Full Length #2 Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
what does active transport mean?
A
moving against a gradient
2
Q
primary active transport
A
directly uses a source of chemical energy (ex. ATP) to move molecules across a membrane against their gradient
ex: sodium-potassium pump
3
Q
secondary active transport
A
uses an electrochemical gradient (generated by active transport) as an energy source to move molecules against their gradient
-does not directly require a chemical source of energy
4
Q
passive transport
A
does not require the cell to expend any energy
-substance diffusing down its concentration gradient across a membrane
5
Q
what type of molecules have trouble crossing the plasma membrane?
A
polar and charged molecules
-polar molecules can easily interact with the outer face of the membrane, where the negatively charge head groups are found (ex: water molecules)
6
Q
facilitated diffusion
A
molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane with assistance from membrane proteins, such as channels and carriers
7
Q
exocytosis
A
a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels its contents
8
Q
What is the correct path of the circulatory system which describes the passage of a blood clot originating in the left leg?
A
vena cava -> right atrium -> right ventricle -> lungs -> left atrium -> left ventricle -> aorta
9
Q
which heart valves are NOT actively closed by the contraction of muscular structure?
A
semilunar valves
10
Q
what valves ARE actively closed by the contraction of muscular structure?
A
mitral (left atrioventricular)
atrioventricular
tricuspid (right atrioventricular)
11
Q
At the instant following the second heart sound, which valves are open?
A
all valves are closed?
12
Q
Rank the blood vessels in order of their average pressure, from highest to lowest
A
aorta > artery > arteriole > capillary > venule > vein
13
Q
what layer of the heart would be most immediately susceptible to infections caused by bacteria in the blood?
A
endocardium
14
Q
what vessels carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart?
A
pulmonary artery only
15
Q
what kind of cells can usually diffuse across cell membranes?
A
small or non-polar or preferably both
16
Q
what is the role of competitive inhibition?
A
bind reversibly to the active cite
- since reversible inhibition can be overcome by adding more substrate, Vmax remains the same
- increases kM
17
Q
if an amino acid is at its isoelectric point, what does it exist as?
A
a zwitterion
with positive and negative charges that cancel each other out
18
Q
for a female to be exhibiting x linked recessive disorders, what kind of chromosomes mush she have?
A
must have two copies of a defective gene
one on each x chromosome
19
Q
autosomal recessive disorder
A
require the presence of two defective genes in order for that disorder to be expressed
20
Q
amino acids with acidic R groups
A
glutamic acid, aspartic acid
21
Q
amino acids with basic R groups
A
histidine, arginine, and lysine
22
Q
what is the only way to increase the amount of free glutamate in a food source?
A
protein degradation
23
Q
what does passive transport include?
A
diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis
24
Q
facilitated diffusion
A
molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane with assistance from membrane proteins (channels or carriers)
25
osmosis
diffusion of a solvent (usually water molecules) through a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration
26
fermentation
anaerobic process that occurs after glycolysis
27
what is the relationship between meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis?
meiosis halves the chromosome number
fertilization restores the chromosome number
mitosis maintains it
28
what is the result of meiosis?
a gamete has only one of each pair of chromosomes in its nucleus
29
So if a whole egg is a haploid cell, what does it contain?
contains half the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell
30
if an autosomal cell is diploid, what does it contain?
a full set of chromosomes
| with two copies of every chromosome (one of maternal origin, one of paternal origin)
31
is triose phosphate isomerase used in aerobic or anaerobic respiration?
both
32
cytochrome c oxidase is in
the ETC cycle
33
context effects
retrieval cue where memory is aided by the individual being in the same physical location where the original encoding took place
34
state dependent memory
a person's mental state can affect recall
ex: people who learn facts or skills while intoxicated will show better recall or proficiency when performing those same tasks while intoxicated than while sober
35
serial position effect
retrieval cue that appears while learning lists
36
spacing effect
retaining larger amounts of information when the amount of time between sessions of relearning is increased
37
James Lange theory
stimulus results first in phsycological arousal which leads to a secondary response in which the emotion is labeled
38
schachter singer theory of emotion
both arousal and the labeling of arousal based on environment must occur in order for an emotion to be experienced
-one must analyze the environment in relation to nervous system arousal to feel an emotion
39
opponent process theory
explains the motivation for drug use and tolerance
40
bottom up reasoning
seeks to create a theory via generalizations
| -starts with specific instances and then draws a conclusion from them
41
whats the spinal cords primary function
to move information from sensory neurons, to the brain, and back to motor neurons
42
what is the hypothalamus primary function
to regulate homeostasis and integrate with the endocrine system
43
what is the midbrains main function
contains the inferior and superior colliculi, which receive information from the auditory system and visual sensory input
44
what is the hindbrains main function
balance, motor coordination, vital functions, arousal, alertness
45
what does the hindbrain contain
medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum
46
medulla oblongata function
responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
47
pons function
contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and the medulla
48
cerebellum function
helps maintain posture and balance and coordinates body movements
49
biological persepective
personality can be explained as a result of genetic expression in the brain
50
behavioral perspective
personality develops due to conditioning
51
social cognitive perspective
personality develops through interaction between one's environment and interactions with the environment
52
demographic shift
changes in birth and death rates in a country as it develops from a preindustrial society to an industrial economic system
-four states
53
stages of demographic shift
1. preindustrial society: birth and death rates are both high
2. improvements in healthcare, nutrition, sanitation, and wages cause death rates to drop
3. improvements in contraception, women's rights, and a shift from an agricultural to and industrial economy cause birth rates (births per 1000 individuals per year) to drop, families have fewer children bc have to be support by parents for longer
4. industrialized society: birth and death rates are low
54
what does both James-Lange theory and Cannon-bard theory agree on?
that the perception of even leads to physiological and emotional response
-they differ on where they happen simultaneously as a result of activity in the thalamus (Cannon-Bard) or whether physiological arousal from the viscera precedes emotion (James-Lange)
55
Yerkes-Dodson Law of Social facilitation
being in the presence of others will significantly raise arousal, which
1. enhances the ability to perform tasks one is already good at (or simple tasks)
2. hinders the performance of less familiar tasks (or complex tasks)
56
group conformity
all the individuals in the group are compliant with the group's ideas
57
groupthink
group focuses only on ideas generated from within the group
58
the calcarine sulcus divides the fovea, the center of the primary visual cortex, into two halves. The top and bottom halves represent what?
the top half represents the inferior area of the visual field
the bottom half represents the top or superior area of the visual field
59
what are the stages of Piaget's 4 sequential stages of cognitive development
1. sensorimotor stage
2. preoperational stage
3. concrete operational stage
4. formal operational stage
60
sensorimotor
age 0-2
ability to manipulate one's environment to meet one's physical needs and by circular reactions
-development of object permanence
61
preoperational stage
2-7 y/o
- symbolic thinking: ability to pretend and imagine
- egocentrism: inability to imagine what another person may think or feel
- centration: tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon
62
concrete operational stage
7-11 age
abilities to understand conservation, consider the perspective of others, and think logically about concrete objects and directly available information
-not able to think abstractly
63
formal operational stage
age 11
- ability to think logically about abstract ideas
- adolescent: ability to reason about abstract concepts and problem-solve
64
where is the ETC located in prokaryotic cells?
plasma membrane
65
where is gastrin releasing peptide secreted?
secreted by post-ganglioninc fibers of the vagus nerve in the stomach
66
what does acetrylcholinesterase do?
enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine
67
what subunits do eukaryotes have?
40S and 60S ribosomal subunits
68
what subunits do prokaryotes have?
30S and 50S
69
peptidoglycan is present in the cell walls of what organisms?
prokaryotes
70
saltatory conduction
propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node
-relies on cells being able to conduct an action potential at the nodes of Ranvier
71
where does an action potential happen?
at the nodes of Ranvier, the area of the axon that are not covered by myelin
72
where does saltatory conduction allow skipping of an ion exchange?
where myelin is present but those steps cannot be skipped at the nodes of Ranvier
73
microglia
phagocytic cells that ingest and break down waste products and pathogens in the CNS
74
what are the resident macrophages of the CNS?
microglia
75
lysosomes
membrane-bound structures containing hydrolytic enzymes that are capable of breaking down many different substrates
76
how are microglia able to digest the substances it ingests and kill pathogens?
bc of the high amounts of lysosomes microglia contain relative to other cell types
77
Microglia are most likely replete with which of the following organelles or structures?
lysosomes
78
cohort study
subjects are sorted into two groups based on varying risk factors and then assessed at various intervals to determine how many subjects in each group had a certain trait
79
cross-sectional study
assesses participants at a single point in time
80
case-control study
looks at a population with certain traits and looks backwards in their lives to see what led to those traits
81
are peptide hormones abile to cross the cell membrane?
not easily and typically have to bind to extracellular receptors
82
can steroid hormones cross the cell membrane?
nonpolar and cross the cell membrane easily, where they are able to bind to intracellular and intranuclear receptors
83
a hormone that binds to its receptor in the cytoplasm is most likely what?
-steroid hormone
bc they are able to pass through cell membranes easily and therefore likely to interact with receptors in the cytoplasm
84
what would happen if the Na+/Cl- symporter were blocked?
There would be decreased sodium reabsorption and thus more sodium in the filtrate
water would follow the sodium and leave in the urine
85
what does the Na+/Cl- symporter usually do?
the transporter normally absorbs sodium
86
what is the role of estrogen in the menstrual cycle?
both a positive feedback regulator and a negative feedback regulator
-promoting and inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH
87
trypsin
pancreatic enzyme produced in the pancreas to help digest proteins
88
lactase
brush border enzyme that continues the carbohydrate digestion that begins in the oral cavity
89
bile
stored in the gallblader, made in the liver
90
pepsin
enzyme that functions at low pH in the stomach
91
Mendel's first law (of segregation)
during anaphase 1, disjuction: homologous pairs separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell
92
mendel's second law (of independent assortment)
crossing over
| inheritance of one allele has no effect on the likelihood of inheriting certain alleles for other genes
93
what happens during prophase 1 of meiosis
crossing over
94
if the body has excess glucose stores, which electron transfer intermediates are likely to accumulate? How does this change if the body is depleted energy?
With excess glucose stores, the presence of a large proton gradient prevents the transfer of electrons in the ETC
- buildup of NADH and FADH2 when glucose high
- NAD+ and FAD+2 when depleted
95
primary structure
sequence of amino acids that is determined by the DNA of the gene that encodes the protein
96
secondary structure
local folded structures that form within a polypeptide due to interactions between atoms of the backbone
-held by hydrogen bonds (form between the carbonyl O of one amino acid and the amino H of another)
most common: alpha helix and beta pleated sheet
97
what amino acid is typically found in bends in helix formations?
proline
98
tertiary structure
3-d structure of a polypeptide
- interactions b/w the R groups of the amino acids that make up their protein
- hydrophobic interactions are important
- modifications to active site would effect
- disulfide bonds are molecular safety pins
99
quaternary structure
multiple polypeptide chains called subunits come together
ex: hemoglobin (2 subunits are alpha, 2 subunits are beta)
ex: DNA polymerase (10 subunits)
100
many of the genes coding for mitochondrial proteins are located where
in the mitochondrial DNA
101
What happens to the sperm mitochondria upon penetration of the egg?
fall apart and are not replicated when divisions begin
102
mutualism
interactions between organisms of two different species, in which each organism benefits from the interaction in some way
103
commensalism
one species benefits and the other neither benefits nor suffers
104
parasitism
one species benefits while the other is harmed
105
predation
one species hunts (and presumable consumes) the other
106
where are normal gut flora?
cecum
| the blind outpouching of the large intestine
107
terminal ileum
part of the small intestine
108
jejeunum
middl eportion of the small intestine
| primarily where absorption is involved
109
rectum
site of solid waste storage
| not a harbor for bacteria
110
in a tumorigenic cell, you would expect to see what kinds of activities?
processes associated with cell growth and division
- mRNA synthesis (transcription)
- ribosomal assembly
- cell division
111
what cells does the adaptive immune system rely on ?
B cells and T cells
- derived from stem cells in the bone marrow
- once made in the bone marrow, need to mature and become activated
112
what happens when naive B cells encounter an antigen?
if it fits or matches its membrane bound antibody, it quickly divides in order to become either a memory B cell or an effector B cell
113
what happens during base repair?
a base is excised by a restriction enzyme, replaced by a polymersase (DNA polymerase) and finally linked to the bases around it by DNA ligase
114
what enzyme is responsible for the last step in the DNA repair?
DNA ligase
115
where is the primase enzyme found?
part of replication
116
function of topoisomerase
relaxes and winds/unwinds DNA for synthesis
117
rough endoplasmic reticulum
site of much protein synthesis
118
smooth ER
synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones
detoxification of medications and poisons
storage of calcium ions
119
golgi complex
proteins are processed for transport to the cell membrane
120
lysosome
digests proteins
| involved in waste removal and digestion
121
before being sent to the cell membrane, a protein must be processed in where?
the golgi complex
122
frameshift mutations
deletion or insertion in a DNA sequence that shifts the way the sequence is read
123
silent mutation
one that results in the SAME amino acid even after mutation
124
missense mutation
single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid
125
what are the three stop codons
UAA
UAG
UGA
126
formula for osmotic pressure
pi = iMRT
127
Michaelis-Mentin kinetics
there is one active site capable of binding substrate
128
hemoglobin
allosteric protein with 4 subunits and exhibits cooperativity: when one oxygen binds, the other sites bind oxygen more easily
129
why does hemoglobin not follow the rules of Michaelis-Mentin kinetics?
hemoglobin exhibits allosteric effects
130
anomers
cyclic forms of sugars or similar molecules differing in the configuration at the anomeric carbon
131
diastereomers
optical isomers that are identical at one or more chiral centers and different at one or more chiral centers
132
epimers
differ only at one carbon
133
constitutional isomers
compounds that have the same molecular formula and different connectivity
134
what is polyuria
symptom of type 2 diabetes
- excess water excretion
- higher amounts of glucose in the urine means that the urine osmolarity will be higher then usual
- result in less reabsorption of water from the filtrate in the nephrons
135
what is the difference between the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the descending limb?
the ascending limb is almost completely impermeable to water
136
when is it not okay to use a palcebo group in a trial?
they are not used in cases where there is a known beneficial treatment bc it is unethical to deny patients treatment
137
What cells are destroyed in type 1 diabetes?
involves the destruction of cells that produce insulin (beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas)
138
induction
a signaling cascade in development which changes the structure or function of developing tissues through chemical mediators
139
transduction
process by which foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector
140
transfection
deliberately introducing naked or purified nucelic acids into eukaryotic cells
141
conduction
transfer of sound waves, heat, nervous impulses or electricity
142
totipotency
ability of a cell to develop into any mature cell type
143
Mendelian inheritance
one must perform a cross that results in offspring that reveal the unknown parental genotype to differentiate b/w a homozygous dominant and a heterozygous dominant for a trait that exhibits classic dominant/recessive
144
How do beta and gamma radiation differ?
Beta particles will be deflected in a magnetic field while gamma rays will not
- beta particles have a negative charge and will be deflected by a magnetic field
- gamma rays are high energy photons lacking any charge so they will not be deflected
145
geiger counter
provides a largely qualitative measure of radioactivity in an area
146
what does the equation of continuity explain
liquids must maintain their volume as they flow in a pipe since they are nearly incompressible.
the volume of liquid that flows into a pipe in a given amount of time must equal the volume of liquid that flows out of a pipe in the same amount of time
147
How do blood flow rate (BFR) and blood pressure (BP) differ in pulmonary and systemic circulation
BP is greater in systemic circulation and BFR is the same for both circulations
148
what is the difference between pulmonary and systemic circuits?
pulmonary circulation occurs b/w the heart and the lungs
-circulation of blood in which deoxygenated blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs and oxygenated blood is returned back to hear
systemic circulation between the heart and the entire body
-refers to the circulation of blood in which oxygenated blood is pumped from the heart to the body and deoxygenated blood is returned back to the heart
149
resistance formula
R = (pL)/A
150
pressure formula
force/area
151
hydrostatic pressure equation
P = pgz
152
Which of the following provides the most reasonable evolutionary explanation for fainting when circulation to the brain is insufficient?
fainting results in a reduction of the effects of gravity on blood flow to the brain
-if circulation to the brain is insufficient, fainting makes the individual collapse to the floor and positions the brain at the same height relative to the rest of the body and prevents blood pressure in the brain from dropping
153
negative pressure ventilation
mammals use negative pressure to suck air in
- diaphragm contracts and move down, intercostal muscles contract and move up and out
- lungs expand, pressure inside the lungs drops
154
inhalation facilitates venous flow towards the right atrium by expanding the thoracic cavity and inducing
a decrease in cavity pressure
155
when you have a stable conjugate base, what else does that tell you?
the stronger the acid and that acid strength is increased by the inductive effect of electron withdrawing groups on the neighboring carbon atoms
156
how are hemiketals formed
as a result of the nucleophilic addition of a hydroxyl donated by an alcohol to a ketone carbonyl group
157
mutarotation
change in the optical rotation bc of the change in equilibrium between two anomers, when the corresponding stereocenters interconvert
