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Fun Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Vital Capacity

A

Is the amount of air that can maximally be expired after a maximal inspiration.

Inspiratory Capacity + Expiratory Reserve Volume

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2
Q

Tidal Volume

A

Is the amount of air moved in a normal breath

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3
Q

Reserve volume

A

Is the amount of air left after maximal exhalation

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4
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

A

Is the amount of air left after exhaling a normal breath.

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5
Q

Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

A

Is ERV + RV

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6
Q

What is the predominant cellular source of TNF?

A

Macrophages

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7
Q

Zinc Deficiency

A
  • Failure to thrive
  • skin rash!!!!
  • impaired wound healing
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8
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

Cardiomyopathy, hypothyroidism, neurological changes

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9
Q

Chromium deficiency

A

Hyperglycemia, confusion, peripheral neuropathy

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10
Q

Cooper deficiency

A

Pancytopenia

Myelopathy (neuropathy + ataxia)

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11
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Megaloblastic anemia

Peripheral Neuropathy

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12
Q

Treatment of choice for a low, simple and some mid-rectovaginal fistulas?

A

Endorectal advancement of an anorectal flap technique

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13
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

Anaphylaxis (IgE-mediated) causing mast cell and basophil degranulation.

Remember:

1) C1 esterase deficiency
2) blood transfusion in IgA def pts.

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14
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Cytotoxic-mediated- immunoglobulins attached to a surface Ag with subsequent complement fixation (ie. Hashimoto thyroiditis) or autoantibodies attached to cell surface receptors (ie. Grave’s Disease).

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15
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

A

“Serum-sickness”- circulating Ag-Ab reactions with subsequent complement fixation.

Leads to deposition of immune complexes into vessels, joints, and kidney.

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16
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Cell-mediated immunity

Eg: contact dermatitis like poison ivy

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17
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

A

Decrease coagulation factors (II, VII, IX, X) leading to bruising and hemorrhages.

Associated with:

  • TPN use
  • colonic resection
  • poor PO intake
  • hepatic diseases
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18
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Associated with:

Visual disturbance (night blindness and ocular keratitis)

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19
Q

Vitamin E deficiency

A

Can be seen in prolonged steatorrhea

Sx: neuronal degeneration, neuropathy, spinocerebellar ataxia

20
Q

Vitamin D deficiency

A

Associated with:

Osteomalacia,
pathologic bone fractures,
proximal myopathy

21
Q

Pulsion Esophageal Diverticulum

A

Zenker Diverticulum

Proximal (above cricopharynxgeus muscle) or distal esophagus

False diverticulum (only mucosa and submucosa)

22
Q

Traction Esophageal Diverticulum

A

True diverticulum (all 3 layers)

Occurs mid- esophagus

2/2 inflammatory process in the lymph nodes surrounding esophagus

23
Q

Standard initial treatment for infants with biliary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure (Roux-en-Y hepatic portoenterostomy)

24
Q

Treatment for Stage I, IIa and IIb neuroblastomas with “low risk” classification?

A

Surgery alone

25
Q

Anatomy of inguinal canal

A

Inguinal ligament inferiorly

Conjoint tendon posteriorly

External oblique aponeurosis anteriorly

Combination of external oblique aponeurosis and musculoaponeurotic extensions of internal oblique and transversalis muscle superiorly

26
Q

Lichtenstein Inguinal Hernia Repair

A

Inguinal floor is reconstructed using a synthetic mesh.

The inferior border of the mesh is sewn to the shelving edge of the inguinal ligament
- Be careful going inferior to this shelving edge, may found external iliac vessels

The medial egde is sewn to the conjoint tendon medially and the internal oblique & transversalis fascia superiorly

27
Q

The most common sites of melanoma recurrence are?

A

Skin

Subcutaneous tissues

Distan lymph nodes

28
Q

Phimosis

A

Inability to retract the foreskin past the glans of the penis.

In an emergent setting a dilation or temporizing dorsal slit circumcision can be performed.

Circumcision is the definitive treatment performed on an elective basis.

29
Q

Management of asymptomatic branch duct-IPMN less than 3cm in diameter without radiographic or cytologic findings concerning for cancer

A

Serial cross sectional imaging

30
Q

Management of branch duct-IPMN greater than 3cm, or any symptomatic, or any with radiographic (mural nodules) or cytologic findings concerning for malignancy

A

Needs resection

31
Q

Melanoma seen in sun-exposed elderly patient and associated with slow growth and best overall prognosis?

A

Lentigo malignant melanoma

32
Q

Most commons subtype of malignant melanoma?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma

Initially grows in a radial fashion

33
Q

Melanoma with the worst overall prognosis is?

A

Nodular melanoma

34
Q

What is the MOST common metastatic tumor to the small bowel (via hematogenous spread)?

A

Melanoma

35
Q

What is the largest risk factor for postoperative cardiac complications?

A

Uncompensated or active CHF.

36
Q

Treatment of Stage III rectal CA (any N involvement but M0)

A

Neoadjuvant Chemoradiation -> Surgery -> adjuvant chemotherapy

37
Q

Most common ANAEROBE in the colon?

A

Bacteroides fragilis

38
Q

Most common AEROBIC bacteria in the colon?

A

E. Coli

39
Q

Treatment of Fulminant C. Diff colitis?

A

Total colectomy with end ileostomy

40
Q

0.9% NSS composition

A

Na+ 154

Cl - 154

41
Q

Lactate’s Ringers composition

A 
Na+  130
Cl -   109
K+     4 
Ca     2.7 
Lactate 28 (converted to HCO3-)
42
Q

Plasma Osmolality Formula

A

(2 x Na) + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8)

Normal values are: 280-295

43
Q

Diabetes Insipidis

A

Low ADH -> increase UOP, increase Na, dilute urine (decrease urine specific gravity), increase serum osmolarity

Can occur with ETOH, head injury

If acute Tx: DDAVP
If chronic tx: free water

44
Q

SIADH

A

High ADH -> low UOP, low Na, diluted serum (low osmolarity), concentrated urine

Can occur with head injury

If acute tx: conivaptan, tolvaptan
If chronic tx: fluid restriction & diuresis

45
Q

Treatment of hypercalcemia

A

Normal saline @200-300 cc/hr and Lasix

46
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

Motor (6)- follows commands, localizes pain, withdraws from pain, decorticate, decerebrate, no response

Verbal (5)- oriented, confused, inappropriate words, incomprehensible sounds, no response

Eye Opening (4) - spontaneous, to command, to pain, no response

47
Q

Nerve of Grassi

A

Comes from the RIGHT posterior vagus nerve

If not cut during vagotomy, can cause acid hypersecretion

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