Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fun Facts learned from Kaplan > Fun facts learned from Kaplan > Flashcards

Fun facts learned from Kaplan Flashcards

1
Q

What germ layer do teratomas typically arise from?

A

primitive streak!

*they can contain derivatives of all 3 germ layers ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm so they are thought to derive from the primitive streak*

primitive streak occurs in the 3rd week of development and is a groove in the midline of the caudal half of the epiblast of the 2 layer embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Carpopedal spasms, tetany, muscle and abdominal cramps, and tingling of the lips and hands are symptoms of what disorder?

A

Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia due to hypoparathyroidism hypoparathyroidism

often occurs due to injury of the parathyroid glands during neck surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 3 symptoms of Autism spectrum disorder? What is a common treatment?

A
  • withdrawal from actions with others
  • limited communication (verbal and nonverbal)
  • need for sameness/restrictive repetitive behaviors, interests and activities (RRBs)
  • **often treated with behavioral therapy- especially shaping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is mean systemic filling pressure? MSFP How do we increase it? What is a normal MSFP?

A

point at which the vascular function curve intersects the x-axis (at zero CO)

it is the pressure that exists in all parts of the circulation when the heart has been stopped and pressures have come into equilibrium.

It increases as blood volume increases normal is +7mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the half life equation including Volume of distribution and clearnce?

A

t1/2= (0.7 * Vd)/Clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which arteries in the kidney are often occluded by sickle cell nephropathy and cause renal necrosis?

A

the vasa recta

the glomerulus can be occluded as well but that will lead to glomerular disease instead of renal necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do we best culture Haemophilu influenzae?

A

It requires factors V and X on chocolate agar

so you either need gentle heat to lyse the RBCs, or use staph aureus which is beta hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what 3 features characterize body dysmorphic disorder?

A
  • preoccupation with an unrealistic negative self evaluation of personal appearance or attractiveness
  • preoccupation disrupts day to day life
  • may seek multiple surgeries or other interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans and when is ti seen?

A

a skin condition characterized by dark, thick, velvety skin in body folds and creases

it can be seen in patients with underying cancers, and also in obese and diabetic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WHat is JVP used to estimate? What value is considered normal? What does it suggest?

A

central venous pressure

less than 8 cm H20 is normal!

It suggests right heart failure (most likely due to left heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • The thumb extensors are innervated by the _____ nerve
  • The thenar muscles are innervated by the _____ nerve which allows the thumb to ______
  • adduction of thumb is enable by the _____ muscle which is innervated by the ______ nerve
A
  • thumb extensors are innervated by the radial nerve
  • the thenar muscles are innervted by the median nerve which allows the thumb to opose, flex, and abduct
  • adduction of the thumb is innervated by the adductor pollicis which is innervated by the ulnar nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the key features of aortic insufficiency? 3

A
  • increased pulse presure ( caused by retrograde flow from the aorta to the left ventricle)
  • diastolic murmur best heard at left lower sternal border
  • often occurs due to valvular vegitations produced by bacterial endocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic multisystem disorder associated with what 4 things?

What is a distinguishing factor of rheumatoid arthritis compared to non-immunologic arthritis?

What drug is a good anti-inflammatory agent for RA?

A
  • persistent inflammatory synovitis
  • lymphadenopathy
  • splenomegaly
  • and subcutaneous nodules

Morning stiffness that lasts over an hour is specific for inflammatory arthritis as opposed to non-inflammatory arthritis

Celecoxib (iireversible COX2 inhibitor) is a good antiinflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dos a positive net filtration pressure (calculated according to starling) mean into the capillary or out of the capillary?

A

Positive means out of the capillary and into the interstitium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WHat shoul dyou suspect in a patient who has a red, swollen knee with limited motion days after a joint injury?

A

septic joint!

once started sever infection may develop because cartilage is avasculure so inflammatory cells cant access it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is associated with Polycystic kidney disease?

A

saccular berry aneurysm in th ecircle of illis that may rupture and lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage

associated with cysts in other organs: liver, pancreas, spleen, lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The inflammatory process of syphyllis in the aorta can lead to____

A

obliteration of the vasa vasorum leading to ischemia and atrophy of the aortic media, this leads to wrinkling of the intimal layer and dilation of the aota and of the aortic valve ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Damage to what will lead to retrograde seminal flow and cloudy urine?

A

internal urethral sphincter which is comprised of smooth muscle at the bladder neck which is sympatheticall ycontrolled and contracts during ejactulation to prevent retrograde flow. it also contracts to maintain urinary continence and relaxes during voiding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

WHat causes varicose veins?

A

chronically high venous pressure in the legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What symptoms characterize chuurg strauss syndrome? What does the history usually have? What laboratory studies are usually done?

A

necrotizing vasculitis affecting multiple organ symptoms

history of asthma or allergic rhinitis

labs show eosinophilia and p-ANCA (perinuclear anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common etiology of AAA

What on exam is suggestive and what is diagnostic?

A

atherosclerosis

pulsatile abdominal mass on physical exam

ltrasound or CT is diagnositc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What color would the exudate from a thoracentesis from a bacterial pneumonia be? CHF? Nephrotic syndrome? TB? Lymphoma?

A

bacterial pneumonia- yellow green

CHF- celar yellow resembling serum

Nephrotic syndrome- clear yellow resembling serum

TB- straw colored, lymphocytic predominance

Lymphoma- chylous effusions are exudative effusions with a high lipid content, this they have a milky white appearane and originate from the lymph channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are milky white chylous exudate effusions usually related to?

A

most commonly related to disruption or obstruction by trauma or malignancy (lymphoma, adjacent tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does aminoglycoside resistance occur?

A

enzymatic inactivation of the drug by acetylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do bacteria become resstant to penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

production of B-lactamase; cleavage of B-lactam rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do bacteria become resstant to Chloramphenicol?

A

production of acetyltransferase; inactivation of drug by acetylation

27
Q

How do bacteria become resstant to tetracyclines?

A

Increased efflux out of the cell

28
Q

How do bacteria become resstant to Sulfonamides

A

active export out of the cell and lowered affinity of enzyme

29
Q

How do bacteria become resstant to Vancomycin?

A

ligase produces cell wall pentapeptides that terminate in D-alanine, D-lactate, which will not bind to drug

30
Q

When does LV pressure rise at its most rapid rate?

A

during isovolumetric contraction, a time when intraventricular blood volume remains constant

31
Q

What is genetic imprinting and what are 2 examples?

A

transmission of the trait and gene expression in a sex-specific manner

ex: angelman syndrome and prader willi syndrome

32
Q

What is pleitropy? give an example?

A

a single gene affects numerous, seemingly unrelated phenotypes. ex: albinism is a single gene that affects pigmentation and causes visual problems

33
Q

what pneumonia is associated with a thick, bloody sputum (currant helly sputum) reddish

A

Klebsiella pnemonia

34
Q

What is Dressler Syndrome

A

post MI fibrinous pericarditis 2-0 wks after

other causes of fibrinous pericarditis are uremia bc of renal failure, acute rheumatic fever, systemic lupus, erythematous and viral etiologies

35
Q

How dos exercise influence breathing?

A

it increases oxygen demand and therefore ventilation. increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume. also expiratory air flow rate

so: increases

respiratory rate

tidal volume

expiratory air flow rate

36
Q

Describe the locations of hematopoiesis throughout gestation

A

3rd week= yolk sac

1st month= liver

2-4 month= spleeen and lymph organs

after 4 months= bone marrow

37
Q

What is injected itradermally during the PPD skin test? WHat type of hypersensitivity reaction does this cause?

A

tuberculin which is the outer surface protein

type IV delayed type (T cell mediated)

38
Q

What is actinic keratosis a precurosor for? What is it called when it is on the lip instead of the skin?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

actinic chelitis

39
Q

How does pneumonia cause a V/Q mismatch

A

the lung is inflammaed which increases blood flow, but airflow into the lung is compromised (decrease V, increase Q)

40
Q

Where in te body is Fusobacterium a part of the normal flora?

A

oral cavity

41
Q

What is the treatment for oral candidiasis?

A

Nystatin

42
Q

What organism is the most common cause of secondary pneumonia?

A

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of secondary pneumonia often complicated by abscess or empyema

it is gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase positive

43
Q

What lung cancer is associated with Cushing symdrome?

A

Small cell carcinoma bc it is neuroendocrine and releases ACTH

44
Q

How do we treat whooping cough

A

erythromycin

it is associated w hypoglycemia

MOA is inhibition of Gi so increased cAMP

45
Q

Which cell plays a crucial role in the pathogenesis of ARDS

A

Neutrophils

46
Q

What condtions is Klebsiella pneumonia associated with? How do we treat it?

A

alcoholics, diabetics, COPD

treat with 3rd generation cephalosporins which are cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime

47
Q

What 2 drugs are used to treat Legionella?

A

Fluoroquinolones

Erythromycin (macrolide)

48
Q

What kind of bugs should NOT e treated with Vancomycin?

A

gram negatives!!!!!!!

It is great for MRSA

49
Q

spherical bodies with sharply outlined walls when stained with methenamine silver

what is this?

A

Pneumocystics jirovecii

extraellular parasite

50
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  • antipseudomonal B lactam
    • piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, ceftazidime
  • respiratory floroquinolone
    • levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin
  • aminoglycosides
    • gentamycin, tobramycin
51
Q

Which lung volume cannot be measured on spirometry?

A

FRC

52
Q

What 2 lung diseases have noncaseating granulomas?

A

Berryliosis (pneumoconiosis) and sarcoidosis

53
Q

what is the most common cause of pneumonia is children less than 1?

A

Respiratory syncycial virus

this is in the paramyxovirus family and is negative sense, single stranded RNA that are non-segmented, helical and enveloped

54
Q

How will exposing blood to air change the blood gas readings?

A

higher O2

lower CO2

HIgher pH (more basic)

55
Q

What does aspirin Salicylate acid poisoning do to acid base chemistry?

A

repisratory alkalosis due to direct effects on the respiratory centers sometimes with metabolic acidosis following

56
Q

What do we use to estimate ECF? WHat about plasma?

A

ECF-inulin

plasma-RISA

Interstitial=ECF-Plasma

57
Q

Where is the left recurrent laryngeal nerve located?

A

in the arch of the aorta

arises as the left vagus crosses in front of the arch of the aorta

58
Q

What radiograph findings suggest spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

Radiolucency along the chest wall

59
Q

What does wedge shaped opacity on radiograph suggest?

A

pulmonary embolism

60
Q

What is the equation for clearance? What happens to the renal clearance of a substance if the plasma concentration increases?

A

Clearance= (Urinary concentration * Urine Flow) / Plasma concentration

therefore if the plasma concentration increases the clearance will decrease

61
Q

what is assciated with anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies

A

primary biliary cholangitis- chronic granulomatous inflammation leading to destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts

the patient would be itchy due to increased circulating bile salts

62
Q

what component of hepatocytes does reye syndrome affect?

A

mitochondria

63
Q

what 2 locations of the colon are most susceptible to ischemic damage during ischemic bowel disease

A

splenic flexure and sigmoid colon (watershed)

64
Q
A

Fun Facts learned from Kaplan (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions