Fundamentals Med Physiology Flashcards
(223 cards)
1
Q
The ECF of cells tends to have larger amounts of which two electrolytes?
A
More Sodium and Chloride outside cell
2
Q
The inside of cell tends to have greater amounts of what two electrolytes?
A
More potassium and impermeable anions
3
Q
What anion tends to be both inside and outside the cell in mostly balanced amount with a little greater amount OUTside the cell?
A
HCO‾₃, Bicarbonate is just slightly more on the outside of cell
4
Q
What are the three components of plasma membrane?
A
40% Protein, 50% phospholipids, 10% carbohydrates
5
Q
What are the two types of membrane transport proteins?
A
Channels and transporters
6
Q
What are the two types of membrane transporters?
A
Solute carriers and pumps
7
Q
What are the two types of membrane channels
A
Ion and water channels
8
Q
What is the main difference between channels and transporters?
A
Channels move with a concentration gradient while transporters move against, so transporters require energy for use
9
Q
What is the term for movement across the membrane along the concentration gradient with or without a channel?
A
Passive transport
10
Q
What is the term for passive transport with a channel?
A
Facilitated diffusion
11
Q
Which type of transporter can be either passive or active transport?
A
Solute carrier
12
Q
Describe secondary active transport
A
Movement of molecules indirectly coupled with ATP hydrolysis
13
Q
Describe primary active transport
A
Movement of molecules that occurs at the SAME site of ATP hydrolysis
14
Q
A
15
Q
What do transporters such as solute carriers and pumps generally move across cell membranes?
A
Solutes such as larger nutrients, waste, small molecules and pumping molecules
16
Q
If considering 3 molecules, glycerol, glucose, and sucrose are crossing the lipid bilayer, why can glycerol utilize simple passive diffusion while the others cannot?
A
Because glycerol is a SMALLER molecule. While they are all uncharged which allows them to cross the PM, the other two are too large to pass via simple passive diffusion
17
Q
Name the four types of ion channels
A
Ligand gated
Voltage gated
Leak
Stretch activated
18
Q
Describe ligand-gated ion channel
A
Uses a lock and key type method, binding of ligand opens the channel
19
Q
Describe a leak channel
A
Continuous flow of ions, still down the concentration gradient
20
Q
Describe voltage gated channel:
A
Change in voltage across the membrane changes the electric field such that the internal sensor allows for electrolyte movement
21
Q
Describe stretch activated channels
A
Actual size and shape of pore and gating modified by amount stretched
22
Q
Describe solute carriers as a form of facilitated passive transport
A
The carrier protein allows molecules to flow down the concentration gradient which can be bidirectional based on concentration inside and outside the cell
23
Q
What type of plasma membrane protein may engage in both passive facilitated transport and secondary active transport?
A
Solute carriers
24
Q
Describe a situation using solute carriers as a form of secondary active transport
A
This form of movement is coupled with a primary active transport. For example the transport of glucose
First the primary active transport Na+/K+ transporter moves sodium out of the cell. When the concentration of sodium is high outside the cell, it engages with the Na+/Glucose co-transporter to move glucose back into the cell
25
Describe the movement of molecules using primary active transport of Na+/K+-ATPase
1.) 3 Na+ and 1 ATP bind to carrier protein
2.) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and phosphate as the protein conformation changes moving the Na+ outside of the cell
3.) New conformation binds 2 K+ ions from the outside of the cell
4.) 2 K+ ions move to the inside of the cell and the Phosphate is released inside the cell as well
5.) Conformation of pump reverts to original conformation
26
Which lung has 2 lobes and why?
The L lung to allow space for the heart
27
Describe the "Pump/Leak model" in cell concentration gradients
The pump and leak channels are working simultaneously but independently
28
List the breakdown of body weight for following components:
Water
protein
Mineral
Fat
Water: 60%
Proteins: 18%
Mineral: 7%
Fat: 15%
29
Of the total body water, how much is directed to the Extracellular fluid compared to the intracellular fluid
20% is ECF
40% is ICF
30
About how much of total body weight is plasma volume?
4-5%
31
Of the extracellular fluid, about how much is interstitial fluid and how much is plasma
3/4 is interstitial fluid
1/4 is plasma volume
32
How many liters are in a kilogram
1 L = 1 kg
33
Of total body weight, what percentage is water in the ECF and water in ICF
ECF is 20% of total body weight
ICF is 40% total body weight
34
List 6 common major electrolytes
Na+, K+, Ca+, HCO‾₃, Impermeable anions, Cl-
35
Outside the cell has larger amount of which major electrolytes?
Na+, Cl-, HCO‾₃
36
Inside the cell, what major electrolytes are found in larger quantity compared to outside the cell
K+ and impermeable anions
37
When considering the interstitial space compared to plasma in the ECF, explain the distribution of protein, K+ and Na_
Interstitium and plamsa both have low K+ and high Na+
Protein distribution is 1 g/dl in the interstitium and 7 g/dl in the plasma, so higher protein concentration in plasma
38
When the concentration is meq/l what component does this represent?
Concentration of charged ions
39
When the concentration if mmol/l, what component is this representing?
2 oppositely charged ions associating in solution
40
When concentration is given as mg/100 ml (dl), what component is this representing?
uncharged solutes
41
Concentration of charged ions are given as meq/l. When 2 oppositely charged ions associated in solution they form a molecule and the concentration is given in:
mmol/l
42
Where is the highest concentration of proteins?
A.) intracellular
B.) ECF
C.) interstitial space
D.) plasma
A.) intracellular with 30 mg/dl
43
Explain the electrochemical gradient
By inducing a concentration gradient you can induce an electrical gradient via ion movement
At equilibrium the concentration gradient is equal and opposite the electrical gradient
44
Define Electrochemical Equilibrium Potential
The voltage (potential) that arises at equilibrium when electrical and chemical forces are equal and opposite
45
When the mV is zero between the inside and outside of cell what does that mean?
Means there is now flow of ions from one side to another, no channels allowing passaged through the lipid bilayer to create electric gradient
46
When measuring the cell membrane potiential of a cell, where does the majority of this come from and why?
Most determined by the K+ leak channel because it is an "excellent conductor in the resting cell membrane" that allows leakage of K+ out of the cell. while the Na+ channel is not a good conductor and the NA+/K+ Channel dictates very little, though the Na+/K+ATP-ase directs the large chemical gradients
47
How does metabolic acidosis result in hyperkalemia?
1.) Drop in pH of plasma due to H+ ions moving into the cell due to concentration gradient (H+ protons higher concentration outside cell)
2.) Due to more protons coming in, there is exchange of H+ for 1 K+, silent exchange as the membrane potential is not effected
3.) So excessive K+ is being driven out of cell
48
How can metabolic acidosis be corrected to diminish hyperkalemia
Injecting insulin will active Na+/K+ ATP-ase to drive more K+ into the cell
49
How does Rhabdomyolysis cause cardiac cell electrical imbalance
1.) Skeletal muscle is crushed that contains lots of K+
2.) the crushing pushes K+ outside the cell into plasma
3.) Hyperkalemia causes influx of K+ INTO the cell due to the leak channels being bidirectional
4.) Makes the inside of cell LESS NEGATIVE, aprox -20 mV instead of -90 mV (depolarized)
5.) Less negative can cause cardiac arrhythmia
50
Water soluble hormones would act on receptors found:
Cell surface
51
Lipid soluble hormones would act on receptors found:
Intracellular
52
The inside of a cell has the highest protein concentration. Outside of the cell, where is the higher concentration of protein? Interstitial space or plasma space?
Plasma, with 7 g/dl compared to the interstitium of 1 g/dl
53
What is the barrier between the interstitial and plasma space?
Capillary wall
54
What do we use to measure the volume of a specific body compartment?
Dilution principle
55
Define the 4 basic parameters of the dilution principle:
1.) Exact quantity of known soluble substance
2.) Dissolve in H20 until evenly disperse
3.) Take same
4.) Volume= X/C AKA volume substance added/concentration of solution at equilibrium
56
When using the dilution principle in vivo, what must be accounted for and how does it change the volume calculated?
Must correct for any of the solute that is removed from the body (aka excreted at equilibrium)
Volume=X-quantity excreted/C
57
What is the equation to calculate an unknown volume?
V=g/(g/L) wherein dividing solute by concentration of solution at equilibrium
58
When measuring and calculating unknown volume of plasma, what requirement of the solute must be met?
The solute must be retained in the plasma, not able to move back and forth freely. Like proteins and albumin can't cross the capillary wall into the interstitial space
Use 131-iodine labeled albumin or EVANS but dye that binds to plasma proteins
59
If measuring and calculating entire unknown extracellular fluid volume (interstitial/plasma) , what solute is used and why?
Use Inulin, a sugar foreign to body
Radiolabeled sodium or chloride
Because they move freely between interstitium and plasma space via capillary
60
If measuring and calculating unknown total body water volume, what must the solute be able to do? What 2 solutes are normally used?
Must be able to travel freely in ECF and ICF just like water does
Either use Deuterium oxide (D2O) or Tritiated H2O (heavy/radioactive water)
61
T/F: the unknown volume intracellular fluid volume can be measured directly
False, calculate the unknown volume
Total body water-ECF volume=ICF volume
62
100 ml of Deuterium oxide in isotonic saline was injected intravenously into a normal, lean man weighing 84 kg. After 2 hours equilibration the concentration of D2O in plasma water was 0.2%. The body loss of D2O were averaged to be 4% of the total dose.
What is the total body water as absolute volume and expressed as a percentage of the body weight
1.) Amt added-Amt Lost/FINAL concentration
2.) 100 ml - 4% = 96 ml
3.) Final concentration: 0.2 D2O of total solution, 100 ml H20
0.2/100 ml=Final concentration
4.) 96 ml / (0.2/100 ml) =48000 ml or 48 L
5.) 48 L= 48 kg, 48/84, ~56% total BW
63
The movement of water and small solutes across capillary wall is always ______________. It is determined by 2 pressures: 1.)
2.)
passive
1.) hydrostatic pressure: filtration
2.) oncotic pressure
64
What is the basic concept of hydrostatic pressure
Fluid pressure of the blood that forces/pushes water and solute out of the capillary
Filtration
65
What is the basic concept of osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure///0
Pressure exerted by proteins that pulls water inside the capillary, absorption
66
At the beginning of a capillary, the ______________ pressure is greater than the ______________ pressure. So fluid movement is ____________ of the capillary
Hydrostatic
Osmotic/oncotic
Outside of the capillary, filtration
67
At the end of the end of a capillary, the flow of blood requires a drop in ___________________ pressure so that _____________ is greater here. So fluid movement is ________________ of the capillary
Hydrostatic
Osmotic/oncotic
inside, absorption
68
Why does the hydrostatic pressure fall when going from start of a capillary to end?
As the fluid moves out of the capillary, the concentration of plasma protein becomes higher because water was pulled out
69
When speaking of volume changes, it is referencing the movement of _____________ cellular fluid
Extra
70
Define osmolality
number of free (disassociated) particles in solution
or number of particles per kilogram of water
71
What determines osmolality?
Solutes in the body
72
What is/are the units of osmolarity?
Osm (oz-moles) or mili osm/Kg or L of H2O
1 MW (g) or a non-ionized solute
73
The majority of ECF osmolality is determined by electrolytes (ions) which ___________ to produce a molecule and _____________ in solution
Associate
Dissociate
74
T/F the total osmolality in the ECF and ICF are not equal because there are different amounts of solutes on either side
False, while there may be more than one type of solute in ECF or ICF, the total osmolality is about equal because water is allowed to move freely to balance
75
What drives the movement of water in ECF between insterstitial space and plasma space?
What drive the movement of water between the cell wall, ICF to ECF?
1.) Hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure
2.) Osmotic gradients
76
Water ALWAYS moves from areas of:
Low to high SOLUTE concentration
77
Why would NaCl solution generate a movement of 0 sustained osmotic effect?
Because, without active transport, NaCl cannot cross the cell membrane
If NaCl is not moving, the water that maintains osmolality does not move, so water inside the cell does not change either to balance osmolality
78
Describe the movement of glucose solution relative to osmotic movement.
The glucose enters the cell, which pulls in water
As the glucose is metabolized, the concentration of water inside the cell is higher and moves out of the cell because the intracellular osmolality is decreased, equivalent to infusing pure water
79
Describe the movement of urea in solution and water movement across a cell
Urea is permeable, though not actively taken up by cells
Urea flows diffuses slowly the concentration gradient, from high (ECF) into low (ICF) which pulls H2O too
Since this is a slow process, the urea diffuses at the same rate as water so osmolality does not change but volume goes up inside the cell
80
Why is hyperkalemia dangerous?
First, the inside of cell is negative due to constant outflow of K+ from the cell via concentration gradient
If there is too high K+ outside the cell, the membrane potential is disrupted and the cell becomes more positive
The cell becoming more positive is essentially inducing depolarization which allows action potential of muscle and nerve cells which causes spasm
81
All movement across the capillary wall is ____________ and driven by:
Passive
Hydrostatic pressure and oncotic/osmotic pressure
82
Hormones with receptors on cell SURFACE, elicit what type of response?
Rapid response/effects
i.e. enzyme phosphorylation, channel activation
AND/OR
Slow (genomic) signaling for gene transcription or translation
83
Generally, hormones that bind INSIDE the cell (lipid soluble) will elicit what type of effect?
Slow (genomic) signaling
84
T/F: Few lipid soluble hormones may elicit rapid signaling, i.e. steroids that bind to proteins on the membrane-fast signaling
T
85
What is another name for cell surface receptors?
Plasma membrane
86
What is another name(s) for intracellular receptors?
Cytosolic and nuclear receptors
87
List the 3 major categories of cell surface receptors:
1.) G protein coupled receptors
2.) Ionotropic receptors
3.) Catalytic receptors
88
List the 3 types of intracellular receptors
1.) Steroid hormone receptors
2.) Thyroid hormone receptors
3.) Vitamin D metabolite receptors
89
What is another name for seven transmembrane domain receptors (7TM)
G protein coupled receptors
90
What usually binds to cell surface receptors?
Proteins, enzymes, peptides, amino acids, small molecules i.e. amines
91
On GPCR receptors, where is the N terminus located? Where is the C terminus located?
N terminus is extracellular
C terminus is intracellular
92
What binds to 7TM receptors at 5,6 cytoplasmic loop?
This is where the G proteins bind, hence the name
93
Why is the GPCR also names 7TM receptor?
It is become known the C terminus of this receptor can bind intracellular proteins to elicit intracellular effects such that a receptor site exists in the 7th region
94
List 4 receptor categories comprising G protein coupled receptors
1.) Adrenergic receptors
2.) Muscarinic receptors
3.) Peptide/Glycoprotein receptors
4.) Calcium receptors
95
What are 6 types of hormones that may bind to Peptide/Glycoprotein receptors
Vasopressin, PTH, angiotensin II, Somatostatin, TSH, FSH
96
What are the 2 subtypes of Vasopressin receptors. What type of receptor are they on a less specific scale
1. V1 & V2 receptors
2.) G protein coupled receptors which are plasma receptors
97
List 4 subtypes of Adrenergic receptors
α1, α2, β1, β2
98
Although each hormone has it's own corresponding specific receptor, structural similarities may allow some receptors to bind other hormones. Such as
1.)
2.)
1.) Mineralocorticoid receptors may bind glucocorticoid hormones
2.) α-adrenergic receptors prefer to bind norepinephrine but can bind epinephrine and vice versa as β-adrenergic receptors prefer to bind Epinephrine will bind norepinephrine
99
What is another name for ionotropic receptors and describe their mechanism of action
AKA Ligand-gated ion channel
Membrane spanning units wherein a ligand binds to extracellular component where the channel opens to allow cations into the cell
100
Describe the ionotropic receptor, nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
1.) Acetylcholine is released from a nerve cell and acts on paracrine level
2.) ACH binds to nicotinic receptor on adrenal chromaffin cells
3.) Once ACH is bound to nicotinic receptors, Ca+2 is allowed to enter the cell which induces epinephrine secretion
101
List the 5 classes of catalytic receptors
*1.) Receptor guanyl cyclase
2.) Receptor serine/threonine kinases
*3.) Receptor tyrosine kinases
*4.) Tyrosine kinase-associated receptors
5.) Receptor tyrosine phosphatases
102
What type of cell membrane receptors may cause the extracellular domains to dimerize?
Catalytic receptors
103
List the 3 steps of receptor guanylyl cyclase
1.) start with receptor that has 3 domains, one extracellular, one intracellular, one spanning membrane layer
2.) Ligand binds to extracellular domain
3.) 2 receptors dimerize
4.) Intracellular guanylyl cyclase domains are activated
5.) activated guanylyl cyclase converts GTP to cyclic CMP
104
105
Give an example of a catalytic receptor, more specifically a receptor guanylyl cyclase
Atrial natriuretic peptide receptor, ANP
106
Give 2 example of Catalytic receptors, more specifically receptor tyrosine kinases
1.) Nerve growth factor receptor
2.) Insulin receptors
107
How does Nerve growth factor receptor work? What type of receptor is it?
1.) Nerve growth factor binds to its receptor and causes dimerization and activates the intrinsic tyrosine kinase. The tyrosine kinase directs tyrosine phosphorylation of cytosolic proteins
2.) it is a type of receptor tyrosine kinase and thus a catalytic receptor thus a type of Extracellular receptor
108
Describe what happens when insulin binds to its catalytic receptor
1.) The receptor is a tetramer with 2 α & 2 β chains
2.) The insulin binds to the α chain.
3.) Conformational change to receptor, α & β interaction and activation of intrinsic tyrosine kinase
4.) The tyrosine kinase directs tyrosine phosphorylation of cytosolic proteins
109
Give 2 examples of tyrosine kinase-associated receptors
1.) Growth hormone receptor
2.) Interleukin-6 receptor
110
What makes tyrosine kinase-associated receptors different from other catalytic receptors?
The tyrosine kinase-associated receptors do not have an intrinsic internal kinase domain
Thus the tyrosine kinase is ASSOCIATED with the intracellular portion of the receptor
111
Describe a tyrosine kinase associated receptor and what happens when a ligand binds
- Single molecule with extracellular, trans-membrane, and intracellular component WITH slightly different forms (α & β)
1.) Ligand binding to extracellular domain will lead to formation of Homodimers, heterodimers, or heterotetramers which activates the receptor unit
2.) The activated receptor can associate with a cytosolic tyrosine kinase with can phosphorylate various cytosolic proteins
112
Describe the basic action of intracellular receptors
1.) Hormone binding to receptor converts the receptor into a transcription factor
2.) This associates with specific parts of the DNA called hormone response elements
3.) Eliciting gene transcription, either increase or repression
113
List 3 examples of ligands that bind to intracellular receptors
1.) steroid hormones
2.) Thyroid hormone
3.) Vitamin D hormone
114
What is an important feature of intracellular receptors that occurs with DNA binding
The receptors bind to DNA 7as homodimers or heterodimers
OR bind with RxR
115
Where are mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid receptors found?
Intracellular, more specifically cytoplasmicQ
116
Where are Estrogen and progesterone receptors found?
Intracellular, nuclear
117
Where are thyroid receptors found?
Intracellular, bound to DNA in the nucleus
118
What is T3?
Thyroid hormone
119
Where is the thyroid hormone receptors in the unbound state?
The thyroid hormone receptor is bound to DNA and thus acting as a repressor
120
Describe Glucocorticoid receptor in the resting/unbound state. What happens when cortisol enters and binds to the glucocorticoid receptor
In resting state, GR is bound to heat shock protein (hsp 90) in the cytosol
1.) Cortisol enters cell and binds to GR and HSP90 disassociates
2.) Gr+Cortisol complex enters nucleus, binds to DNA and turns on transcription
121
What does parathyroid hormone do?
acts in kidney and bone to increase blood Ca+2 levels
122
What occurs in pseudohypoparathyroidism?
What type of receptor is in action?
The Gαs protein that the PTH receptors normally signals is defective. Thus, hypocalcemia occurs since PTH usually increases Ca+2 levels
Cell membrane receptor, GPCR
123
In nephrogenic diabetes, what is occurring?
What type of receptor is acting?
ADH cannot bind to V2 receptors in the collecting duct and water is not reabsorbed
Cell membrane receptors, G protein coupled receptor
124
One type
125
Describe one cause of hypothyroidism on a receptor level
What type of receptor is involved
Autoantibodies inhibit TSH receptors on thyroid cells.
The TSH cannot stimulate thyroid hormone production and secretion by the thyroid gland, so there are low blood levels of thyroid hormone
G protein coupled receptors
126
What are the 2 main cell types of the CNS?
Neurons & Glial cells
127
How do neurons communicate?
Via action potential and neurotransmitter release
128
What is a tract or pathway in the CNS?
Groups of axons traveling together in the CNS
129
What are the neuronal cell bodies called in the PNS?
Ganglia
130
T/F: In the PNS, glia and neurons are both present within the ganglia
True
131
Define: Afferent
Sensory information
Carries information TOWARDS the CNS
132
Define direction of Efferent neurons:
Neurons carry information from CNS to PNS
From motor & autonomic system
133
134
Efferent neurons control:
Skeletal, cardiac, smooth muscle and organs and glands
135
What is the somatic nervous system?
1/2 parts of the functional nervous system component
Receives sensory information from skeletal muscle and controls skeletal muscles of the body
And monitoring external environment, including taste and pain
136
What is the autonomic nervous system
1/2 parts of functional nervous system
Receives sensory information from glands, vasculature, and internal organs as well as controls these
Regulates breathing, BP, feeding, elimination etc
137
T/F: The Autonomic system is controlled by the CNS while the somatic nervous system is controlled by the PNS
False, both the autonomic and somatic nervous system have CNS and PNS components
138
Name the 5 components of the CNS (6th would be the spinal cord)
All in the brain
1.) Medulla oblongata
2.) Pons
3.) Cerebellum
4.) Midbrain
5.) Diencephalon
7.) Cerebral hemispheres
139
What is does the medulla oblongata do?
Autonomic function
I.e. breathing, blood pressure, digestion
140
Where do the afferent neurons synapse?
In the nucleus of the solitary tract which is in the Medulla oblongata
141
What does the Pons do?
Important in movement
Exchanges information between cerebellum and and cerebral hemispheres
Urinary functioning
142
What does the cerebellum do?
Coordination of movement
Control of posture and balance
143
What does the midbrain do?
Sensory and motor functions, eye movement, coordination of hearing and vision
144
What 3 components comprise the brain stem?
Medulla, pons, midbrain
145
What does the thalamus do?
processing information from the brain/CNS to the cerebral hemispheres
146
What is the diencephalon comprised of?
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
147
What does the hypothalamus do?
Regulate endocrine, autonomic and visceral function
148
What is another name for the subcortical nuclei? Where are they located?
Basal ganglia
In cerebral hemispheres
149
What do the basal ganglia do?
Control movement, posture, complex behavior
150
Patients diagnosed with Parkinson's disease have dysregulation of:
Basal ganglia
151
What does the cerebral cortex do?
Skilled movement, learning, reasoning, memory
Some influence of autonomic function
152
The peripheral nervous system consists of ____________ (bundles of axons) and ganglia ( groups of _______________ ___________ _________ and____________)
nerves
Neuronal cell bodies
Glia
153
Sensory nerves are synonymous to:
Afferent
154
Motor nerves are synonymous to:
Efferent
155
List the 3 divisions of the autonomic nervous system
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
Enteric
156
Describe the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in regard to organ system control
Sympathetic: diffuse control
Parasympathetic: fine control over individual organ system
157
T/F: since the enteric system is considered "the brain of the gut" it is solely under enteric control
False, it may be influenced by parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous control but mainly relies on enteric
158
The ______________ nervous system innervates most visceral organs of the body
Sympathetic
159
Describe the composition of ganglion of the sympathetic nervous system
Cell bodies start in Thoracic or lumbar spine with post ganglion near the spinal cord
Thus in sympathetic nervous system, the preganglia are short and post ganglia are long
160
Why is it true that sympathetic nerve activity to multiple tissues can be increased simultaneously?
Because sympathetic nervous system has diffuse control over nervous system
161
Where do cell bodies of parasympathetic nervous system originate?
Brain and spinal cord
162
Describe the composition of ganglia in the parasympathetic nervous system
Preganglia are very long and project to the target organ
Cell bodies of the post ganglia are adjacent to or within the target organ
Preganglia are long and post ganglia very short
163
How does having post ganglia adjacent or within target organ affect parasympathetic control?
Allows for each tissue to be under separate control
164
T/F: Most organs, glands and smooth muscle are under dual control of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
True
165
Describe a situation wherein the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system act in union rather than antagonisitcally
Male sexual function
Parasympathetic acts for erection
Sympathetic nervous system acts in ejaculation
166
Very little ______________________ innervation exists in blood vessels. Decreases in blood pressure are mediated by ____________________ withdrawl
Parasympathetic
Sympathetic
167
Primary control of blood pressure by the autonomic nervous system is by:
Increases and decreases of sympathetic nervous system
168
What are the predominant neurotransmitters that are released by the postganglions of the sympathetic nervous system
Norepinephrine, to a lesser extent epinephrine
Some but very little release of acetylcholine
169
What is the predominant neurotransmitter released by preganglion to cell body in parasympathetic nervous system? What is the predominant neurotransmitter released by postganglion to effector organ in parasympathetic nervous system?
Pre: Acetylcholine
Post: Acetylcholine
170
What is the predominant neurotransmitter released by preganglion to cell body in sympathetic nervous system? What is the predominant neurotransmitter released by postganglion to effector organ in sympathetic nervous system?
Pre: acetylcholine
Post: norepinephrine and epinephrine
171
What is the special case in the sympathetic nervous system regarding adrenal medulla?
The preganglion releases Acetylcholine to the cell body inside the adrenal medulla. But there is no post ganglion. Rather the adrenal medulla directly releases epinephrine or norepinephrine into the bloodstream where it can travel and exert effects
172
Acetylcholine is released by ALL preganglions in __________________ and ________________________ nervous system. The receptors for Ach are:
Parasympathetic and sympathetic
Nicotinic receptors on post ganglia
173
In the _________________________ system, the postganglionic neurons release ACETYLCHOLINE on __________________ receptors of the target organ
Parasympathetic
Muscarinic receptors
174
In the ____________________ postganglionic neurons usually release NOREPINEPHRINE which acts on either ____or _____ _______________ ___________
Sympathetic
α or β adrenergic
175
Where is the exception to sympathetic postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine to action on muscarinic receptors?
In sweat glands
176
T/F: The somatic nervous system has pre and post ganlion
False, the voluntary motor nerve leaves spinal cord and acts on effector organ with Ach release on nicotinic receptors
177
Acetylcholine either acts on ___________________ or ___________________ receptors while norepinephrine/epinephrine act ion ______________________ receptors
Nicotinic or Muscarinic
β or α Adrenergic receptors
178
List the subtypes of α Adrenergic receptors
List the subtypes of β adrenergic receptors
1a.) α ₁
2a.) α ₂
1b.) β ₁
2b.) β ₂
3b.) β ₃
179
______ receptors are responsible for the contractile effects of norepinephrine/epinephrine (blood vessels, urogenital, sphincters)
α ₁
180
____ receptors are responsible for the stimulatory effects of norepinephrine/epinephrine in heart
β ₁
Can increase HR and contractility
181
____ receptors are responsible for relaxing effects of GI tract, urogenital system, airway, some blood vessels
β ₂
182
What systems control bladder function?
Parasympathetic, sympathetic, somatic system
183
______________ stimulation causes contraction of the bladder wall (detrusor muscle) and relaxation of the relaxation of the internal sphincter
Parasympathetic
184
Which division of the autonomic nervous system allows urination?
Parasympathetic because it contracts the bladder wall and relaxes the internal sphincter
185
______________________ stimulation promotes relaxation of the bladder wall and causes contraction of the internal sphincter to inhibit urinationTh
Sympathetic
186
Why does referred pain occur?
Because visceral tissue and somatic tissues send afferent pain information to synapse on same neurons in spinal cord, when info reaches the brain it cannot determine where the signal originated due to convergence at the spinal cord
187
Define TRANSGENIC MOUSE
DNA is randomly inserted into the genome by injecting the male pronucleus shortly after fertilization
188
Define Knock-in (Knock-out) mouse
Changes introduced into a endogenous gene via homologous recombination with manipulated DNA from the gene
189
Define homologous recombination
A type of genetic recombination in which nucleotide sequences are exchanged between two similar or identical molecules of DNA
190
Why are mice used to model human physiology?
95% of mouse genome is similar to humans
Small and short generation time
Accelerated lifespan, 1 mouse year ~30 human years
Ability to directly manipulate mouse genome
191
What type of genetic manipulation yields a chimeric mouse?
Targeted gene manipulation
192
Knock-in and Knock-out gene manipulation is also known as ______________________ _____________
Targeted manipulation
193
How does transgenesis work?
1.) Collect fertilized egg
2.) Take a gene promotor and gene of interest. Inject DNA into male pronucleus of the fertilized egg
3.) Implant injected embryo into pseudopregnant female who will yield transgenic offspring
194
Why do transgenic mice have some off target effects?
Because the uptake of DNA is random in location and number to transgenes copies so expression of gene is not predictable
195
What is homologous recombination
Nucleotide sequences are exchanged between two similar or identical molecules of DNA
196
List the basic steps of Gene targeting
1.) Targeting vector
2.) Gene targeted to embryonic stem cells through homologous recombination
3.) Targeted cells are selected, expanded, and cryopreserved
4.) Determine if gene was inserted in correct location via PCR sequencing or Southern Blot
5.) Targeted embryonic stem cell injected into early mouse embryo
6.) Chimera offspring
7.) Breeding of chimera
197
What does CRISPR stand for?
Clustered Regularly-Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
198
What is the basis of CRISPR/Cas9 System
Made double strand DNA breaks at precise locations to allow to silence gene or edit in a particular region of DNA
199
What are clustered regularly-interspaced palindromic repeats?
w/in bacteria genome there are a sequence of repeats that are divided by viral genomes
200
T/F: Hypothalamus can directly control preganglionic sympathetic neurons
True
201
All movement across the ________________ ____________ is passive, driven by __________ and _________________ pressures.
capillary wall
hydrostatic and colloid (oncotic) osmotic
202
What would be seen in expression of reporter genes
It allows the visualization of a gene at a specific site with fluorescent dye
203
What is a major drawback to the genetic manipulation of knock in or knock out mice? What is the solution to this problem?
The gene is then turned off or on for the rest of the germ line, all offspring will be knock in or knock out
To circumvent, use conditional gene manipulation
204
What does Cre recombinase do?
Catalyzes site specific recombination of DNA between two loxP sites
205
What is target of Cre recombinase?
The 34 bp sequence LoxP site
206
Describe the organization of a loxP site
Inverted repeat, 8 bp spacer, inverted repeat
207
What are 3 conditions ideal for control mice in Cre/Lox system? Why are the controls important
Mice contain neither loxP allele or Cre
Miice express only Cre-recombinase
Mice expressing only the loxp-flanked gene
- We don't know exactly how the loxP or Cre are impacting physiology, do they impact together or separately?
208
When Cre is "turned on" whenever the promotor of interest is "turned on", leading to deletion of interest early in development. Sometimes the gene being deleted is vital for development. What is one system to circumvent this problem?
Inducible conditional gene targeting, Tamoxifen or Treatracycline-inducible
This uses Cre to remove component that blocks entry into the nucleus
209
When Cre is "turned on" whenever the promotor of interest is "turned on", leading to deletion of interest early in development. Sometimes the gene being deleted is vital for development. What a second system to circumvent this problem?
Using virally-mediated gene transfer of cre-recombinase
Using the virus to direct Cre to the area of interest
210
What is the major difference between transgenic and gene targeting?
Transgenic sends a transgene to a random part of the genome
Gene targeting using homologous recombination to target a gene to a specific area in the genome
211
The body secretes about ______ L of intestinal juices daily. But only ____ mL is secreted by feces. This means:
8 L
100 mL
Most of intestinal juices are reabsorbed
212
What is the flow of filtered waste from the glomerulus to the ureter:
Bowman’s capsule to PCT to loop of Henle to DCT to collecting duct to ureter
213
T/F: the membrane relative permeability to K+ is high
True
214
What ion is primarily responsible for establishing a cell membrane potential?
K+
215
What facilitates the disassociation of GDP from alpha subunit on GPCR?
GEF facilitates exchange of GDP to GTP so alpha subunit can disassociate from beta and gamma subunits and interact with the effector
216
What modulate Adenyl Cyclase in CPCR?
G alpha s and G alpha I
217
Explain an example G alpha s acting as a stimulator for adenyl cyclase
G alpha s binds to adenyl cyclase to activate exchange of ATP for cAMP to activate PKA
218
Explain an example G alpha I acting as an inhibitor for adenyl cyclase
G alpha i does not allow exchange of ATP for cAMP which disallows activation of PKA
219
G alpha s subunits of GPCR proteins may stimulate adenyl cyclase via:
Vasopressin V2-receptor binding which ultimately allows for activation of PKA
220
G alpha i subunits of GPCR proteins may inhibit adenyl cyclase via:
Epinephrine binding to alpha-2- adrenergic receptors which prevents exchange of adenyl cyclase-alpha complex exchanging ATP for cAMP
221
Explain how G alpha Q units of GPCR units activate phospholipase C
G alpha Q binds to phospholipase C that allows PIP2 to activate DAG or increase insP3
222
What does DAG do?
Activates enzyme protein kinase
223
What does InsP3 do?
Signals release of Ca from the ER
