Full Deck Flashcards
Review questions presented in test material
1
Q
Which two operating systems are supported with AWS cloud9?
A
Ubuntu Server 18.04 LTS and Amazon Linux 2
2
Q
What command is used to check AWS Command Line Interface version?
A
aws –version
3
Q
Which command is used to configure the AWS CLI for a profile called “skillsoft”?
A
aws configure –profile skillsoft
4
Q
Which command will list all users in the Identity Access Management service with profile called “skillsoft”?
A
aws iam list-users –profile skillsoft
5
Q
Which command is used to run the AWS CLI with docker to check the version?
A
docker run –rm -it amazon/aws-cli –version
6
Q
Which command must be run after you unzip the AWS CLI folder to finish installing the AWS CLI?
A
sudo ./aws/install
6
Q
Which command is used to install the AWS CLI on windows?
A
msiexec.exe / i https: //awscli.amazonaws.com/AWSCLIV2.msi
7
Q
Which two pieces of information are used by the AWS CLI to determine a user identity?
A
Access Key ID and Secret Access Key
8
Q
Which AWS service is provisioned when cloud9 is provisioned?
A
EC2 instance
9
Q
Which AWS service captures logs for API gateway?
A
AWS Cloudtrail
10
Q
Which API is used to open a long-lasting connection?
A
Web Socket API
11
Q
What must be added to the end of the invoking URL to run your endpoint?
A
API Route
12
Q
Which cloud service model is geared towards developers?
A
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
13
Q
Which feature of CloudFormation stacks functions as a precaution to ensure you understand what will happen to your resources when you update a stack?
A
Change Sets
14
Q
When preparing a template for a stack update, which options do you have available to you?
A
Use the Current Template, Replace the Current Template, or Edit the Template in Designer
15
Q
Which section is used to pass commands to an EC2 instance upon boot?
A
User Data
16
Q
Which component of CloudFormation will provide users with valuable information about resources after creation?
A
Outputs
17
Q
Which is a major risk when adopting an Infrastructure as Code solution?
A
Additional developer responsibilities
17
Q
Which feature of the CloudFormation designer allows you to check that your code is written correctly?
A
Validate template
18
Q
Every pipeline contains which one of these actions?
A
Deploy
19
Q
StackSets can only be created via which type of account?
A
Admin
19
Q
Which security technique relies on a secondary authentication mechanism in addition to a username and password?
A
MFA (Multi Factor Authentication)
19
Q
Which aspect of an AWS CodePipeline includes the details of the integration step?
A
AWS CodeBuild
20
Q
Which programming languages are used to create a CloudFormation template?
A
JSON/YAML
21
What are the valid stages of an AWS CodePipeline?
Source / Test / Build
22
Which best describes an Amazon Resource Name (ARN)?
A globally unique identifier for an AWS resource
23
Which AWS service can be used to manage CI/CD for an AWS Lambda application?
AWS CodePipeline
23
Which CloudFormation component allows users to define inputs of the template when it runs?
Parameters
23
Which built-in identity profile grants the ability to delete Lambda functions?
AWSLambda_FullAccess
24
Which are example features of AWS Lambdas?
Code Signing / Concurrency and Scaling
25
About how many AWS service integrations are available for mocking with the AWS Step Functions feature?
200
25
Which are examples of supported runtimes for AWS Lambda?
Go / C#
26
Which best describes the relationship between Lambda versions and aliases?
A version may have many aliases but an alias may only be associated with one version
27
Who is responsible for managing the physical servers in a serverless compute model?
Cloud provider (e.g. AWS)
28
Which tool would be used to invoke a Lambda function from the command line?
AWS Command Line Interface
29
Which best describes an AWS Lambda blueprint?
A “getting started” package with a functional AWS Lambda function
30
Which file is required when creating a custom runtime for an AWS Lambda function?
bootstrap
31
Which key feature does ElastiCache for Redis offer to deal with data availability?
Flexible zone placement
31
Which command is used in the AWS CLI to list tables in a dynamodb?
aws dynamodb list-tables
32
Which are examples of configurable aspects of an API Gateway stage?
Monitoring and Logging
33
Which best describes the criteria upon which AWS Lambdas are invoiced?
Compute power used
33
Which command is used to connect to a Redis instance in cluster mode?
redis-cli -h -c -p
34
Which port is needed to open an incoming connection to an EFS instance?
2049
35
Which capacity does the elastic file system store?
It is dynamic and can increase and shrink in size
35
Which kind of data is best used with a data storage service like Memcached?
Static Data
36
Which is an advantage offered by an ElastiCache Cluster?
Fault Tolerance of Data
36
What is used for efficient sorting and searching of items in a dynamodb table?
Sort Key
37
Which is used to uniquely identify an entry in a dynamodb table?
Partition Key
38
What is meant as a shard in Elasticache?
A collection of nodes aligned in a hierarchy
38
Which advantages do stateless applications offer over stateful applications?
Easy to create/maintain and scale
39
Which best describes the dependency between infrastructure as code (IaC) and configuration as code (CaC)
CaC depends on IaC
40
Which is the default port used in an ElastiCache Cluster?
6379
41
Which best describes the authentication and authorization model for the Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS)?
Authentication is managed through IAM and authorization is handled within EKS
41
Which best describes what must be done before a task can be associated with an ECS cluster as a service?
The task must be registered
42
Which main advantage does caching offer?
Fast retrieval of data
43
Which values are required when connecting the AWS CLI to an AWS account?
Access Key ID and Secret
43
Which are features of an ECS cluster?
Cluster security is managed through IAM policies, Clusters are region-specific
44
Which Docker command would be used to retrieve an image from the repository “example.org” with the tag “latest”?
docker pull example.org:latest
45
Which AWS OpsWorks strategy is exclusive to AWS?
OpsWorks Stacks
46
Which best describes the AWS Elastic Container Service (ECS)?
A container management service for running containers in the cloud
47
Which file produced by Amazon App2Container can be used to configure the container before it is actually generated?
analysis.json
48
Which best describes the AWS Elastic Container Registry (ECR)?
A repository for storing container images in the cloud
49
Which two credential values are required when establishing a connection to AWS using the AWS SDK?
Key ID, Secret Value
50
Which are examples of items that can be placed in an Amazon S3 bucket?
Objects and Folders
51
By default, which location is an EFS file system mounted to a Linux EC2 system?
/mnt/efs/fs1
52
Which Amazon S3 Glacier tier supports choosing between paying for access to archives within 1-5 minutes or free access between 5-12 hours?
S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
53
Which Amazon EFS storage class takes advantage of multiple availability zones to offer high availability and self-healing?
Standard storage classes
54
Which encryption strategy requires the application to perform the encryption of data before it is written to Amazon S3?
Client-side
55
Which IP protocols are supported by dual-stack endpoints?
IPv4/IPV6
55
Which Amazon EBS volume type has the highest performance?
SSDs
56
Which character is required at the end of an object name to tell Amazon S3 to create a folder?
/ (Forward Slash)
56
Which are other terms for an AWS Backup backup?
Snapshot / Recovery Point
57
Which value is required to interact with an archive after it has been created?
Archive ID
58
Which is the top-level component of Amazon S3?
Buckets
59
What element of a relational database corresponds to an individual data value?
Field
60
In a collection named “books,” what command would be used to retrieve all documents?
db.books.find()
60
How many Microsoft SQL Server databases can be deployed via the Amazon Relational Database Service per AWS account?
10
61
What is an Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (QLDB) journal?
An immutable transaction log of all changes made to data over time
62
What data node type is only recommended for legacy applications?
DS2
63
What is the format type of a data object stored within Amazon DocumentDB?
JSON file
64
How many replicas can an Amazon Aurora cluster include?
15
65
What command is required when adding clauses to Amazon Keyspaces read operations?
ALLOW FILTERING
66
What element corresponds to a data entry in an Amazon Timestream database?
Record
67
What database service does Amazon Keyspaces wrap?
Apache Cassandra
68
What Amazon DynamoDB element corresponds to an individual data value?
Attribute
69
What consistency model ensures that data is guaranteed to be included in read operations immediately after a write operation?
Strongly consistent
70
What database capability type does Amazon Neptune provide?
Graph
71
What tool is used for programmatic access to Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached?
AWS SDK
72
Which action is required by Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics to understand the input data stream it will process?
Click “discover schema”
73
Which are example advantages of Amazon Athena?
Ability to perform SQL-like queries against raw data // Ability to read information from multiple data files at once
74
In AWS Glue, which Amazon data service is supported as a data source, but not a data target?
Amazon DynamoDB
75
Which are common use cases for Amazon OpenSearch?
searching through application logs & Websites
76
How much data can Amazon Elasticsearch store in a single cluster?
3 petabytes
77
Which top-level component contains search data in Amazon CloudSearch?
Domain
78
Which role is required to allow an AWS Lambda function to read from Amazon Kinesis?
AWSLamdaKinesis
79
Which are example advantages to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams?
Reduced Ops load // Ability to perform real-time processing
80
Which best describes an AWS Lake Formation Data Catalog?
Metadata about an individual data source
81
Where is data stored when using Amazon Athena?
Data is not stored in Athena; it queries data where it lives
82
Which best describes Amazon EMR?
A managed cluster platform that simplifies running big data frameworks such as Apache Hadoop or Apache Spark
83
Which are features of Amazon AppFlow?
Transfers data privately using PrivateLink // Keeps data in sync
84
Which values are required when creating an Amazon Kinesis Data Stream?
Name && initial shard count
85
Which are actors that Simple Workflow service interacts with?
Activity workers and deciders
86
Which Target type should you specify while configuring Amazon EventBridge if you want to specify a Lambda function that you have written as the event target?
AWS service
87
Which message brokers does Amazon Message Queue support?
ActiveMQ && RabitMQ
88
How many group IDs may be specified in SNS FIFO topics and SQS FIFO queues?
Unlimited
89
Without using the Amazon Extended Client Library for Java, what is the maximum size of SNS messages including attributes?
256KB
90
You are configuring Amazon EventBridge to log an EC2 API call. Which event type should be specified when delivering the event using CloudTrail?
AWS API Call via CloudTrail
91
Which type of ordering do Amazon SQS standard queues support?
Best-effort ordering
92
Which type of delays are supported by Amazon FIFO queues?
Per queue delays
93
Which type of topics may be generated using Amazon SNS?
Standard && FIFO
94
How are events represented in Amazon EventBridge?
JSON objects
95
Which type of encryption can you optionally enable while creating an Amazon SNS standard topic?
Server-side encryption
95
Complete the AWS Lambda function handler so that it can be used for logging Auto Scaling group events.
'use strict';
export const handler = async (, context, callback) => {
console.log('logging Auto Scaling event');
console.log('This is the received event:', JSON.stringify(event, null, 2));
callback(null, 'Finished');
};
event
96
Which type of failure occurs when a portion of requests are successful during batch processing?
Partial
97
Which statements accurately describe the fanout architecture pattern?
Communication pushed to multiple endpoints simultaneously && It provides a parallel asynchronous model to work with
98
What are the individual steps in a workflow called?
States
99
You are creating an Amazon SQS queue. You have chosen to implement the Basic method to define an access policy using the SQS console. Which statements accurately describe who can send and receive messages by default using this method?
Only the queue owner can send or receive messages from the queue
100
What kind of compute environment is used in the AWS CloudShell?
Amazon Linux 2
101
What AWS CodeCommit component holds a version of the code?
Branch
102
What must be created before an AWS Artifact repository?
a domain
103
What type of file is used in a buildspec file?
YAML
104
What type of testing is used to remove dependencies on unit tests?
Mock testing
105
What button in the AWS Console allows users to manually invoke the pipeline?
Release change
106
What AWS CodeBuild component contains all the settings and commands to be run during the build?
The CodeBuild project
107
To create a new branch called “newbranch,” what command would be used?
git checkout -b newbranch
108
What AWS CodePipeline component is typically used to test code?
AWS CodeBuild
109
To push changes to a branch called “newbranch,” what command would be used?
git push origin newbranch
110
What is stored by AWS Artifact?
Private packages
111
What command is used to push tags to the cloud?
git push --tags
112
What is the source of a build pipeline?
A CodeCommit repo
113
What target is used by AWS CodeDeploy to deploy source code for serverless architecture?
A Lambda function
114
Which types of access control are supported by Cognito identity pools?
Attribute & Role based access control (ABAC & RBAC)
115
Which is a valid AWS managed policy that may be applied to a group of development users?
AmazonS3FullAccess
116
Complete the bucket policy to allow the GetObject action to be performed only by IAM users in the account “12345678901234”?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
{
"Sid": "AllowGetObjectRestricted",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": "*",
"Action": "s3:GetObject",
"Resource": "arn:aws:s3:::test-permissions-bucket-12345/*",
"Condition": {
"StringEquals": {
"": "12345678901234"
}
}
}
]
}
aws:PrincipalAccount
117
In the process of creating a directory, AWS Managed AD creates an administrator account with which name?
Admin
118
Complete the code snippet to use the AWS SDK for Python to upload a file to Amazon S3.
import boto3
Set up S3 client with access keys
s3 = boto3.client('s3')
Set the source and destination file paths
source_file_path = 'file.txt'
bucket_name = 'test-permissions-bucket-12345'
destination_key = 'uploaded-file.txt'
Upload the file to S3
(source_file_path, bucket_name, destination_key)
s3.upload_file
119
What are the main roles in the Audit Manager process?
Audit Owners & Delegates
120
In Amazon Cloud Directory, which components together comprise a schema?
Attributes, Constraints, and Links
121
Which entity is capable of making requests of AWS resources?
IAM Principals
122
