FRS 1. Oesophageal anatomy, physiology, and pharmacology. Acid secretion Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Describe the structure of the oesophagus

A

Muscular tube
~ 25cm long (depends on height of person)

3 regions along its length:
o cervical
o thoracic – suprasternal notch to diaphragm
o abdominal – last few cm

Bordered by upper and lower oesophageal sphincters

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2
Q

What are the layers of the oesophagus?

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis - inner circular/outer longitudinal
  • adventitia - loosely packed connective tissue
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3
Q

Describe the mucosa of the oesophagus

A
  • nonketatinised stratified squamous epithelium
  • pH 7
  • adapted for shear stress (stratified), not for acidic environments
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4
Q

Describe the lower oesophageal sphincter

A

 LES is a physiological sphincter  internal sphincter, not a visible narrowing but maintains tone to make
sure pressure is 10-15 mmHg higher than surrounding
 External sphincter of diagram
 LES (intrinsic and diaphragm) prevents acid from refluxing into the oesophagus
 The angle of the entry of the oesophagus into the stomach also plays a role in preventing reflux

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5
Q

What are the factors that prevent reflux?

A

 Intrinsic sphincter tone
 Extrinsic sphincter (pinch of crural diaphragm)
 Intra-abdominal length of oesophagus
 Angle of His/Flap Valve
 Secondary pesistalsis/swallowed bicarbonate

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6
Q

What is the angle of his/ flap valve?

A

o acuteanglecreated between the cardia at the entrance to the
stomach, and the oesophagus.
o Forms a valve, preventing reflux

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7
Q

What is secondary pesistalsis/swallowed bicarbonate

A

If acid comes up into the oesophagus, secondary peristalsis clears it from the oesophagus

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8
Q

What is reflux a consequence of?

A

o Increased stress on the barrier

o Malfunction of the barrier

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9
Q

What are the causes of barrier malfunction in reflux?

A

Impaired Defences
o Hiatus hernia
o Transient lower oesophageal relaxations (TLOSRs) -
burping
o Low sphincter pressure – caused by e.g. smoking
o Impaired oesophageal clearance – oesophageal
dysmotility

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10
Q

What are the causes of stress on barrier in reflux?

A

o Increased intra-abdominal pressure - Hiatus hernia,
obesity (chronic pressure weakens barrier)
o Reduced gastric emptying

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11
Q

What is a hiatus hernia

A

Protrusion of part of the stomach through the diaphragmatic hiatus and into the chest
Affects about 20% of population

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12
Q

What are the two types of hiatus hernia?

A

 Sliding (80%): gastro-oesophageal junction slides through hiatus
 Rolling: fundus of stomach protrudes through hiatus alongside GOJ
o Does not predispose to reflux

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13
Q

What is reflux?

A

retrograde passage of acidic gastric contents into oesophagus

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14
Q

What is GORD?

A

symptoms due to reflux sufficient to impair quality of life or cause complications
o Heartburn
o Regurgitation
o Epigastric pain (dyspepsia)
o Nausea
o (Extra-oesophageal symptoms: non-cardiac chest pain, pharyngeal symptoms, wheeze)

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of swallowing?

A

 Complex reflex
 Food bolus pushed up against soft palate and into pharynx
 UES relaxes, respiration pauses, glottis closed
 Primary peristaltic wave propels bolus towards stomach.
 LOS opens at initiation of swallow
 Secondary peristalsis occurs locally in response to distension

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16
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Symptom of difficulty in swallowing

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17
Q

What are the structural causes of dysphagia

A

Intrinsic lesion:
 Foreign body
 Stricture – Benign/Malignant
 Rings/webs

Extrinsic causes
 Lymph nodes
 Goitre
 Enlarged LA

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18
Q

What are the functional causes of dysphagia?

A

Motility Disorders:
 Achalasia
 Oesophageal spasm

Neuromuscular Disorders:
 Cerebrovascular Disease
 Bulbar palsy

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19
Q

What are the complications of chronic acid reflux

A
  • oesophagitis
  • peptic stricture
  • barret’s oesophagus
  • oesophageal cancer
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20
Q

What is oesophagitis?

A

inflammation of squamous mucosa secondary to acid damage. Can cause strictures

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21
Q

What is a peptic stricture

A

narrowing or tightening of the oesophagus that causes swallowing difficulties.
o Complication of untreated chronic oesophagitis, causes dysphagia

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22
Q

What is Barret’s oesophagus

A

metaplasia in the cells of the lower portion of theoesophagus
o Characterised by replacement of the normalstratified squamous epitheliumlining of the
oesophagus by simple columnar epithelium withgoblet cells(which are usually found lower in
thegastrointestinal tract).
o Columnar transformation of squamous mucosa (squamous  columnar) is caused by chronic
acid damage
o Pre-cancerous condition. Patients should be monitored regularly for dysplasia

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23
Q

Describe oesophageal cancer

A

accumulating cellular genetic changes causing dysplasia and ultimately cancer

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24
Q

What are the treatment options for GORD?

A
  • lifestyle changes
  • pharmacotherapy
  • surgical management
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25
Describe the lifestyle changes adopted in the management of GORD
 Weight loss  Elevate head of bed at night  Avoid precipitants, e.g. coffee, chocolate, tomatoes, alcohol, and fatty or spicy food
26
What are the pharmacotherapy options in the treatment of GORD
- PPIs - H2 receptor antagonsists - antacids - alginates - mucosal agents - prokinetics
27
What are PPIs?
Proton-pump inhibitors (mainstay of therapy)
28
What is the mechanism of action of PPIs?
 Accumulate selectively in the canaliculi of the parietal cells  Undergo an acid-catalysed rearrangement to the active drug  This cationic sulfenamide binds irreversibly with sulphydryl groups on the proton pump causing inhibition  Irreversible inhibition leads to longer duration of action compared to H2RAs
29
What are the side effects of PPIs?
``` o Diarrhoea (esp. Lansoprazole) o Rash o Headache o Infections – C. diff o Interact with cytochrome P450 - Clopidogrel (?Pantoprazole) o Long-term use - ?GNETs ```
30
What is the mechanism of action of H2 receptor antagonists?
Competitively block histamine receptors on the | parietal cell
31
What are the side effects of H2 receptor antagonists?
``` o Diarrhoea o Deranged LFTs o Headache o Dizziness o Fatigue o Rash ``` Tachyphylaxis
32
Tachyphylaxis:
a rapid decrease in the response to a drug due to previous (long term) exposure to that drug
33
List examples of H2 receptor antagonists
o Cimetidine o Ranitidine o Famotidine o Nizatidine
34
What is the mechanism of action of antacids
o Raise the pH of gastric secretions o Decrease pepsin activity o Some bind bile acids o Duration of action depends on rate of gastric emptying
35
What are antacids?
predominantly aluminium and magnesium salts => neutralise the effects of stomach acid
36
What are the side effects of antacids?
o Al salts – constipation o Mg salts – diarrhoea o Some formulations have high Na levels – avoid in cardiac/renal disease o Interact with tetracyclines, digoxin, iron, prednisilone.
37
What are alginates?
 Giant Pacific Kelp - Macrocystis pyrifera o Algin extracted  Sodium alginate used in treatment of GORD  Mixture of polyurionic acids  Added to antacid preparations as foaming agents  Layer of foam on stomach contents – mechanical barrier to reflux.
38
Name examples of prokinetics and how they work
 Metoclopramide/domperidone  Both increase gastric emptying and increase LOS pressure  Metoclopramide also acts on cholinergic systems in GI tract to increase ACh release  Useful GORD and functional dyspepsia o Early satiety, belching, nausea +/or bloating
39
What are the side effects of domperidone?
drowsiness, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia
40
Give an example of a mucosal agent and how it works
 Complex sucrose polymer, cytoprotective agent o sucrose sulfate-aluminium complex o Binds to the ulcer, creating a physical barrier that protects the gastrointestinal tract from stomach acid and prevents the degradation of mucus o Anionic sulphate binds to positively charged glycoproteins in ulcer  Forms a ‘paste’, impeding diffusion of acid and acting as buffer for 6-8 hours
41
Describe the surgical management of GORD
 Repair of hiatal hernia, if one is present. o Involves tightening the opening in the diaphragm with stitches  Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication o Wrapping the fundus of the stomach around the end of the oesophagus with stitches. o The stitches create pressure at the end of the oesophagus, reinforcing the lower oesophageal sphincter o This helps prevent stomach acid and food from flowing up from the stomach into the oesophagus.
42
What are the red flag symptoms of dyspepsia
 Iron deficiency anaemia (may indicate bleeding)  Unintentional weight loss  Dysphagia  Persistent vomiting  Epigastric mass  >55 with unexplained and persistent dyspepsia
43
Describe atrophic gastritis
1. chronic inflammation of fundic glands 2. parietal cell atrophy 3. resulting in reduced acid secretion (hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria) 4. => increased gastrin production
44
Describe endoscopy as an investigation of oesophageal disorders
 Can be performed with topical anaesthesia or conscious sedation  Direct visualisation of upper GI tract to d2  Diagnosis of structural and mucosal abnormalities, e.g. Hiatus hernia, tumours, Barrett’s oesophagus  Allows mucosal biopsy  Therapeutic intervention  Complications
45
What is Radio frequency ablation?
 Used to remove tissue affected by Barrett’s oesophagus |  Endoscopic technique in which diseased tissue is exposed to heat energy and destroyed
46
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Oesophageal pH monitoring
47
What is Oesophageal pH monitoring
 Provides direct physiologic measurement of acid in the oesophagus and is the most objective method to o document reflux disease o assess the severity of the disease o monitor the response of the disease to medical or surgical treatment
48
How is an oesophageal pH monitoring test performed?
 the sensor is placed 5 cm above upper border of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) determined by oesophageal manometry.  To measure proximal oesophageal acid exposure the second sensor is placed 1-5 below the lower border of the upper oesophageal sphincter (UOS).   Oesophageal pH monitoring is performed for 24 or 48 hours and at the end of recording, a patients tracing is analysed and the results are expressed using six standard components.  Of these 6 parameters, a pH score called a DeMeester Score is been calculated o This is a global measure of oesophageal acid exposure. o A Demeester score > 14.72 indicates reflux.
49
How is a reflux episode defined in oesophageal pH monitoring?
A reflux episode is defined as oesophageal pH drop below 4 | o pH below 4 is damaging because pepsin is active at pH 4
50
What constitutes a normal and abnormal result on oesophageal pH monitoring
Normal pH trace would show relatively constant pH around 7 with a few short dips in the day Abnormal: o Episodes of change in pH are more frequent and more prolonged
51
What is the benefit of high resolution manometry?
 Allows recording of pressures within the oesophagus and proximal stomach.  Oesophageal manometry measures the rhythmic muscle contractions that occur in your oesophagus when you swallow  assesses motility  Oesophageal manometry also measures the coordination and force exerted by the muscles of your oesophagus
52
How is high resolution manometry performed?
 Catheter inserted through nose with local anaesthetic spray.  Display showing pressures as colour plot or lines  Diagnosis of motility disorders eg oesophageal spasm,
53
How is Radio frequency ablation performed?
 An electrode mounted on a balloon catheter or an endoscope is used to deliver heat energy directly to the diseased lining of the oesophagus  Tissue sloughs off over 48 to72 hours following the procedure.  Over a period of six to eight weeks, this tissue is replaced by normal (squamous) lining
54
What is Melena
(Black blood) = partially digested, therefore it must originate from the upper GI tract and have been mixed with acid
55
How does the functional anatomy differ in different regions of the stomach
o Gastric body contains oxyntic glands  Contains parietal cells that secrete HCl and INTRINSIC FACTOR o Gastric antrum contains pyloric glands  Contain G cells that secrete GASTRIN
56
What are the key actors of gastric secretion?
 Acetylcholine (neuronal – parasympathetic)  Gastrin (G cell – endocrine)  Histamine (ECL cell – paracrine)  Somatostatin (D cell – endocrine)
57
Describe the processes during the cephalic phase
 ACh acts on parietal cells  ACh acts on G cells to increase gastrin secretion  this increases acid production by stimulating parietal cell via CCK2 o Stimulates ECL cells to secrete histamine  these act on H2 receptors on parietal cells, increasing acid secretion  ACh inhibits D cells, inhibiting somatostatin production (inhibits the inhibitor)
58
Describe the processes during the gastric phase
 When food is ingested, proteins in food buffer acid, increasing the pH in the stomach  Gastrin is produced in response to elevated pH, stimulating increased acid production  More acid is produced in response
59
Describe the processes during the intestinal phase
 When food leaves the stomach, gastric pH drops  D cells secrete somatostatin in response, which inhibits acid production  Acid secretion falls
60
What are the functions of gastric acid?
 Kills bacteria  Denatures proteins  Aids in absorption of iron, vitamin B12 and calcium o Calcium is oxidised from Ca 2+ to Ca 3+ to assist in absorption
61
What does gastric mucous production depend on?
prostaglandins
62
How are prostaglandins produced?
Arachidonic acid pathway o AA is broken down into prostaglandins by COX-1 (constitutive) o COX-2 (inducible) is responsible for inflammatory effects  PGI 2 and PGE
63
Why do NSAIDs causes peptic ulceration?
NSAIDs cause peptic ulceration because they are non-selective COX inhibitors However, selective COX-2 inhibitors have been unsuccessful and were withdrawn from the market because of cardiovascular toxicity
64
How does peptic ulcer disease occur?
imbalance between attack (acid) and defence
65
What are the hypersecretory causes of peptic ulcer disease?
o Zollinger Ellison Syndrome (gastrin producing tumour)  Can be controlled with antisecretory drugs o Helicobacter pylori antral gastritis
66
What are the defence-reducing causes of peptic ulcer disease
o NSAIDs o “Stress” ulceration (e.g. following major trauma or burns)  less COX-1 action because of excessvie COX-2 action  reduced by nasogastric feeding and antisecretory drugs o H pylori infection corpus/pan gastritis
67
What are the complications of peptic ulcer disease?
 Erosion into blood vessel  Perforated peptic ulcer  erosion through outside wall of stomach or duodenum causes acute leak of gastric contents or air into peritonitis o Acute pan-abdominal pain  Anaemia – tired and breathless, pale conjunctiva
68
What is the link between h. pylori and peptic ulcer disease
High urease activity => catalyses the reaction between urea and water to form ammonia
69
What are the reasons of decline in h. pylori causing peptic ulcer disease?
o Now mostly colonises the antrum and not the body o This decreases somatostatin production, increases gastrin production  increased overall acid secretion (hypersecretion) o Mucous protection layer is less effective o Prone to duodenal ulcers and ulcers in the pre-pyloric region o Slight protective effect against gastric and duodenal cancers o Treat, usually no need for repeat endoscopies
70
What causes and what is the consequences of Acid hyposecretion?
dominates in the East (Japan etc.) o Pan gastritis o Parietal cells and oxyntic glands are inflamed =>decreased acid production o Inflammation wears away the gastric defence, leaving people at risk of ulcers and gastric cancer o Stomach becomes colonised by other bacteria (due to hyposecretion of acid) o Repeat endoscopies
71
How is H. pylori tested for?
1. blood test 2. stool test 3. breath test 4. endoscopy
72
What is the use of blood test in H. pylori testing
serology for h pylori antibodies NB: will always be positive even after infection has cleared. Therefore useful for primary investigation only, not follow-up after treatment
73
How are stool tests used in H. pylori testing
test for bacteria antigen
74
How is breath tested for H. pylori
– urea breath test - patient given urea that is labelled with C 13 /C 14 - then asked to breathe out into bag to determine how much of the exhaled carbon is labelled - no helicobacter, urea will be absorbed and urinated out, only C 12 in breath test - positive test will show heavier carbon isotope in exhaled air
75
How is H. pylori identified on endoscopy
test urease activity on gastric biopsy, or microscopic analysis (histological biopsy) - rapid urease test (contains pH indicator). Production of ammonia changes colour from yellow to red
76
How are PPIs uptaken in the body?
The low pH in the stomach converts all of the PPI to the ionised form, which cannot be absorbed. It therefore has to be packaged in enteric coating  It is absorbed in the small intestine and is transported to parietal cells o Here is becomes ionised and is trapped within the parietal cells o PPI forms an unbreakable disulphide bond with the proton pump, blocking it
77
What is the reason behin reducing pH in ulcer treatment
 Can’t heal an ulcer/eradicate H pylori without reducing acid secretion  The pH need to be > 4 for extended period of time to allow for the stomach/duodenum to heal