Full Section 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Muscle spindles
A
Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the
rate of that change.
2
Q
Golgi tendon organ
A
A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal
muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to
changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.
3
Q
3 Stages of Motor Development
A
- During stage 1 (cognitive), you may need to use simple instructions and break down the skill into smaller steps so your clients will be
able to understand the goals of the movement. - During stage 2 (associative), you may need to help refine your
clients’ skills through practice and regular feedback. - During stage 3 (autonomous), you may be able to teach your clients
new versions of the skill to further challenge them.
4
Q
Osteokinematic
A
Bone movement
5
Q
Arthrokinematic
A
Movement at the joint surface
6
Q
Synovial joints
A
Unique with a synovial capsule containing other connective tissue, such as ligaments + fascia that provide support.
7
Q
Synovial joints
A
Gliding (plane), condyloid, hinge, saddle, pivot, + ball-and-socket joints
8
Q
Skeletal system
A
A description of the bones of the body. 206 bones with 177 are used in voluntary movement.
9
Q
Axial skeleton
A
A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, rib cage, + vertebral column. Approximately 80 bones in the axial skeleton.
10
Q
Appendicular Skeleton
A
A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, + pelvic girdle. Encompasses approximately 126 bones.
11
Q
Remodeling
A
Process by which bone is constantly renewed by the resorption + formation of the bone structure.
12
Q
Osteoclasts
A
Special cells that break down + remove old bone tissue
13
Q
Osteoblasts
A
Special cells that form + lay down new bone tissue
14
Q
Long bones
A
Long, cylindrical shaft w/irregular or widened ends.
- Humerus (i.e., the upper arm bone)
- Femur (i.e., the thigh bone)
15
Q
Short bones
A
Similar in length + width + appear somewhat cubical in shape
- Carpals of the wrist
- Tarsals of the ankle
16
Q
Flat bones
A
Thin, protective surfaces that provide broad surfaces for muscles to attach.
- Scapulae (i.e., the shoulder blades)
- Sternum (i.e., the breast plate)
- Ribs
17
Q
Irregular bones
A
Unique shape + function from all other bone types
- Vertebrae (i.e., spinal column)
18
Q
Sesamoid bones
A
Small, often round bones embedded in a joint capsule found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint.
19
Q
Depressions
A
Flattened or indented portions of bone
20
Q
Processes
A
Projections protruding from the bone where tendons + ligaments can attach.
21
Q
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
A
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
22
Q
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
A
Platelets contain clotting factors and are responsible for blood clotting, which is needed for healing after an injury.
23
Q
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
A
Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
24
Q
A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?
A
Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.
25
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Sagittal
26
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?
Limited ankle dorsi-flexion, as a result of ankle stiffness, may limit the depth of a squat during the lowering phase. This can be addressed through stretching of the plantar flexor muscle and may be accommodated during a squat by placing a small weight or board under the heels.
27
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted?
28
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?
To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products?
29
Pronation of the foot describes what multi-planar movements?
Pronation of the foot includes eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction.
30
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
During an isometric muscle contraction, muscle tension is created without a change in length and with no visible movement of the joint.
31
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Glucose via glycolysis provides most of the energy for high-intensity exercise.
32
Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
NEAT is the calories burned through activities that are not structured exercise. (House Cleaning)
33
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
The right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs.
34
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. Active forms of vitamins are more efficient.
35
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Absorption occurs in the small and large intestines; however, most of the fluid absorption occurs in the small intestine.
36
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
Normal quiet inspiration uses the diaphragm primarily; whereas, secondary muscles such as scalenes are responsible for heavy breathing, and the abdominals and internal intercostals are responsible for expiration.
37
What best describes an essential amino acid?
An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
38
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Fat is broken down in the mitochondria, so having more mitochondria in the muscle can enable a person to oxidize more fat
39
Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?
Fitness professionals are authorized to provide clients with general nutrition guidelines and direct them to credible nutrition resources for additional information.
40
What are the two components of the central nervous system?
The central nervous system contains the brain and the spinal cord. All the other answer choices are parts of the peripheral nervous system.
41
What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
The heart is composed of cardiac muscle.
42
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Milk is an animal protein and provides all the essential amino acids, so it is considered a complete protein.
43
Sagittal
The sagittal plane is described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides.
44
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Arteries carry blood away from the heart and transition to arterioles (small arteries), which are connected to venules (small veins) by capillaries. From there, via veins, blood is transported back to the heart.
45
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
30?
46
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
2 carbon molecules of pyruvate
47
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
Both dairy and shellfish are considered to be allergens, as are soy, wheat, egg, peanuts, tree nuts, and fish.
48
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
In these situations, it is important to say "no" and refer out when necessary.
49
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
These also make up three of the nine essential amino acids.
50
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
Most of the B vitamins (e.g., B12, folate, niacin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and thiamin) play a role in energy metabolism.
51
What is the definition of energy balance?
Energy balance is defined as a state in which total caloric intake from all sources is matched to the daily energy needs of the body.
When daily food intake is matched to energy needs
52
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception uses information from the mechanoreceptors (i.e., muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors) to provide information about body position, movement, and sensation as it pertains to muscle and joint force.
53
What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the mid-line of the body?
Medial is the anatomical term that describes something that is relatively closer to the mid-line of the body.
54
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Iodine helps form the thyroid hormones. It is often added to table salt.
55
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension?
56
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
As metabolism converts food and stored tissue to ATP, carbon dioxide is formed as the main waste product. The body then exhales that CO2, and the energy once contained in stored body mass is released back into the environment within the CO2's molecular bonds.
57
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?
secretes both insulin and glucagon.
58
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?
The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
The endocrine system consists of host organs, which secrete a hormone that is then transported to a target cell or organ via the bloodstream.
59
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Normal walking and running, the pelvis rotates in the transverse plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase of gait, where leg and thigh are advanced forward.
60
Calcium is of principal importance for what?
The vast majority of calcium in the body is found in our bones.
61
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Once the food in the stomach is thoroughly digested, contractions from the stomach push it through a valve (i.e., the pyloric sphincter) into the duodenum of the small intestine.
Duodenum of the small intestine
62
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
The sinoatrial node is located in the right atrium, where it initiates the electrical signal that causes the heart to beat.
63
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Type II fibers are primarily used for movements requiring both speed and power.
64
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
The nine essential amino acids must be obtained in the diet.
65
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR) is responsible for around 60-75% of total daily energy expenditure.
66
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Troponin
67
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?
According to the American Heart Association, a systolic reading less than 120 and a diastolic less than 80 is considered normal.
68
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?
the physical site where muscle contractions occur.
69
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
the description of bone movement (e.g., flexion and extension).
70
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body and the external environment.
71
A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?
Explain to the client that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss is usually due to loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and this can compromise weight maintenance in the future.
72
Action
People in this stage have been exercising but for less than 6 months.
73
A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?
Reflective listening involves restating what the client has said in order to truly understand what they mean.
74
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
Sport and exercise psychology focuses on aspects such as understanding participants’ motives and barriers to physical activity, ways the environment affects exercise behavior, social influences on exercise, psychological benefits of exercise, and the psychological factors that affect long-term exercise adherence.
75
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Instrumental?
75
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Preparation - may exercise here and there, but they are not consistent.
76
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
This goal is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and timely.
- I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months
77
Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths?
Affirmations are positive statements about a client's character strengths.
78
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?
Maintenance -
These individuals generally have the highest self-efficacy, as they have been engaging in the behavior for over 6 months.
79
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk is when a client argues for the status quo.
80
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?
Centered around rewards and recognition. It relies on looking forward to something if a specific behavior is achieved.
81
Social support is best described by which statement?
Social support refers to the intentional actions taken by people to assist others in achieving a specific behavior.
82
What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
People move from pre-contemplation to contemplation to preparation to action and then to maintenance.
83
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing?
Implementation intentions link goal-directed behaviors with good opportunities to act.
84
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
85
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
86
The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following?
Motivation refers to the intensity and direction of someone’s effort.
87
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
This question may lead the person to defend the status quo.
What don't you want to change?
88
A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?
Comradery is about forming connections with people, which can be done through an exercise group
Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
89
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?
This person has done some aerobic training here and there, but not consistently, and they are ready to change.
Preparation
90
A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?
This person does not do any aerobic training and is not ready to do so; therefore, they are in the pre-contemplation stage.
91
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-efficacy refers to confidence to perform a given behavior.
92
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
The purpose of motivational interviewing is to help clients resolve ambivalence.
93
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Certified personal trainer
94
Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Providing someone with workout bands is a tangible way to support their exercise behavior, and it is considered an example of instrumental support.
95
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Coping planning?
96
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?
One of the most important things about psychology and its relationship with fitness and wellness is the role it plays in the behavioral change process.
97
Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?
Not having someone to exercise with is an example of lacking social support.
98
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Being a part of a social group
99
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
If family members are not supportive of exercise behavior, it can become a significant barrier.
100
A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?
Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia
101
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
Stopping?
102
Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?
Lack of time is often cited as a top barrier to exercise.
103
A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?
Self monitoring - This is a technique used to help a client record specific behaviors, which helps enhance adherence.
104
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?
People in this stage are getting prepared to exercise and may even be doing so sporadically.
105
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Intrinsic motivation is characterized by enjoyment and fun.
106
Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?
A psychologist or psychiatrist is qualified to counsel individuals diagnosed with depression.
107
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Precontemplation refers to not planning to exercise within the next 6 months.
108
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
What makes you think you are not at risk?
109
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
If goals are not realistic, then they should be adjusted.
110
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?
Living farther from a fitness facility can make exercise less convenient.
111
Which of the following describes attitude?
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
112
Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?
Someone with social physique anxiety has anxiety about their physical appearance or is insecure about how they look to others or how they believe others perceive their body.
When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
113
Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?
Parents
114
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?
Leader's qualities
These are qualities of the leader. The leader should offer a great example in how to lead a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable.
115
Empathy is best described as?
Empathy is defined as the ability to identify with another person’s feelings, attitudes, or thoughts.
116
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question?
An open-ended question allows a client to give more information.
117
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
Situational factors dictate if the approach to leadership should be adjusted.
118
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Informal roles may include inspiring the group, providing mentorship to new members, or planning social gatherings.
119
What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?
Technique imagery involves focusing on form.
120
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Most psychological benefits are realized with moderate-intensity exercise.
121
Mortality
A state or a risk of death or dying
122
Morbidity
The state of having a disease
123
HIIT High-intensity interval training
An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.
124
De-conditioned
A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.
125
Health risk assessment (HRA)
A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature.
126
Contraindication
A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.
127
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.
128
False-positive screenings
A screening where the results of the health risk assessment might indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is in fact not needed.
129
Health history questionnaire (HHQ)
A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle.
130
Exercise habits
length of time (i.e., history), the nature or type, frequency, duration, and intensity
131
Injury types & what it means
Ankle sprains. These have been shown to decrease muscle activation of the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles. In turn, this can lead to poor control of the lower extremities during many functional activities, which can eventually lead to injury (Bullock-Saxton, 1994; Friel et al., 2006).
Knee injuries involving ligaments. A knee injury can cause a decrease in activation to muscles that stabilize the patella (kneecap) and lead to further injury. Noncontact knee injuries are often the result of ankle or hip dysfunction because the knee is caught between the ankle and the hip. If the ankle or hip joint begins to function improperly, this results in altered movement and force distribution of the knee. Over time, this can lead to further injury (Fong et al., 2011; Shultz et al., 2015).
Low-back injuries. These injuries can cause decreased activation to stabilizing muscles of the core, resulting in poor stabilization of the spine. This can further lead to dysfunction and pain (Hides et al., 2011; Stuber et al., 2014).
Shoulder injuries. These injuries cause altered muscle activation of the rotator cuff muscles, which can lead to instability of the shoulder joint during functional activities (Gombera & Sekiya, 2014; Yanagawa et al., 2008).
Other injuries. Additional injuries can include (but are not limited to) repetitive hamstring strains, groin strains, patellar tendonitis (jumper’s knee), plantar fasciitis (pain in the heel and bottom of the foot), shin splints, biceps tendonitis (shoulder pain), and headaches.
132
Which screening tool is used to evaluate the benefits and risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?
Health Risk Assessment
133
Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process?
Desired exercise intensity
134
Resting heart rate (RHR)
The number of heart beats per minute while at complete rest.
135
Thermoregulation
The physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body
136
Peripheral Vasodilation
The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
137
TRUE OR FALSE? Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).
False
138
What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?
Thermo-regulation
139
Heart Rate (HR)
The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute).
140
Blood Pressure (BP)
The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls; reported as systolic/diastolic.
141
Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.
142
Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.
143
Arterial system
The system of arteries carrying blood away from the heart.
144
Brachial artery
The primary artery of the upper arm, which is often used as a site for measuring blood pressure.
145
Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting
146
Diastolic blood pressure
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats
147
Blood pressure
The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls
148
Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?
The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.
149
Anthropometry
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.
150
Body Mass Index (BMI)
The measurement of a person’s weight relative to his or her height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity.
151
Circumference measurement
The measurement that determines the overall dimension (girth) of a body segment, which can be used to estimate body composition or the prevalence of obesity.
152
BMI measurements
Metric formula: BMI = weight (kg) ÷ [height (m)]2
Imperial formula: BMI = 703 × weight (lb) ÷ [height (in.)]2
153
Calculating BMI score example
Calculate Mary’s BMI score using either formula if she currently weighs 160 lb (72.57 kg) and stands 5 ft 7 in. or 67 in. (1.70 m).
Answer: BMI = 25.1
The lowest risk for disease lies within a BMI range of 22 to 24.9
154
BMI classification
<18.5
Increased
Underweight
18.5–24.9
Low
Healthy weight
25.0–29.9
Increased
Overweight
30.0–34.9
High
Obese
35.0–39.9
Very high
Obesity II
≥40.0
Extremely high
Obesity III
155
Waist circumference
A measurement that represents the narrowest circumference taken around the mid-line of the body at the approximate height of the umbilicus (belly button).
156
Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR)
The relative score expressing the ratio of the waist circumference to the hip circumference, which correlates to the risk for developing cardiovascular disease.
157
Gluteal fold
The area where the fold of the buttocks joins the back of the thigh.
158
Circumference measurement sites
Site
Description of Location
Image
Neck
Measure just below the larynx (across the Adam’s apple for men).
159
Chest
Chest
Measure across the fullest part of chest.
160
waist
Measure at the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hipbones. If there is no apparent narrowing of the waist, measure at the navel.
161
Hips
With feet together, measure circumference at the widest portion of the buttocks.
162
Hips
With feet together, measure circumference at the widest portion of the buttocks.
163
Thigh
While standing, legs 10 cm (4 in.) apart, measure the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold.
164
Calves
Measure the calf at its fullest part, taken between the ankle and the knee.
165
Arm
Measure the upper arm at its fullest part, taken at midpoint between the shoulder and elbow.
166
Skinfold measurements
A technique used to estimate body fat in which calipers are used to pinch the skin in certain areas of the body.
167
Jackson + Pollock 7-site protocol
Measures the thickness of skin-folds at seven different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
168
Jackson + Pollock 3-site protocol
Measures the thickness of skinfolds at three different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
169
Four-site Durnin - Womersley protocol
Measures the thickness of skinfolds at four different places (biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac) within the body to estimate body fat percentage.
170
Bioelectrical Impedance analysis
A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.
171
Archimedes' principle
The assumption stating that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.
172
What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion?
Anthropometry
173
Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height?
Body mass index BMI
174
Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?
Archimedes' principle
175
Cardio-respiratory fitness
The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to provide the body with oxygen during activity.
176
Cardio-respiratory assessments
Protocols intended to measure the aerobic fitness of an individual.
177
Mitochondria
The part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouse of the cell.
178
YMCA 3-minute step test
An aerobic test that measures the cardiovascular fitness of an individual based on a 3-minute bout of stair-stepping at a specific cadence.
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Recovery heart rate (RHR)
The number of heartbeats measured after exercise ceases, which provides some indication of an individual’s fitness level (i.e., more conditioned people recover more rapidly).
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It reflects the body’s ability to deliver oxygen to the exercising muscles and use it in mitochondria to manufacture energy aerobically.
A higher VO2max score reflects greater oxygen utilization and a greater capacity for physical work.
VO2max usually peaks at around ages 25 years to the early 30s, but it is highly trainable,implying that an active person in their 40s could have a higher VO2max than during their sedentary 20s.
VO2max decreases by approximately 5% per decade in fit individuals (an average of 0.5% per year) and around 10% per decade in unfit individuals (an average of 1.0% per year) (Kenney et al., 2015).
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YMCA 3-minute step test
a cardio-respiratory assessment that assesses the aerobic fitness of de-conditioned clients by having them complete 3 minutes of continuous stepping on and off a 12-in. (30-cm) box
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3-mintue step test Instructions
Briefly discuss the protocol, answer all questions satisfactorily, and allow adequate warm-up, stretching, and recovery prior to conducting the test.
Ensure that proper athletic footwear is worn for the test.
Terminate the test if the individual experiences any symptoms of light-headedness, dizziness, chest pain, or excessive shortness of breath.
The client will perform 96 steps per minute. Fitness professionals can demonstrate proper step cadence by setting a metronome to 96 “clicks” per minute and allow practice trials. If the fitness professional does not have access to a metronome, they can state out loud, “up, up, down, down” to help keep the correct cadence.
Begin the 3-minute test and maintain cadence throughout the test.
After completing the test, the individual sits while the fitness professional quickly palpates the radial pulse (within 5 seconds) and measures the number of heartbeats over the ensuing 60 seconds.
Count starts at zero.
The individual should lightly paddle feet to maintain circulation.
Allow for a proper cool-down following data collection.
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Test interpretation
Once the 60-second HR count is collected, the individual’s fitness level can be categorized
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Rockport walk test
An aerobic test for de-conditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile.
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1.5 mile (2.4 km) - run test
An aerobic test that measures cardio-respiratory endurance by having the participant cover the distance of 1.5 miles in as short a time as possible.
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Talk test
An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.
an informal cardio-respiratory assessment used to gauge the intensity of the activity based on the client’s own unique metabolic markers and ability to hold a conversation.
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Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.
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Steady-state (SS) - heart rate
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed (i.e., the heart rate response matches the level of work being performed).
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Ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)
The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity.
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Anaerobic energy - systems
Energy systems used to perform work in which glycogen is converted to glucose and oxygen is insufficient to break down pyruvate and create adenosine triphosphate.
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VT2
This measurement (VT2) is a critical measurement of athletic performance, because the intensity immediately below this level represents the exercise pace that an endurance athlete can sustain throughout their race or training to attain their best performance.
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VT2 Test
As an example, Amy starts her test at 8.5 mph, then adjusts it to 8.8 mph within the first 3 minutes and sustains this pace for the remainder of the run. Her heart rate responses are as follows:
Minute 16: HR = 176 bpm
Minute 17: HR = 178 bpm
Minute 18: HR = 177 bpm
Minute 19: HR = 179 bpm
Minute 20: HR = 179 bpm
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What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
VO2max
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Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?
Mitochondrion
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What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?
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What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
The brachial artery is the standard site of measurement, given its ease of access and ability to hold the arm level with the position of the heart, which increases the accuracy of measurement.
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The PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process reflects what three health indicators?
The PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process uncover whether a client is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity
An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
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Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Environmental temperature is not a factor that would need to be considered during the VT1 test.
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How can systolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
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What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Reliability
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When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Flexibility is frequently assessed following a light cardio warm-up because at this time the body displays greater tissue extensibility.
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What principle is hydro-static underwater weighing based upon?
Archimedes’ principle is a physical law of buoyancy. It is the assumption that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.
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Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity refers to the degree that tests specifically measure what they are intended to measure. For example, the sit-and-reach test, which is often limited by tight hamstrings and calves, would not be a valid test to assess overall body flexibility.
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What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Bio-electrical impedance analysis (BIA)
BIA, or bio-electrical impedance analysis, is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.
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Static posture
The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless.
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Dynamic posture
Alignment of the body while in motion.
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Optimal movement
Moving in a bio-mechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes risk of injury.
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Movement impairments
Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitation.
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Movement assessment
An assessment of a client’s movement patterns and postural alignment during movement or activity; also known as a dynamic postural assessment.
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Muscle imbalance
When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.
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Mobility
Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.
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Performance assessment
Assessments used to measure overall strength, muscular endurance, power, and agility.
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Pes planus
Collapsed arch of the foot; also known as flat feet.
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Overactive
When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.
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Underactive
When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuro-muscular recruitment.
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Optimal movement
Moving in a bio-mechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes injury risk
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Dynamic posture
The alignment of the body while in motion
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Movement impairments
Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitations
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Static posture
The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless
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Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?
Muscle imbalance
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Static postural assessment
An assessment that provides insight to deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture.
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Anterior
On the front of the body.
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Anterior
On the front of the body.
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Posterior
On the back of the body
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Kinetic chain checkpoints
The five areas of the body that are monitored during movement assessments and exercise: foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head.
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Anterior pelvic tilt
An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.
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Knee valgus
Knees collapse inward (knock knees) due to hip adduction and internal rotation; also known as medial knee displacement and genu valgum.
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Knee varus
Knees bow outward (bowlegged); also known as genu varum.
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Pes planus distortion syndrome
Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips.
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Lower crossed syndrome
Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.
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Lordotic/Lordosis
The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine
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Upper crossed syndrome
Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted (rounded) shoulders
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Potential overactive muscles
Pectoralis major and minor (chest muscles), Levator scapula and sternocleidomastoid (neck muscles), Upper trapezius
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Potential under active muscles
Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids (mid-back muscles), Deep cervical flexors (muscle deep within the neck)
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Knee valgus
Knees collapse inward
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Knee varus
Knees bow outward
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Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips
Pes planus distortion syndrome
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Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lumbar lordosis
Lower crossed syndrome
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Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?
Static postural assessment
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Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA)
A movement assessment designed to assess dynamic posture, core stability, and neuro-muscular control of the whole body during a squatting motion.
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OHSA Starting Position
The client stands on a flat, stable surface with the feet shoulder-width apart and pointing straight ahead.
The foot and ankle complex should be in a neutral position.
Ideally, the assessment should be performed with the shoes off to better view the client’s foot and ankle complex.
The client should raise their arms completely overhead with elbows fully extended.
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Single leg squat assessment
A movement assessment that assesses dynamic posture, lower-extremity strength, balance, and overall coordination in a single-limb stance.
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Single-leg squat starting position
The client stands on a flat, stable surface, hands on the hips, and eyes focused forward.
The client lifts one foot approximately 6 in. off the floor. The stance foot, ankle and knee, and the LPHC should be in a neutral position and pointed straight ahead.
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Single-leg squat movement
The client squats as deep as possible (while maintaining balance) and returns to the starting position. The depth of the single-leg squat will be client dependent and will likely vary across populations. The client performs up to five repetitions before switching sides.
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Pushing Assessment
An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pushing movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances.
The fitness professional should instruct the client to push the handles away from their body and return to the starting position.
The client should use a slow repetition tempo.
The client should perform five repetitions in a split stance, switch legs, and then perform five additional repetitions.
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Pulling Assessment
An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pulling movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances.
The client should pull the handle toward their body and return to the starting position.
The client should use a slow repetition tempo.
The client should perform five repetitions in a split stance, switch legs, then perform five additional repetitions.
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What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?
Overhead squat assessment
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MATCH each movement impairment with the OSHA view used to assess it.
Lateral view
Excessive forward lean of the torso
Anterior view
Feet externally rotating (turning out)
Anterior view
Knee valgus
Lateral view
Arms falling forward
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Push-Up Test
A performance assessment that measures muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement.
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Bench press strength assessment
A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the bench press exercise.
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Squat strength assessment
A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the squat exercise.
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Vertical jump assessment
A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump height and lower extremity power.
The client should jump and touch the highest possible vane. No stepping, of any kind, is allowed prior to the jump.
The height difference between the standing reach and jumping height is calculated. Red vanes are spaced 6 inches apart, blue vanes 1 inch apart, and white vanes are spaced every 0.5 inches.
The client should take a 2-minute rest.
A second attempt should be provided. If the client increases their jump height on the second attempt, a third attempt is awarded.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.
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Long jump assessment
A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump distance and lower extremity power.
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40-yard dash assessment
A performance assessment designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal speed.
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Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
A performance assessment designed to test lateral speed and agility.
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Pro shuttle (5-10-5) assessment
A performance assessment designed to test lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control.
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40-yard dash assessment position
Two cones are spaced 40 yards (36.6 meters) apart or use an American football field with clearly indicated yard lines.
The client should stand in a ready position behind cone one.
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40-yard dash assessment movement
The client should sprint as quickly as possible to the 40-yard marker.
The timer should start at the first movement and end when the client hits the 40-yard mark.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.
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Pro shuttle test movement
The client should sprint as quickly as possible in the following pattern:
Cone one to cone two
Cone two to cone three
Cone three to cone one
The timer should start at the first movement and end when the client passes the middle cone at the end of the sprint pattern.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress shuttle test movement
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What does the push-up test measure?
Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement
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Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?
Squat strength assessment
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Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
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Sequencing ALL assessments
Participation health screening / physiological assessments / body composition (anthropometric assessments), postural + movement assessments / cardio assessments / performance assessments
cardio (aerobic/VT1 and anaerobic/VT2) tests and performance assessments can be administered
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Reassessment
It provides positive encouragement to clients and serves as a helpful reminder for them to continue working hard toward the goals they have set.
It helps clients realize how the exercise programming provided by their Certified Personal Trainer is making a difference in their fitness level, which helps foster adherence to the exercise program.
It provides an opportunity for fitness professionals to refine or progress exercises as their clients’ abilities improve.
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Prone
Lying facedown
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Supine
Lying face-up
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Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?
Static postural and overhead squat assessments
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TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.
True
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Chap 12 Highlights
Static posture is typically assessed in standing position and is used to identify the three postural distortions: pes planus distortion syndrome, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome.
Pes planus distortion syndrome is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips.
Lower crossed syndrome is characterized by an anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.
Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.
The OHSA is the first movement assessment performed for clients and serves as the basis for all other movement assessments. It evaluates dynamic posture, core stability, and neuromuscular control of the whole body during a squatting motion.
During the OHSA, note all movement impairments to identify potential muscle imbalances. From the anterior view, look for feet turning out or knees caving in. From the lateral view, look for low-back arching, excessive forward lean of the torso, or arms falling forward.
The single-leg squat assessment should be used by clients who have performed well in the OHSA, or if the fitness professional is considering single-leg exercises in their programming. This test is a good assessment of an individual’s ability to balance, which is an important functional consideration for activities of daily living and exercise programming.
Pushing and pulling assessments evaluate function of the upper extremity and concurrent core stability. They can be used as an intake assessment or an integrated part of the actual programming.
When performing pushing or pulling assessments, look for the following movement impairments: low-back arching, shoulders elevating, or head jutting forward.
Performance assessments can be used for clients looking to improve athletic performance, and measure maximal strength, power, muscular endurance, and speed and agility.
The push-up test measures muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement.
The bench press and squat strength assessments measure maximal strength capabilities. These tests are advanced assessments for strength-specific goals and may not be suitable for clients with limited experience with resistance training.
The vertical jump and long jump assessments measure lower-body power.
The LEFT is designed to test lateral speed and agility. It is considered an advanced assessment for speed and performance-specific goals.
The 40-yard dash assessment evaluates reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed.
The pro shuttle (5-10-5) test assesses acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control. This test is most appropriate for clients with athletic goals seeking to assess agility and sprinting speed.
All assessments need to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results. Non-fatiguing assessments, such as a preparticipation health screening and physiological and body composition assessments, should be conducted prior to postural, movement, cardio, and performance assessments.
Fitness professionals should always use caution when implementing movement and performance assessments with their clients. Certain populations, such as overweight or obese, youths, older adults, and prenatal clients, may need to modify or avoid certain movement and performance assessments. Some assessments are not applicable because they do not relate to the client’s goals. Other assessments may cause safety concerns.
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Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement?
The single-leg squat is a good assessment of a client's balance.
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Which muscles are typically under-active in association with upper crossed syndrome?
The lower trapezius is typically under-active in association with upper crossed syndrome.
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What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?
Femur parallel to ground?
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What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears characterizes shoulder elevation.
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Which muscles are typically under-active in association with lower crossed syndrome?
The abdominals are one group of muscles that are typically under-active in association with lower crossed syndrome.
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Which muscle would be considered under-active, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
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Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Both the upper trapezius and levator scapula are considered overactive in association with shoulder elevation.
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Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
The 40-yard dash is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed.
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Which muscle would be considered under-active, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
The lower trapezius is considered under-active in association with shoulder elevation.
