that are able to provide information regarding oxyhaemoglobin, deoxyhaemoglobin, methaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin
389
What will be the effect on freezing and boiling points of adding one mole of solute to 1 kg of water?
Increase the boiling point by 0.51ºc (ebullioscopic constant) Decrease the freezing point by 1.86ºc (cryoscopic constant) Increase the osmotic pressure.
390
Why does adding solute to a solvent increase boiling point?
Boiling occurs when vapour pressure = atmospheric pressure Solute particles get in the way of water molecules escaping into the gas phase, thereby lowering the vapour pressure for a given temperature This means you have to heat the solution to a higher temperature to boil
391
Why does adding solute to a solvent decrease freezing point?
Freezing happens when water molecules arrange into a solid crystal structure Solute particles disrupt this orderly arrangement, making it harder for water to freeze. Therefore, you must lower the temperature further to freeze the solution → freezing point goes down.
392
What are the targets of an axillary block?
Median, ulnar, radial and musculocutaneous nerves at the level of the axillary artery The musculocutaneous nerve lies separately between corocobrachialis and biceps brachii, and needs significant redirection of the needle to anaesthetise it.
393
Outline the Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics.
Class Ia – blocks fast Na+ channels in cardiac myocytes and prolong refractory period e.g. procainamide, quinidine, disopyramide. Class Ib – blocks fast Na+ channels in cardiac myocytes and shortens refractory period e.g. lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine. Class Ic – blocks fast Na+ channels in cardiac myocytes and no effect on refractory period e.g. fleicanide, propafenone. Class II – β adrenoreceptor blockade e.g. atenolol, propranolol, esmolol. Class III – K+ channel blockade e.g. amiodarone, sotalol. Class IV – Ca++ channel blockade e.g. verapamil, diltiazem.
394
Describe the Manley MP3 ventilator.
Pressure generator, time-cycled, minute volume divider. Two knobs are able to change from controlled to manual and to adjust the inspiratory time. The inflation pressure is adjusted by sliding a weight to a different position on top of the main bellows. Fresh gas flow drives the ventilator. In inspiration a small bellows receives FGF and the main bellows deliver their content to the patient. During expiration the small bellows delivers their content to the main bellows until a predetermined tidal volume is reached.
395
Which volatile anaesthetic agent has the greatest molecular weight?
Sevoflurane (200 g/mol)
396
How long does a cardiac action potential last?
250 ms
397
What is the mechanism of action of trimetaphan?
Centrally acting ganglion blocking drug Functions centrally to reduce blood pressure by competitive antagonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia
398
What are colligative properties?
Physical properties that are dependent on number of dissolved particles rather than the identity of the solute. Includes elevation of boiling point, reduction of freezing point, reduction in vapour pressure and change in osmotic pressure. NOTE: this is how an osmometer works
399
How many drops of clear fluid or blood are equal to 1 mL in a giving set?
Clear Fluid: 20 drops Blood: 15 Drops
400
What is the Finapres method of blood pressure measurement?
Method of continuous, non-invasive blood pressure measurement. A small cuff placed around the finger is inflated or deflated by a controller system to keep the blood volume in the finger constant (as measured by plethysmography). The applied pressure to keep blood volume constant is comparative to arterial blood pressure.
401
Why is it important that oxygen is the last gas added to a mixture that is delivered to a patient?
If it was added earlier to the mixture, a crack in an adjacent flowmeter will mean that the oxygen follows the path of least resistance and escapes via the cracked flowmeter rather than to the patient - thereby delivering a hypoxic mixture
402
How much blood flow goes to the brain?
15% of cardiac output at rest Which is around 750ml/min
403
List antiarrhythmics on the basis of whether they work for supreventricular, ventricular or both types of tachyarrhythmia.
Supraventricular only: digoxin, verapamil, adenosine. Ventricular only: lidocaine, phenytoin. Both: amiodarone, beta-blockers, disopyramide, procainamide, fleicanide.
404
Why do diathermy circuits operate at frequencies in the mega Hertz?
Avoid the risk of inducing ventricular fibrillation Risk is highest around 50-60Hz, which is the frequency of mains electricity
405
Which electrolyte is found in greater abundance in the CSF than in the plasma?
Chloride - 115-125 mmol/L
406
Describe the forms in which carbon dioxide is carried in venous and arterial blood.
VENOUS: 10% dissolved, 60% bicarbonate, 30% carbamino ARTERIAL: 5% dissolved, 90% bicarbonate, 5% carbamino
407
Which pharmacokinetic features of a local anaesthetic affect its potency, speed of onset and duration of action?
Potency: lipid solubility (more lipid soluble, more potent) Duration of Action: protein binding (higher protein binding, longer duration) Speed of Onset: pKa (lower pKa, faster speed of onset)
408
What is the MAC of nitrous oxide?
105%
409
What is the critical temperature of nitrous oxide?
36.5 degrees
410
State the protein-binding, volume of distribution and half-life of amiodarone.
95% protein boud Vd of 2-70 L/kg Half-life of 20-100 days
411
Why is medical vacuum suction considered a high pressure, low flow system?
The pump used to generate vacuum should be able to generate a negative pressure of -400 mmHg or 53 kPa. The minimum requirement of suction is to generate a vacuum of 500 mmHg in 10 seconds with a displacement of air of 25 L/min as such it is considered a high pressure, low flow system.
412
List the different parts of a nephron and the diuretics that act in each.
PCT: carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Ascending limb loop of Henle: osmotic and loop diuretics Early DCT: thiazide diuretics DCT: potassium sparing diuretics Late DCT and Collecting Duct: aldosterone antagonists
413
List some key characteristics of turbulent flow.
Flow is proportional to the radius squared Flow is proportional to the square root of the pressure gradient Flow is inversely proportional to the length and density of the fluid
414
What are the content of the carotid sheath?
Carotid artery Internal jugular vein Vagus nerve
415
What is the blood: gas partition coefficient of enflurane?
1.8
416
What is the molecular weight of enflurane?
184.5 NOTE: it is a structural isomer of isoflurane
417
What current is used by nerve stimulator needles when performing a peripheral nerve block?
Initially a high output of 1-3 mA is chosen and the needle advanced slowly towards the nerve until contraction is noted. The output is then reduced until maximal stimulation is achieved with minimum output from the nerve stimulator. Typically 0.3-0.5 mA suggests the needle tip is touching or very close to the nerve. If contraction occurs at ≤ 0.2mA it suggests that the needle tip is intraneural and should be withdrawn.
418
What is represented by the area within a magnetic hysteresis curve?
Heat energy lost When a ferromagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, it will become magnetised (O to A) When the field is removed, it remains weakly magnetised (A to B) Area within the loop is heat loss
419
State the ideal gas law.
PV = nRT P = pressure (Pa) V = volume of gas (m³) n = number of moles (mole) R = ideal gas constant (8.31 J/K/mol) T = temperature (Kelvin)
420
What level of block is usually needed when delivering an epidural for a Caesarean section?
T4-5
421
State Fick's law of diffusion with regards to renal replacement therapy.
Rate of Diffusion is proportional to: Area x Concentration Gradient/Thickness
422
What is the difference between electromotive force and voltage?
EMF describes the driving voltage of a battery Voltage is known as potential difference and represents the difference in electric potential between two points in a circuit
423
Define disinfection.
Process of rendering an object free from all pathogenic organisms excluding bacterial spores
424
What is Pasteurisation?
Method of disinfection that uses temperatures of 70 °c for 30 minutes
425
How often should BMs be monitored intraoperatively for a diabetic patient?
At least hourly
426
State the equation for coronary perfusion pressure.
CPP = DBP – LVEDP
427
Describe the activity of dopamine at different dose ranges.
Low dose (< 5 µg/kg/min): increased renal blood flow through agonism of D1 and D2 Moderate dose (5-10): beta adrenoceptor agonist with positive inotropy High dose (> 15): alpha agonist causing vasoconstriction
428
Which local anaesthetic can cause methaemoglobinaemia?
Prilocaine
429
How does increased sympathetic tone alter the pacemaker potential in the heart?
Increased sodium and calcium permeability, which favours a more rapid depolarisation towards threshold potential during phase 4
430
Which Mapleson system is used with a Manley MP3 ventilator?
Mapleson D
431
Define 'resonance' in the context of MRI.
Absorption of energy by an oscillating or precessing system. Precession refers to the movement of nuclei around a magnetic field.
432
What are the three subtypes of Class I antiarrhythmic?
All block fast Na channels in cardiac myocytes Class Ia – PROLONGS the refractory period e.g. procainamide, quinidine, disopyramide. Class Ib – SHORTENS the refractory period e.g. lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine. Class Ic – NO EFFECT on the refractory period e.g. fleicanide, propafenone.
433
Define oesophageal barrier pressure.
Oesophageal barrier pressure = lower oesophageal sphincter pressure – intragastric pressure
434
Describe the landmarks used to perform a Stellate ganglion block.
Needle contacts the anterior tubercle of C6 (Chassaignac's tubercle) NOTE: the stellate ganglion lies at C7 formed by the fusion of the inferior cervical and T1 ganglia
435
At what level is a tracheostomy formed?
Between the second and third tracheal cartilage rings
436
Define magnetic flux.
Measurement of total magnetic field passing through a given area NOTE: when divided by the size of the area, it is called magnetic flux density
437
What are the units of magnetic flux and flux density?
Magnetic Flux: Weber (Wb) Magnetic Flux Density: 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss NOTE: 1 Tesla = 1 Wb/m²
438
What is the isothermic boundary point?
The point at which inspired air reaches 37ºc and a relative humidity of 100%. This is normally achieved a few centimeters distal to the carina.
439
Which equation is used to calculate cardiac output from the temperature-time graph for cardiac monitoring via thermodilution?
Stewart-Hamilton equation
440
What is the purpose of the pressure bag in invasive arterial monitoring?
Normal saline is pressurised to 300 mmHg and runs at a rate of 2-4 ml/hr via a flushing device. This prevents clot formation, keeping the arterial line patent and reducing damping.
441
What is a notch filter in electronics?
Removes a specific frequency from a signal
442
Which uterotonic agent is contraindicated in pre-eclampsia and why?
Ergometrine can cause coronary vasospasm and hypertension and therefore is contraindicated in pre-eclampsia.
443
Why is a high common mode rejection ratio desirable for operational amplifiers?
It neutralises upstream circuit noise (i.e. rejects signals common to both inputs)
444
What is the purpose of the non-return pressure relief valve on the back bar of the anaesthetic machine?
Obstruction of the common gas outlet can cause rising pressure within the circuit that can transmit gases back into the anaesthetic machine causing damage and contamination This valve opens at 35-40 kPa of pressure
445
Which joint is of particular concern in the airway management of patients with rheumatoid arthritis affecting the neck?
Atlantoaxial instability Atlas = C1 Axis = C2
446
Why does carbon monoxide poisoning give a falsely high saturation reading on pulse oximetry?
The absorption spectra of carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin are similar at 660 nm. This leads to an overestimation via spectrophotometric methods of SpO2.
447
State the Parkland formula.
The fluid requirement in the first 24 hours is equal to 4ml x weight (kg) x %burns Half of this is given in the first 8 hours, and the remainder in the remaining 16 hours.
448
What is the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin in air vs when breathing oxygen?
Air: 4-5 hours 100% Oxygen: 1 hour
449
What is the IM induction dose of ketamine?
4-10 mg/kg
450
Describe the inheritance of suxamethonium apnoea.
Autosomal recessive mutation on chromosome 3
451
What is the recommended stimulating catheter needle length for an interscalene block?
25-50 mm
452
What is the recommended stimulating catheter needle length for an axillary block?
35-50 mm
453
What is the recommended stimulating catheter needle length for a femoral nerve block?
50 mm
454
What is the recommended stimulating catheter needle length for a psoas compartment block?
80-150 mm
455
What is the recommended stimulating catheter needle length for a sciatic nerve block?
80-120 mm
456
What current, if electrocuted, can lead to respiratory muscle contraction and asphyxia?
50 mA
457
What current, if electrocuted, can lead to ventricular fibrillation?
100 mA
458
What current, if electrocuted, can lead to charring and extensive burns?
1000 mA
459
Describe the origin and course of the internal jugular vein.
Originates as a continuation of the sigmoid sinus Exits the jugular foramen Runs through the neck to subclavian vein
460
What effect does probenecid have on plasma penicillin levels if coadministered?
Probenecid is a renal tubular blocking agent. Penicillins are normally excreted via tubular secretion in the nephron. Blocking this secretion increases plasma levels approximately 2-4 times.
461
State the equation describing the impedance of a capacitor.
Z = d/fa Where Z = impedance, d = distance between the plates, f = frequency of current and a = area of plates.
462
What pressure and flow rate does the oxygen flush deliver?
Flow of 35-75 L/min Pressure of 4 bar Bypassing the flowmeters and vaporiser
463
Describe the colour-coding system used for filters on anaesthetic machines.
Yellow – breathing filters for viruses, bacteria and particulate matter. Blue – heat and moisture exchange. Green – heat and moisture exchange and filter.
464
What is the purpose of the Nernst equation?
Calculates the electrical potential for an INDIVIDUAL ion, and thus allows for the estimation of how each ion affects the membrane potential.
465
State the Nernst equation.
Membrane potential = RT/ZF x ln (extracellular concentration/intracellular concentration) where R = universal gas constant T = temperature (kelvin) Z = Valency F = Faraday’s constant ln = natural logarithm
466
Which alpha blocker is an irreversible alpha antagonist and, hence, has a long duration of action?
Phenoxybenzamine Non-selective irreversible alpha antagonist (new receptors must be synthesised to overcome the effect)
467
What are the two types of mu opioid receptors and what effects does stimulation bring about?
Mu-1 = analgesic + physical dependance Mu-2 = respiratory depression, reduced peristalsis, euphoria and meiosis
468
Where are delta opioid receptors (DOP) found and what are the effects of stimulation?
Brain Leads to analgesia, antidepressant effect and physical dependence
469
Where are kappa opioid receptors (KOP) found and what are the effects of stimulation?
Brain and spinal cord Leads to spinal analgesia, sedation and miosis
470
Where are NOP receptors found and what are the effects of stimulation?
Brain and spinal cord Leads to anxiety, depression, appetite modulation, and is thought to be involved in tolerance
471
Which anticoagulants can be reversed with andexanet alfa?
Apixaban, rivaroxaban and edoxaban
472
What is the mechanical equivalent of heat?
The theory that mechanical work may be transferred to heat energy and heat energy to work, the magnitude of one being proportional to the other. This is the principle used in the generation of electricity in coal power stations.
473
State the equation for calculating pulmonary vascular resistance that will give the value in dyne.s-1.cm-5.
PVR = 80 x (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Left atrial pressure)/Cardiac output.
474
Describe the sizing of laryngeal masks.
1 – neonates up to 5 kg, cuff volume 4 ml. 1.5 – infants 5-10 kg, cuff volume 7 ml. 2 – children 10-20 kg, cuff volume 10 ml. 2.5 – children 20-30 kg, cuff volume 14 ml. 3 – adults 30-50 kg, cuff volume 20 ml. 4 – adults 50-70 kg, cuff volume 30 ml. 5 – adults 70-100 kg, cuff volume 40 ml. 6 – adults over 100 kg, cuff volume 50 ml.
475
What mechanism underpins opioid tolerance?
Uncoupling of opioid receptors from their G-protein, which underpins the decreased receptor sensitivity that is observed
476
What is the Severinghaus electrode designed to detect?
pCO2 in blood Consists of a measuring electrode (silver/silver chloride) and reference electrode (mercury/mercury chloride) surrounded by film of NaHCO3 and permeable teflon membrane allowing CO2 to diffuse from sample to solution In solution, CO2 is converted to H+ via CA H+ interact with buffer around reference electrode leading to potential difference between two electrodes which leads to voltage that correlates with pCO2
477
How do the carotid body and aortic arch chemoreceptors differ in their response to oxygen?
Carotid bodies have high flow so get all of their oxygen from dissolved O2 - therefore mainly responds to changes in pO2 (ventilatory) Aortic bodies have lower flow and respond to changes in both oxygen tension and oxygen content
478
What is the absolute pressure of an oxygen cylinder at sea level?
13700 kPa (137 bar) + 101 kPa (≈1 bar) = 13800 kPa NOTE: once filled, if taking up Mount Everest, the absolute pressure does not change because it is sealed
479
Describe how beta-2 stimulation leads to bronchodilation.
Stimulation causes increased adenylate cyclase activity Increased cAMP Activation of PKA Activation of myosin light chain phosphatase Smooth muscle relaxation