G280 Limitations Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

MACH TRIM INOPERATIVE SPEED

With Mach trim functions inoperative, the maximum operating limit speed is ______.

A

340 KIAS / 0.77 Mi.

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2
Q

MINIMUM HOLDING SPEED IN ICING CONDITIONS

A

185 KIAS

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3
Q

[EMERGENCY LANDING GEAR EXTENSION]

Do not extend the landing gear utilizing the emergency system at speeds in excess of _____ KIAS.

After landing gear is down and locked, speed can be increased up to _____ KIAS.

A

175 KIAS

195 KIAS

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4
Q

FLAPS EXTENDED:
Maximum operating altitude for extending flaps or flying with flaps extended is _____.

A

20,000 ft MSL

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5
Q

LANDING GEAR EXTENDED / OPERATION

Maximum operating altitude for extending landing gear or flying with landing gear extended is _____.

A

20,000 ft MSL

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6
Q

MINIMUM / MAXIMUM OPERATING TEMPERATURE

The operator shall comply with COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS starting on page IV-87 any time the airplane has been exposed to temperatures colder than _____ on the ground for more than _____. Maximum temperature on ground is _____.

A

-20°C
10 hours
ISA+35°C

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7
Q

[HIGH ELEVATION AIRPORT OPERATIONS]

Maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing is _____ field elevation.

A

10,000 ft (Issue 1)

14,000 ft (Issue 2)

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8
Q

WIND CONDITIONS

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing is ______.

A

10 knots

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9
Q

MINIMUM FLIGHT WEIGHT

A

23,000 lbs

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10
Q

MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

28,200 lbs

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11
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted is _____.

A

9.2 psi

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12
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted for taxi, takeoff or landing is _____.

A

0.2 psi

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13
Q

Post MOD G25-10066
Internal baggage door must be closed during taxi, takeoff and landing. In flight, access to the baggage compartment above _____ is prohibited except by flight crew members for emergency purposes only

A

44,000 ft

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14
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum engage height is _____.

A

200 ft

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15
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum disengage height is _____ for approaches with vertical guidance (ILS and LPV; LNAV when VNAV is used, Post MOD G25-10074 - LP when VNAV is used.)

A

80 ft

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16
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum disengage height is _____ below MDA for approaches with lateral guidance only.

A

50 ft

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17
Q

AUTOPILOT

Maximum demonstrated altitude loss for coupled go-around is _____.

A

61 ft

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18
Q

AUTOPILOT

_____ operation is not approved for single engine operations.

A

CAT II

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19
Q

BATTERY LIMITATIONS

Maximum indicated battery charge current for takeoff:

APU GEN Available:
APU GEN Unavailable:

NOTE: APU Generator available means it is operable, if needed, and not deferred per MEL. The APU does not have to be running to be considered available.

A

20A
8A

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20
Q

If Mach trim is inoperative: MMO is reduced to _____.

A

0.77 Mi

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21
Q

Total usable fuel weight

A

14,620 lb

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22
Q

Total usable fuel weight when gravity refueling is _____.

Note: Gravity refueling only fills the wing and feed tanks and can take a significantly longer time.

A

9,760 lb

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23
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind component for takeoff and landing is _____.

A

25 knots

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24
Q

FUEL LOAD IMBALANCE

Takeoff =

Inflight, approach and landing =

A

450 lbs

900 lbs

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25
FUEL TANK TEMPS JET A: minimum = maximum = JET A-1 & JP 8 minimum = maximum =
JET A: minimum = -38C maximum = 57C JET A-1 & JP 8 minimum = -46C maximum = 57C
26
PRIMARY FUEL TYPES
Jet A Jet A-1 JP 8 JP 5 For additional authorized fuel types, see AFM.
27
Fuel pressure should not exceed _____ from ground refueling carrier. Failure to comply may result in damage to equipment.
50 PSI
28
ENGINE GROUND START Maximum crosswind component for engine start = Maximum tailwind component for engine start =
20 kt 15 kt
29
Maximum ITT During Start: • N2 or at or below 40% = • N2 above 40% =
650°C 950°C
30
DO NOT EXCEED STARTER DUTY CYCLE: • _____ consecutive start/crank cycles, followed by cooling period of _____ min prior to additional starts and motoring. • Engine motoring for a maximum of _____ min, followed by cooling period of _____ min prior to additional starts and motoring.
Three…15 minutes 5 minutes…15 minutes
31
Engine Ground Operations • N1 is limited to _____% if tailwind component is more than 15 kt.
50%
32
Takeoff thrust is limited to _____ minutes with all engines operating (AEO). APR is limited to _____ minutes with an inoperative engine (OEI).
5 minutes 10 minutes
33
Minimum fuel temperature at the fuel filter is _____.
3°C
34
Abort engine start if light-off does not occur within _____ of start initiation.
30 seconds
35
Cancellation of reverse thrust should be initiated so as to be at the reverse idle position by _____. Use of thrust reverser(s) for power back is not approved.
40 KIAS
36
Abort engine start if no positive indication of oil pressure by _____.
30% N2
37
Oil Inlet Temperature • Before engine start:
– 40°C minimum
38
[APU] Maximum altitude for APU start:
35,000 ft
39
[APU] Maximum altitude for APU operation:
40,000 ft
40
[APU] Maximum altitude for APU bleed air use:
20,000 ft
41
[APU] Maximum Altitude for APU assisted Engine Starting:
15,000 ft
42
[APU] Battery voltage required for APU start:
22-27 volts
43
[APU] Do not operate APU if _____ fire extinguisher has been activated.
RIGHT
44
[APU] Allow _____ min cooldown periods between APU starts or between shutdown and next APU start. Allow _____ min cool down period after 3 consecutive start attempts.
2 minutes 30 minutes
45
[APU] Operate APU only if _____ standby fuel pump is operative or _____ engine is operative.
RIGHT RIGHT
46
Do not operate APU if the _____ fire extinguisher has been activated.
No. 2
47
[HYDRAULICS] Maximum hydraulic temperature is _____.
95°C
48
[HYDRAULICS] Electric Motor Pump (EMP) operation above _____ ft is limited to _____ min.
39,000 ft 10 minutes
49
Maximum airspeed for Flaps 10°:
250 Knots
50
Maximum airspeed for Flaps 20°:
220 Knots
51
Maximum airspeed for Flaps LAND:
180 Knots
52
ALTERNATE STABILIZER TRIM • Maximum speed with the alternate stabilizer armed, autopilot engaged and a jammed elevator is
MMO = 0.77 MI
53
YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED: • Below _____ ft the maximum speed is _____. Do not operate with yaw damper off above _____ ft.
25,000 ft 250 KIAS 25,000 ft
54
Use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to _____, _____, and _____ only. (phase of flight)
takeoff approach landing
55
Holding in icing conditions is limited to _____ flaps only.
56
LANDING GEAR OPERATION SPEEDS (VLO) • Normal Operation: Do not lower or raise landing gear at speeds in excess of _____.
195 KIAS
57
LANDING GEAR EXTENDED SPEED (VLE): • Do not exceed _____ with landing gear extended (gear doors open or closed).
195 KIAS
58
MAXIMUM TIRE SPEED: •Maximum main landing gear tire ground speed is _____. •Maximum nose landing gear tire ground speed is _____.
195 kt 182 kt
59
[BRAKES] In cold weather operation – ride the brakes during taxi to warm the brakes to _____. This prevents ice accumulation on the brakes.
10°C - 90°C
60
Operation of Wing Anti-Ice System above _____ ft with a single bleed source is prohibited.
26,000 ft
61
The use of wing anti-ice above _____ TAT or below _____ SAT is not recommended.
10°C -40°C
62
Engine anti ice is required for taxi and takeoff when Static Air Temperature (SAT) is _____ or below, and in- flight when Total Air Temperature (TAT) is _____ or below, and visible moisture in any form is present such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals.
10°C 10°C
63
Probe Heat operation in OVRD mode on ground for more than _____ is prohibited.
30 seconds
64
The minimum holding speed in icing conditions is _____.
185 KIAS
65
Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above _____ ft cabin altitude.
40,000 ft
66
Prolonged operation above _____ ft cabin altitude with passengers on board is not recommended.
25,000 ft
67
Cabin Electrical Galley and Lavatory Outlets are _____ amp. All other outlets are _____ amp. Total amp draw should never exceed _____ amp.
15 amp 3 amp 17.5 amp
68
When ground aircraft de-icing is in progress, APU must be _____ with door closed.
OFF
69
[HYDRAULICS] Normal operation pressure is _____ psi to _____ psi with _____ psi maximum
2700 psi to 3250 psi 3500 psi max
70
[HYDRAULICS] Emergency gear bottle pre-charge pressure
2600 psi to 3000 psi
71
[BRAKES] Do not takeoff with temperatures below _____ on contaminated runways.
10°C
72
[BRAKES] Brake Overheat CAS displays at _____ °C
450°C
73
[TOWING] Normal towing range from center
80°
74
[TOWING] Towing horn sounds at
84°
75
[TOWING] NWS Oversteer CAS triggers at
94°
76
[TOWING] Nose Gear damage will occur at angles greater than
100°
77
[ENGINE DRY MOTORING] Dry motoring required if engine restarts are required between _____ and _____ minutes following an engine shutdown.
15 and 180 minutes
78
[ENGINE DRY MOTORING] Crank each engine to _____ % or _____ seconds whichever comes first. Wait _____ minutes before starting the engine to allow engine to thermally normalize.
21% or 15 seconds 3 minutes
79
[ENGINE DRY MOTORING] Procedure must be repeated if more than _____ minutes has elapsed since the dry crank was performed if still under the _____ minute timeframe.
40 minutes 180-minute
80
Verify WING ANTI-ICE temperatures are _____ °F +/- 10 and both wings are green prior to takeoff using the synoptic, if wing anti-ice is required.
130 °F
81
What are the prerequisites for the Automatic Descent Mode (ADM)?
• Cabin Altitude at or above 10,000 ft. • Aircraft altitude at or above FL 340 • Autopilot engaged.
82
How long can we fly with the Standby Battery?
60 Minutes if one of the SMCs is depowered.
83
What happens when a fire handle is pulled?
Pulling the fire handle sends a fire shutdown signal to the FADEC, closes the Engine Hydraulic Shutoff Valve, closes the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve.
84
The tiller will turn the nose wheel how many degrees?
+/- 60 degrees left and right of center.
85
What is the PMA and what is its function?
The PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) is mounted on the accessory gear box. It provides power to the FADEC when N2 is greater than 45%.
86
What hydraulic system operates the flaps?
LEFT
87
What spoiler will still operate with a loss of the left hydraulic system fluid?
- Inboard Spoilers (Multifunction Spoilers - MFS)
88
Which hydraulic system operates the ailerons?
None. Ailerons are manually actuated (conventional mechanical)
89
What control surfaces are locked with the gust lock engaged?
Ailerons while on the ground. In addition to locking the aileron surfaces, the locking mechanism prevents activating the engine thrust levers to prevent takeoff with locked aileron surfaces.
90
If the stall warning (stick shaker) activates, what will be disengaged and what will be enabled?
- Autopilot and autothrottles will be disengaged - Auto-ignition and stick shakers will be enabled
91
When will the taxi lights turn off automatically?
Landing gear retraction
92
During a climb, at what altitude will the landing lights automatically turn off?
18,000 ft
93
Which hydraulic system components are powered by both the left and right system?
Elevator Rudder Park Brake
94
What modes will automatically engage the autothrottles?
Automatic Descent Mode
95
What cabin altitude will cause the passenger oxygen masks to deploy?
Cabin altitude of greater than 13,500 ft if landing field elevation is equal to or lesser than 8000 ft; or 14,750 ft if landing field elevation is greater than 8000 ft.
96
What happens when the AFCS DISCON bar on the FCP is pulled?
It disconnects the Auto Pilot, yaw damper and auto throttles. It also removes power from the elevator and aileron servos which disables the stick pusher.
97
What is the primary purpose of the APR mode?
To provide additional thrust on the operating engine during a single engine failure.
98
What are the four subsystems of the Pneumatic System?
• Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) System • Environmental Control System (ECS) • Temperature Control System (TCS) • Bleed Air System (BAS).
99
What is the AMSC responsible for?
The AMSC (Air Management System Controller) is responsible for Bleed Air Management. Basic functions include: 1. Engine port selection; 2. Regulation of pressure, temperature, and flow delivered to the pneumatic manifolds; 3. Bleed air cooling utilizing engine fan air, Wing Anti-ice, and Isolation between the left bleed air source and the right bleed air source.