g2 Flashcards
(168 cards)
0
Q
Dusky v. United States case details
A
-Milton Dusky, a 33-year-old man, was charged with assisting in the rape of an underage female and kidnapping. He was clearly suffering from schizophrenia but was found Competent to Stand Trial and received a sentence of 45 years. The petitioner requested that his conviction be reversed on the grounds that he was not competent to stand trial at the time of the proceeding.
1
Q
Dusky v. United States (1960) Competency to Stand Trial
A
United States Supreme Court case in which the Court affirmed a defendant’s right to have a competency evaluation before proceeding to trial.
2
Q
MacCAT-CA - competency to stand trial
A
is a 22-item structured interview for the pretrial assessment of adjudicative competence.
- Uses a vignette format and objectively scored questions to standardize the measurement of three competence-related abilities: understanding, reasoning, and appreciation.
3
Q
M’Naghten’s Case (1843) - sentencing
A
set out that the accused may be adjudged “not guilty by reason of insanity” or “guilty but insane.”
4
Q
M’Naghten’s Case (1843) _ case details
A
Daniel M’Naghten was a Scottish man who assassinated English civil servant Edward Drummond while suffering from paranoid delusions and mistaking him for Prime Minister Robert Peel. Through his trial, he was given his name to the legal test of criminal insanity in England and other common law jurisdictions known as the M’Naghten Rules.
5
Q
Durham v. United States (1954) -sentencing
A
Monte Durham was convicted of housebreaking by the District Court sitting without a jury. The Durham Rule or “product test” was established and states that “an accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect.” Durham was later overturned in the case U.S. v. Brawner with the argument that it places emphasis on “mental disease or defect” and is thus ambiguous.
6
Q
American Law Institute’s Model Penal Code -sentencing
A
a statutory text which was developed by the American Law Institute in 1962.
The purpose of the MPC was to stimulate and assist legislatures in making an effort to update and standardize the penal law of the United States.
Primary responsibility for criminal law lies with the individual states, and such national efforts to work to produce similar laws in different jurisdictions.
The MPC has played an important role in standardizing the codified penal laws of the United States.
7
Q
Insanity Defense Reform Act (1984) -sentencing
A
This was a law passed in the wake of public outrage after John Hinckley, Jr. was acquitted for the Reagan assassination attempt.
*It amended the U.S. federal laws governing defendants with mental diseases or defects to make it significantly more difficult to obtain a verdict of not guilty only by reason of insanity
8
Q
Furman v. Georgia (1972) -sentencing
A
A United States Supreme Court decision that ruled on the requirement for a degree of consistency in the application of the death penalt
9
Q
Furman v. Georgia (1972) -case details
A
- William Henry Furman was found guilty for murder and sentenced to death, but the punishment was never carried out.
- This case led to a de facto moratorium on capital punishment throughout the United States.
10
Q
Woodson v. North Carolina (1976) -sentencing
A
North Carolina enacted legislation that made the death penalty mandatory for all convicted first-degree murderers.
- When James Woodson was found guilty of such an offense, he was automatically sentenced to death.
- Woodson challenged the law, which was upheld by the Supreme Court of North Carolina.
11
Q
Gregg v. Georgia (1976) -sentencing
A
This case reaffirmed the U.S. Supreme Court’s acceptance of the use of the death penalty in the United States, upholding, in particular, the death sentence imposed on Troy Leon Gregg.
12
Q
Gregg v. Georgia (1976) -case details
A
-The Supreme Court set forth the two main features that capital sentencing procedures must employ, and the decision ended the de facto moratorium on the death penalty imposed by the Court in 1972.
13
Q
Lockett v. Ohio (1978) -sentencing
A
As a result, the U.S. Supreme Court held that sentencing authorities must have the discretion to consider at least some mitigating factors, rather than being limited to a specific list of factors.
14
Q
Lockett v. Ohio (1978) -case details
A
-In this case, Sandra Lockett, who had encouraged and driven the getaway car for a robbery that resulted in the murder of a pawnshop owner, was found guilty under the statute and sentenced to death.
15
Q
Thompson v. Oklahoma (1988) -sentencing
A
The first case since the moratorium on capital punishment was lifted in the U.S. in which the Supreme Court overturned the death sentence of a minor on grounds of “cruel and unusual punishment.”
16
Q
Thompson v. Oklahoma (1988) -case details
A
-William Wayne Thompson, a 15-year-old was tried as an adult for the murder of his sister’s husband. He was found guilty and sentenced to death.
17
Q
Stanford v. Kentucky (1989) -sentencing
A
-U.S. Supreme Court case that sanctioned the imposition of the death penalty on offenders who were at least 16 years of age at the time of the crime.
18
Q
Stanford v. Kentucky (1989) -case details
A
Kevin Stanford (17 years and 4 months old at the time of the crime) was convicted of murder, first-degree sodomy, first-degree robbery, and receiving stolen property, and was sentenced to death and 45 years in prison.
19
Q
Atkins v. Virginia (2002) -sentencing
A
Case in which the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that executing mentally retarded individuals violates the Eighth Amendment’s ban on cruel and unusual punishments.
20
Q
Atkins v. Virginia (2002) -case details
A
-In this case, 18-year-old Daryl Atkins was found guilty for robbing and murdering a man at a convenience story. Atkins’s school records and the results of an IQ test confirmed that he had an IQ of 59, but was sentenced to death
21
Q
Roper v. Simmons (2005) -sentencing
A
-A decision in which the Supreme Court held that it is unconstitutional to impose capital punishment for crimes committed while under the age of 18. This decision overruled the Court’s prior ruling upholding such sentences on offenders above or at the age of 16, in Stanford v. Kentucky, overturning statutes in 25 states that had the penalty set lower.
22
Q
Roper v. Simmons (2005) -case details
A
-The case involved Christopher Simmons who, at the age of 17, concocted a plan to commit burglary and murder by breaking and entering, tying up a victim, and tossing the victim off a bridge.
23
Q
Graham v. Florida (2010) -sentencing
A
The Supreme Court decided that juvenile offenders cannot be sentenced to life imprisonment without parole for non-homicide offenses
24
Graham v. Florida (2010) -case details
In this case, Terrance Graham, at the age of 16, was arrested and charged as an adult for armed burglary with assault and battery, as well as attempted armed robbery of a restaurant.
25
Miller v. Alabama (2012) - sentencing
-U.S. Supreme Court case in which the Court held that mandatory sentences of life without the possibility of parole are unconstitutional for juvenile offenders. The ruling extended beyond the Graham v. Florida case, which had ruled juvenile life without parole sentences unconstitutional for crimes excluding murder
26
Jackson v. Hobbs (2012) -sentencing
On June 25, 2012, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that mandatory life-without-parole sentences for all children 17 or younger convicted of homicide are unconstitutional.
27
Jackson v. Hobbs (2012) - case details
-At age 14, Kuntrell Jackson was sentenced to life imprisonment without the possibility of parole for felony-murder when his cousin killed a shop attendant during a robbery. Arkansas law made a life-without-parole sentence mandatory, so neither Jackson’s age nor the fact that he was not the triggerman entered into the sentencing consideration.
28
Frye v. United States (1923)
| Expert Testimony
- is a test to determine the admissibility of scientific testimony.
- The standard comes from a case discussing the admissibility of polygraph test as evidence, and the Court held that expert testimony must be based on scientific methods that are sufficiently established and accepted.
29
Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993)
| Expert Testimony
- The Daubert standard provides a rule of evidence regarding the admissibility of expert witnesses’ testimony during U.S. federal legal proceedings.
- Pursuant to this standard, a party may raise a Daubert motion, which is a special case of motion in limine raised before or during trial to exclude the presentation of unqualified evidence to the jury.
30
Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993) - case details
Jason Daubert and Eric Schuller had been born with serious birth defects. They and their parents sued Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals claiming that the drug Bendectin had caused the birth defects.
31
Kumho Tire Co. v. Carmichael (1999)
| Expert Testimony
-A U.S. Supreme Court case that applied the Daubert standard to expert testimony from non-scientists.
32
Kumho Tire Co. v. Carmichael (1999) -case details
-Patrick Carmichael was driving his minivan when the right rear tire blew out, and one of the passengers in the vehicle died, and others were severely injured. The Carmichaels’ case rested largely on testimony from a tire failure expert.
33
Jenkins v. United States (1962)
| Expert Testimony
Vincent Jenkins was a defendant who mounted an insanity defense, introducing the testimony of psychiatrists and psychologists that he was suffering a mental disease (schizophrenia) at the time of a sexual assault.
The trial court instructed the jury to disregard psychometric evidence on the grounds that psychologists were disqualified from testifying about mental disease because of a lack of medical training. The appeals court for the Second District reversed the trial court ruling, ordering the new trial to include psychological testimony and psychometric findings.
34
Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
| Other Cases
A landmark decision of the U.S. Supreme Court which held that both inculpatory and exculpatory statements made in response to interrogation by a defendant in police custody will be admissible at trial only if the prosecution can show that the defendant was informed of the right to consult with an attorney before and during questioning and of the right against self-incrimination prior to questioning by police, and that the defendant not only understood these rights, but voluntarily waived them.
35
Miranda v. Arizona (1966) - case details
-Ernesto Miranda was arrested based on circumstantial evidence linking him to the kidnapping and rape of a 17 year old girl 10 days earlier. He signed a confession to the rape charge, but was at no time told of his right to counsel, and he was not advised of his right to remain silent or that his statements would be used against him
36
Kent v. United States (1962)
-Court case involving juveniles and their rights. The decision and outcome of the case include the facts that: there must always be a hearing in the matter of waiver of jurisdiction; there must always be assistance of counsel in a hearing of waiver of jurisdiction; and the plaintiff’s counsel must have access to all social records.
37
Kent v. United States (1962) -case details
-In this case the petitioner was arrested at the age of 16 in connection with charges of housebreaking, robbery and rape. The decision to allow him to be tried as an adult in criminal court was central to the case.
38
In re Gault (1967)
Held that juveniles accused of crimes must be afforded the same due process rights as adults such as, timely notification of charges, right to confront witnesses, the right against self-incrimination, and the right to counsel.
39
O’Connor v. Donaldson (1975)
A finding of mental illness alone cannot justify keeping them locked in a hospital. An individual cannot be kept against their will if they are non-dangerous and capable of surviving safely in freedom by themselves or with supporting family.
40
Addington v. Texas (1978)
involuntary commitment of an individual had to be from clear and convincing evidence not just a preponderance of the evidence.
41
Defensiveness
deliberate denial or gross minimization of symptoms in the service of an external goal
42
Irrelevant responding
disengagement from the assessment process typically reflected in inconsistent responding that is unrelated to the specific content
43
Uncooperative
maximum performance was not achieved
44
Dissimulation
inaccurate portrayal of symptoms and associated features with no motive
45
Difference between juvenile and adult court-
1. same rights as adults
2. Juveniles do not have jury trials.
3, Court acts on behalf of the juvenile – sometimes the juvenile doesn’t even present themselves in court.
4. Acts in more of a rehabilitative way.
5. State acts in the best interest of the child.
46
Youth Level of Service /Case Management Inventory (YLS/CMI)-
Analyzes dynamic and static risk factors, identifies general risk and needs of the offender, examines treatment considerations given those specific risk factors for the youth, examines prior and current offenses, family circumstances/parenting, education/employment, peer relations, substance abuse, leisure/recreation, personality/behavior, and attitudes/orientation.
47
Structured Assessment of Violence Risk in Youth (SAVRY)-
24 items for 3 risk domains: historical, social/contextual, and individual/clinical, used for ages 12 to 18, offers information on general and violent recidivism, includes dynamic and protective factors, and useful in intervention planning and progress monitoring.
48
Rapid Risk Assessment for Sexual Offense Recidivism (RRASOR)-
Used to screen offenders into certain risk levels; developed to be used to place sexual offenders in appropriate placement in prison; examines 4 items: prior charges or convictions of sexual offense, age upon release from prison, male victim, and unrelated victims.
49
Structured Anchored Clinical Judgment (SACJ)-
developed to combine clinical expertise with actuarial risk data; clinicians used objective evidence based selection of risk factors combined with their subjective, professional judgment regarding the severity, frequency, and duration; allows for uniqueness toward the individual being assessed.
50
Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG)-
Developed to determine risk of violent recidivism in males who have already committed a violent offense of a sexual or non-sexual nature; Uses objective information on the offender’s offense characteristics as well as current and historical life information; Also incorporates mental health diagnosis as a factor to be considered in final score.
51
Level of Service/Case Management Inventory (LS/CMI)-
Analyzes dynamic and static risk factors, gives a plan and provides therapeutic options to ensure the client goes into the least restrictive setting.
Used for male and female offenders, adolescents over 16, and mentally ill offenders.
52
HCR-20-
Examines history, clinical, and risk management areas; Should be used in settings with high proportion of individuals with a history of violence and mental illness or personality disorder; Attempts to capture past, present, and future. Scored as low, moderate, or high; Needs clinical interpretation – one item can make the offender high risk; Must complete a review of material; It is recommended but not necessary for an interview to occur.
53
Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)-
Determines if the client is malingering and in what ways with psychological symptoms; Determines between invention of symptoms and exaggeration of severity; Assesses those endorsed symptoms rarely seen in MH settings, infrequently occurring together, absurd, or that are obvious signs of mental disorders; Scores into honest responding, indeterminate, probable feigning, and definite feigning.
54
Sources of information to review when conducting a forensic evaluation-
clinical interview, collateral information (family, friends, relatives, coworkers, employers), test data, and records (school, psychiatric, legal).
55
Objective assessment
quantifiable, face valid, no room for adding parts of personality
56
projective assessment
directions can go anywhere, ambiguous
57
Theory behind projective tests-
If you give ambiguous stimuli to a client, they will draw from personal thoughts, feelings, and conflicts to create a response. Important to examine also how a client organizes their responses, which can give you insight into how they organize their internal world and perception of the world.
58
TAT/RATC (Interpretive importance of Card pull)
Measures perception and the meaning placed on that perception; Different cards are meant to pull for different domains (When looking for aggression, aggressive children tend to pull aggressive intent from ambiguous stimuli); For interpretation looking for element (character with attitude, activity, and posture), features (central object in picture), detail (something that blends in and remains implicit), and configuration (relationship between elements and characters); Looking for re-occurrence of themes to understand what is important to the client; Types of themes are called the thematic pull; Also looking for qualities of picture scenes, relationships between characters, cognitive elements, emotional elements, relationship elements, and defenses.
59
Projective assessments in the context of forensic psychology
you cannot use projective tests in a forensic context as they Don’t address legal issues, Might not be accurate for one person, Cannot test psychological functioning at time of the crime, and lack validity, reliability and normative data.
60
Describe the projective hypothesis of the Rorschach-
Used to gain personality information, underlying unconscious structures of personality, due to ambiguous nature of the inkblots it can bring out latent aspects of pathology, and highly resistant to faking because true meaning is unknown to the subject; For valid test, need 14 responses; Average is 20 responses; When querying want to know where is it, what is it, and what makes it look that way.
61
Interpretation of WASI test scores
Similar to WAIS vocab/similarities/block design/matrix reasoning subtests; Yields verbal, performance, and full scale IQs.
62
"Testing the limits" is ordinarily done:
C. After the test has been administered using standardized procedures
63
Testing the limits, a type of dynamic assessment, involves providing an examinee with additional cues or prompts. It is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the test's psychometric integrity
c. after administering the test.
64
As part of an assessment of a child believed to be mentally retarded with deficits in intellectual and adaptive functioning, you would likely administer the SB5 and which of the following:
A. Vineland-II
65
What is the Bender Gestalt a measure of?
Visuo Motor Integration and a screening device for neuropsychological impairment
66
Most interpretations of performance on the Bender-Gestalt are directed toward.
a. screening for brain damage.
67
MMPI-2/MMPI-A Validity Scales and interpretive cut-off’s
A. an invalid profile
68
MMPI
A T score of 65 on an MMPI-2 Scale is considered clinically significant. The F-Scale is used to assess the validity of the entire profile and with a score as high as 100 (which is 5 standard deviations above the mean), the conclusion would be that the test is invalid
69
Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about computerized scoring and interpretation systems for the MMPI-2 and similar tests is that:
D. they should always be used in conjunction with other sources of information
70
What kind of stimuli do structured personality tests present examinees with?
Unambiguous
71
How many clinical scales is the MMPI composed of?
Ten
72
How many validity scales is the MMPI composed of
Five
73
On the MMPI-2, at which T score is a scale considered to be clinically significant?
65 or higher
74
A high score on which validity scale indicates an attempt to represent oneself in a favorable light?
L Scale
75
What does a high score on the L Scale indicate?
That the examinee is attempt to represent themselves in a favorable light
76
What does a low L scale score indicate?
Examinee admits to minor faults and shortcomings, independent, self-reliant
77
What is the Lie Scale where examinees portray themselves in a favorable light?
L Scale
78
A high score on which validity scale suggests deliberate malingering, eccentricity, or response carelessness?
F Scale
79
What does a high score on the F Scale indicate?
deliberate malingering, eccentricity, or response carelessness
80
What does a low score on the F scale indicate?
Faking good
81
What does a high score on the F scale indicate?
Faking bad
82
Which is the defensiveness scale?
K Scale
83
What is K scale?
correction for defensiveness
84
What does a high K indicate?
high K indicates defensiveness, insightlessness, intolerance, dogmatism, and being controlling
85
Which scale assumes that high scores are associated with high education and SES?
K Scale
86
The K Scale of the MMPI-2 is treat as a(n):
a. suppressor variable
87
?
The K Scale is considered to be a "suppressor variable" since scores corrrelate with defensiveness, education level, and SES, which are unrelated to what is measured by the clinical scales
88
What 3 things is the K Scale score considered to correlate with?
defensiveness, education level, and SES
89
What is the cutoff for low scores on the MMPI-2?
T40
90
What are the 10 Clinical Scales of the MMPI-2?
```
Scale 1-Hypochondriasis
Scale 2-Depression
Scale 3-Hysteria
Scale 4-Psychopathic Deviate
Scale 5-Masculinity/Femininity
Scale 6-Paranoia
Scale 7-Psychasthenia
Scale 8-Schizophrenia
Scale 9-Hypomania
Scale 0-Social Introversion
```
91
What MMPI general validity scale profile (on F, K and L) is associated with defensiveness?
high L and K, low F
92
A psychologist administers the MMPI-2 to a 36-year old man who has exhibited a number of neurotic symptoms. The man receives a very low K Scale score. On the basis of this score, the psychologist can tentatively conclude that the man.
b. is very self-critical.
93
You administer the MMPI-2 to several clients. One client, a 27-year old male, obtains a T score of 100 on the F scales. This means that.
d. assuming no scoring errors, you should consider the test results invalid.
94
What are VRIN and TRIN primarily useful for?
Response Consistency
95
What does a positive F-K result indicate?
overreporting
96
What does a negative F-K result indicate?
underreporting
97
What does a TRIN score of 12 indicate?
Invalid protocol
98
What two scales are adolescents typically elevated on in regards to the MMPI due to their level of energy and rebellious acting out?
Scales 4 and 9 (Psychopathic deviant and Hypomania)
99
What is the cutoff for TRIN where the protocol is deemed invalid?
80T
100
Raven Colored Progressive Matrices
Designed for young children ages 5 years and older adults to assess the degree to which children and adults can think clearly, or the level to which their intellectual abilities have deteriorated.
101
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test would be most useful for evaluating:
A. impulse control in a child with ADHD
102
Stroop
The stroop test is a measure of inhibition and can be used to assess impulse control
103
The primary issue in the case of Larry P. v. Riles was:
C. The use of intelligence tests to evaluate African-American children for EMR classes
104
Research on the effects of white examiner on the test performance of African-American children can best be summarized as demonstrating...
Inconsistent results
105
Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the performance of African-American children on standard IQ tests is that...
D. There is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African-American children.
106
Who distinguished between Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence?
Horn and Cattell
107
What did Horn and Cattel find in regard to which type of intelligence is affected by education and cultural experience?
Crystallized Intelligence is the only one affected by education and cultural experience
108
Which type of intelligence is affected by education and cultural experience?
Crystallized
109
At what age does Fluid Intelligence typically begin to decline?
Mid- 20's
110
At what age does Crystallized intelligence continue to increase to?
About 60 years of age
111
Which type of intelligence allows the ability to think logically and solve problems in novel situations, independent of acquired knowledge?
Fluid Intelligence
112
Which type of intelligence is necessary for all problem solving and involves both Inductive and Deductive reasoning?
Fluid Intelligence
113
Which WAIS scale measures Fluid Intelligence?
Performance Scale
114
Which type of intelligence is associated with the ability to use skills, knowledge and experience?
Crystallized Intelligence
115
Which WAIS scale measures Crystallized Intelligence?
Verbal Scale
116
Which WAIS score is a combination of both Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence?
FSIQ
117
Which intelligence declines with age?
Fluid Intelligence
118
Which intelligence is largely resistant to decline with age?
Crystallized Intelligence
119
Which WAIS index measures Crystallized Intelligence?
VCI
120
Which WAIS index measures Fluid Intelligence?
PSI
121
What Index are the WISC-IV subtests Similarities, Vocabulary, and Information attributed to?
Verbal Comprehension
122
What Index are the WISC-IV subtests Block Design, Picture Concepts, and Matrix Reasoning attributed to?
Perceptual Reasoning
123
What Index are the WISC-IV subtests Coding, Symbol Search, and Cancellation attributed to?
Processing Speed
124
What Index are the WISC-IV subtests Digit Span, Letter Number Sequencing, and Arithmetic attributed to?
Working Memory
125
What are the 2 WISC-IV VCI subtests?
Similarties
| Vocabulary
126
What age range is appropriate in adminstering the WISC-IV to?
6 years 0 months to 16 years 11 months
127
Which six cognitive abilities does the WISC-IV measure
```
Fluid Intelligence
Crystallized Intelligence
Visual Processing
Short Term Memory
Processing Speed
Quantitative Knowledge
```
128
What are the 4 index scores of the WISC IV
Verbal Comprehension
Perceptual Reasoning
Working Memory
Processing Speed
129
Which 3 areas are examined in interpretting examinee's performance on a WISC IV?
FSIQ
Index Scores
Subtest Scores
130
Which two areas does the WISC-IV no longer provide IQ scores for?
Performance and Verbal IQ scores
131
On the WISC-IV, each of the following is an example of an index score, except:
B. Perceptual Organization
132
What age range is appropriate for administering the WAIS III?
16-89
133
What subtest is the best single predictor of general intelligence?
Vocabulary
134
Which two verbal subtests of the WAIS III are often used to assess premorbid functioning?
Information and Vocabulary
135
Which two verbal substests of the WAIS III are considered the most accurate and stable measure of general mental ability?
Information and Vocabulary
136
Which performance subtest is most difficult for examinees with hearing impairments?
Picture Arrangement
137
What is the mean and SD of the WAIS II Full Scale, Verbal and Performance IQ scores?
100 and 15
138
What are the 3 WAIS-IV VCI subtests?
Vocabulary
Similarities
Information
139
WAIS III verbal subtest that is considered the most stable and accurate measure of general mental ability. Low scores on this suggest low intelligence, poor education, alternate cultural background or early brian injury. This subtest shows the greatest resistance to mental deterioration, aging and emotional disturbance and is used to estimate premorbid functioning.
Vocabulary
140
On the WAIS this measures general mental ability and long term memory. Poor performance may indicate educational deficits. Alternative cultural background or low intelligence. Significantly poor performance by a person who was one normal suggests psychosis or brains damage. Can be used to assess premorbid functioning since brain deterioration later in life usually has little effect on this subtest.
Information
141
WAIS verbal subtest that evaluates short-term memory, attention, and immediate recall. Poor performance suggests brain damage, mental retardation, anxiety, distractibility, or hearing impairment. Extremely low score relative to other subtest scores may indicate psychosis.
Digit Span
142
WAIS verbal subtest that assesses arithmetic knowledge, problem-solving, memory and concentration. Low scores may indicate mental retardation, brain injury, impaired concentration, transient anxiety or antisocial tendencies.
Arithmetic
143
WAIS verbal subtest that measures social judgment, insight and common sense. Poor performance may indicate impaired judgment, psychosis, early brain damage or other long term dysfunction.
Comprehension
144
WAIS verbal subtest that is a measure of verbal reasoning and abstract and associative thinking. Low score has been linked to long-term deterioration, severe brain dysfunction, schizophrenia and depression.
Similarities
145
WAIS verbal supplementary subtest that measures auditory short-term memory, attention and sequencing ability. Low score may be due to inattention, lack of concentration illiteracy, dyslexia or anxiety. Most sensitive of all the verbal subtests to the effects of aging.
Letter-Number Sequencing
146
What are the 4 Index Scores on the WAIS-IV?
Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI)
Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI)
Working Memory Index (WMI)
Processing Speed Index (PSI)
147
What range is a WAIS score >129?
Very Superior
148
What range is a WAIS score 120-129?
Superior
149
What range is a WAIS score 110-119?
High Average
150
What range is a WAIS score 90-109?
Average
151
What range is a WAIS score 80-89?
Low Average
152
What range is a WAIS score 70-79?
Borderline
153
What range is a WAIS score <70?
Mental Deficiency
154
Environmental contaminants to IQ scores (i.e., substances/elements)-
Poor prenatal care, Malnutrition, Exposure to toxins, and Stressful family experiences
155
Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE) purpose, components
assess for cognitive functioning and cognitive changes over time based on orientation, registration, attention, recall, repetition, complex commands, and language in populations of older and hospitalized people.
156
The MMSE is often administered to which population and to measure what?
older adults and cognitive functioning
157
Trin
Answering questions all true and false
158
Scale f
Client faking bad in the first half of the test
159
Fb
Client faking bad on the second part of the test
160
Fp
Frequency of presentation in clinical setting
161
Fs
Overreporting of somatic symptoms
162
Fbs
Faking bad scale
163
L scale
Faking good scale
164
K scale
Denial/evasiveness or defensiveness
165
Raven test
5 through 11 years old, elderly persons, and mentally and physically impaired persons
166
Raven's Colored Progressive Matrices (CPM
Assesses nonverbal abilities at three levels.
1. measures clear-thinking ability and is designed for young children ages 5:0-11:0 years and older adults.
2. The test consists of 36 items in 3 sets (A, Ab, B), with 12 items per set.
3. CPM can be used to assess the degree to which children and adults can think clearly, or the level to which their intellectual abilities have deteriorated.
167
Stroop
1. was designed to differentiate between individuals who are non-brain damaged and individuals with brain damage.
2. This test remains a standard measure in neuropsychological assessment
3. When the name of a color (e.g., "blue," "green," or "red") is printed in a color not denoted by the name (e.g., the word "red" printed in blue ink instead of red ink),
4. In the first trial, the written color name differs from the color ink it is printed in, and the participant must say the written word.
5. In the second trial, the participant must name the ink color instead.
6. This test is considered to measure selective attention, cognitive flexibility and processing speed, and it is used as a tool in the evaluation of executive functions.
