fucking more bonus quiz questions exam 1 son Flashcards by josh geidel

Q

The tunica Media is sperated from the Tunica Adventitia by the?

a. Endothelium
c. Internal Elastic Lamina
b. Tunica Intima
d. External Elastic Lamina

A

d. External Elastic Lamina

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Q

Athersclerosis is most likely to involve which of the following

a. Small arteries
c. Postcapillary venules
b. Large elastic arteries
d. collecting venules

A

b. Large elastic arteries

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Q

Which 2 mechanisms may cause vascular disease? (2 best)
A. Reduced Luminal Diameter       
c. Weakening of Vessel Walls
b.	Thromboembolism		
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

A. Reduced Luminal Diameter

c. Weakening of Vessel Walls

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Q

The diameter of a capillary lumen is around 8 um and is partially surrounded by smooth muscle like cells called
d.	A. Myonic Periphocyte		
c. Gliomas
B. Pericytes			
d. Endothelial Cells

A

d. Endothelial Cells

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Q

WOTF: 3 are considered to be major clinical consequences of atherosclerosis?
A, MI			
c. Peripheral Vascular Disease
B. Neovascularization
d. Aortic Aneurysm

A

A, MI

c. Peripheral Vascular Disease
d. Aortic Aneurysm

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Q

Extravastion of blood into the wall of an artery is associated with a?
A. Intracranial Berry Aneurysm	
c. False Aneurysm
B. True Aneurysm		
d. Fusiform aneurysm

A

c. False Aneurysm

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Q

Everyone older that ( ) years will demonstrate the presence of fatty streaks on the luminal surface of arteries?

a. 10 c. 35
b. 25 d. 45

A

a. 10

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Q

WOTF: 2 are key features of atherosclerotic plaques?

a. Thickening of Tunica Media
c. Lipid Accumulation
b. Thickening of Tunica Intima
d. Endothelial Aggregation

A

c. Lipid Accumulation

b. Thickening of Tunica Intima

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Q

Metabolic Syndrome is assoc. with which 2?

a. Insulin Resistance
c. Leptin Receptor Gene Mutation
b. Hypercoagulability
d. Retinitis

A

a. Insulin Resistance

c. Leptin Receptor Gene Mutation

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Q

Most type (  )  aortic dissections may be managed conservatively, while type (    )  require immediate surgery.
A. A, B				
c. C, A
B. B, A				
d. B, A

A

B. B, A

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Q

What are the 2 most common pathogenic mechanisms of vasculitis?

a. Physical Trauma
c. Immune-Mediated Inflammation
b. Exposure to Toxins
d. Direct Vascular Infection

A

c. Immune-Mediated. Direct Vascular Infection

d Inflammation

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Q

An abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.7 cm in diameter is at a ( ) risk of rupture each year

a. 1% c. 22%
b. 11% d. 25%
- +6cm=25%; 4-5cm=1%; 5-6 cm=11%

A

b. 11%

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Q

A patient w/ Emphysema is at an increased risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm
a. True b. False

A

a. True

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Q

The abrupt onset of ocular symptoms is involved w/ ( ) of patients w/ Giant Cell Arteritis.

a. 2%
c. 50%
b. 33%
d. 98%

A

c. 50%

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Q

The development of hepatic angiosarcomas is commonly assoc. w/ exposure to which of the following?

a. CO
c. Lead
b. Halogens
d. PVS

A

d. PVS

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Q

Karposi Sarcoma is a Vascular Neoplasm assoc. w/ which?

a. Escherichia coli
c. HHV 8
b. Cytomegalovirus
d. EBV

A

c. HHV 8

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Q

Lymphangiomas are benign lymphatic tumors that may grow as large as 15 cm and are most similar to WOTF?
a. Angiosarcomas			
c Telangiectasis
b. Hemangiomas			
d. Achalasia

A

b. Hemangiomas

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Q

Which condition is a common endpoint for various forms of cardiomyopathy

a. CHF
c. Ventral Septal Defect
b. MI
d. Activation of neurohumoral systems

A

a. CHF

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Q

WOTF: Cardiac defects commonly results in P&V ovenoads?

a. Obstruction of flow
c. Shunted flow
b. Regurgitant flow
d. Ruptured Vessels

A

a. Obstruction of flow

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Q

What is the most common cause of L sided Cardiac Failure

a. Aortic Valve Stenosis
c. Weight Lifting
b. Physiologic Hypertrophy
d. Ischemic Heart Disease

Study These Flashcards

A

d. Ischemic Heart Disease

Q

R side heart failure resulting from pulmonary HTN is?

a. Angina
c. Cor Pulmonale
b. CHF
d. Tachycardia

Study These Flashcards

A

c. Cor Pulmonale

Q

The Ductus arteriosus arises from the L pulmonary artery and joins the aorta during intrauterine life and is functionally closed by ( ) postrat.

a. 2
c. 30
b. 10
d. 90

Study These Flashcards

A

a. 2

Q

Shunting of blood from the ( ) is most likely to manifest as early onset cyanosis

a. L to R Ventricle
b. R to L Ventricle

Study These Flashcards

A

b. R to L Ventricle

Q

A prolonged ( ) shunt may cause shunt reversal due to adaptive changes in Pulmonary Vascular Resistance

a. L to R Ventricle
b. R to L Ventricle

Study These Flashcards

A

?

``` Congenital Heart Diseases account for ( ) of all birth defects a. 4% C. 75% b. 30% D. 90% ```

? 30% ?

Which disease is most likely to interfere with the embryogenesis of Cardiac Tissue a. Pertusis c. Mumps b. Rubeola d. Rubella

d. Rubella

WOTF: is used as a lab marker to evaluate pts. w/ possible MI a. Inflammasome c. Pericarditis b. Myositisoifacans d. Troponins (and CK)

?

The symptoms associated w/ MI are commonly relieved by Nitroglycerine and rest a. True b. False

b. false

PTs. Experiencing an acute MI will commonly demonstrate a rapidly and scarcely palpable (Thready) Pulse a. True b. False

true

Anginal Symptoms typically begin when chronic atherosclerotic lesions occlude ( ) of the lumen. a. 20% c. 70% b. 50% d. 90%

C. 70%

Systematic hypertensive heart disease causes _______ thickening of the left ventricularwall with reduced lumen size A. CONCENTRIC B. ECCENTRIC

A. CONCENTRIC

``` Failure of a cardiac valve to open completely is ______ A. COR PULMONATE B. INSUFFICIENCY C. STENOSIS D. FRILLS ```

C. STENOSIS

``` Bicuspid aortic valve is a congenital malformation that occurs in approx. _____ of births A. 2% B. 18% C. 82% D. 98% ```

A. 2%

It is common for calcific aortic stenosis to result in eccentric cardiac hypertrophy A. T B. F

B. False

Cause of acute endocarditis involves a ______ heart valve A. Previously normal B. Previously abnormal

A. Previously normal

``` When acute rheumatic fever develops within adults, _____ is the predominant feature clinically A arthritis B. carditis C. weakness D. dyspnea ```

A arthritis - adults

``` WOTF is a clinical concern associated with the development of a friable vegetation on a patients mitral valve. A. DVT B. increased stroke vol. C. embolus D. RV hypertrophy ```

C. embolus

``` Rheumatic heart disease commonly develops ______ following exposure to Group A Bhemolytic strep pharyngitis A. 3 weeks B. 7 weeks C. 10 week D. 1-2 years ```

A. 3 weeks

``` Dilated cardiomyopathy commonly involves an increase in _____ of 2-3x A. Filling pressure B. Mitral thickness C.Weight D. Diameter of LV lumen ```

C.Weight

``` What is the fundamental cardiac defect in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy? A. Amyloidosis B. diastolic dysfunction C. ineffective contraction D. arrhythmia ```

C. ineffective contraction

``` WOTF is an example of restrictive cardiomyopathy? A. Amyloidosis B. myocarditis C. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. asymmetric septal hypertrophy ```

A. Amyloidosis

``` Extravascular hemolysis is most likely to take place within the _______ A. Lymph channels B. post cap venule C. liver D. spleen ```

D. spleen - primary [liver is secondary]

``` Major receiving repeated blood transfusions are at risk for developing which condition? A. Hematopoiesis B. hemolytic anemia C. hemosiderinuna D. hemochromatosis ```

D. hemochromatosis

``` The leading cause of death among patients with sickle cell anemia are ______ and_____ A. hemochromatosis B. acute chest syndrome C. stroke D. hemosidennuria ```

B. acute chest syndrome | C. stroke

``` Thalassemia is most likely to develop in these living in mediterr, Africa, and _____ A. India B. caribbean C. asia D. central america ```

C. asia

``` Sickle cell disease may lead to hypoxia induce fatty changes in the heart liver and ____ A. renal tubes B. distal extremities C. periungual regions D. neurons ```

A. renal tubes

Splenomegaly is more prominent in patients suffering from ______ A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Hemolytic anemia

A. Hereditary spherocytosis

Iron excretion is regulated in the proximal convoluted tubule A. True B. False

B. False