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Gulfstream G500/600 Initial > G500_600 Study Guide > Flashcards

G500_600 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Where can you find definitions for landing urgency

A

AFM 00-20-60

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2
Q

What is the meaning of land as soon as possible

A

Land without delay where safe approach in Landing is assured

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3
Q

How are CAS messages arranged

A

Chronologically within color groupings, with most recent at the top.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry 2B-07-20

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4
Q

What are the five types of CAS messages

A

Single system, umbrella, consequential alert, collector, and directive

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5
Q

What is a consequential alert CAS message

A

It shares a common cause with an umbrella

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6
Q

What is the difference between meaning of red and amber CAS messages

A

Red requires immediate flight crew awareness and immediate flight crew response; Amber requires immediate flight crew awareness and subsequent flight crew response

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7
Q

What does a gray switch indicate on 0HPTS

A

Unavailable selection

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8
Q

What is the meaning of OHPTS switch with cyan font

A

Indicates operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message

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9
Q

What is the meaning of OHPTS switch with Amber font

A

Generally indicates operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or reflects abnormal in-flight condition

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10
Q

What controls automatic functions on aircraft

A

Data concentration Network (DCN) and secondary power distribution system (SPDS)

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11
Q

How are cabin systems designed

A

With redundancy so single point failure doesn’t result in loss of cabin functionality

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12
Q

What dampens main entry door during opening

A

Hydraulic damper with self contained recirculating supply of hydraulic oil

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13
Q

What happens when outside door switch is selected to close

A

Circuit energizes to close provided external battery switches first selected on, aux pump operates, and door closes. Once the door is closed and electrically latched, circuit is deenergized, aux pump shuts off, and external battery may be selected to off

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the door safety switch

A

When depressed, door safety switch prevents the door from closing

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15
Q

What is the limitation associated with main entry acoustic door

A

Must be fully open during taxi, takeoff and landing

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16
Q

When does acoustic door open automatically

A

With flaps selected to 10° or landing gear extension

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17
Q

How could you investigate baggage compartment from main cabin without opening baggage compartment door

A

A peephole is provided to inspect baggage compartment in the event of onboard fire in baggage area

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18
Q

Describe the seal on external baggage door

A

It features a passive seal to maintain pressurization

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19
Q

What is AHTMS

A

Aircraft health and trend monitoring system: captures data from crew alerting system CAS, Central maintenance computer CMC, and flight data recorder FDR and transmits data to ground stations at predetermined intervals

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20
Q

Describe primary escape routes on GVII

A

Includes main entry door and four emergency exit windows

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21
Q

Describe what happens with selection of FDR/CMC event switch on 0HPTS

A

Places event stamp on FDR recording, initiates CMC time series recording, and switch legend illuminates blue

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22
Q

What information is stored on cockpit voice recorder CVR

A

All audio signals transmitted and received by aircraft crewmembers, including all conversation in cockpit and CPDLC data

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23
Q

What are requirements for erasing CVR

A

Must be on ground with main cabin door open

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24
Q

What happens when ELT switch is selected to On

A

ELT transmits, LED indicator blinks red, and blue CAS message displays

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25
Q

Describe modular avionics units MAUs

A

They are the main computers and processors that control most avionics related applications on aircraft

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26
Q

Which display units D use are referred to as multi function displays MFDs

A

DU #2 and #3

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27
Q

What part display is cursor restricted from entering

A

ADI; otherwise, it can move anywhere in a display window on its associated DUs

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28
Q

What happens if both cursors are selected to the same DU

A

Last active cursor has exclusive control in making selections within the display in which both cursors reside

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29
Q

What is the purpose of the guidance panel

A

It provides most of controls for operation of automatic flight control system AFCS

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30
Q

What does an Amber MAG2 indicate on both PFD’s

A

It alerts the crew that both pilots are using same source for heading information: in this case, IRS #2

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31
Q

What does an amber RA2 indicate on both PFD’s

A

It alerts the crew that both pilots’ flight instruments are receiving radio altimeter data from same source

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32
Q

What is the purpose of 121. 5 EMER guarded physical switch located on sidewall above oxygen mask

A

Enables selection of emergency frequency for total TSC failure

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33
Q

What happens with selection of call inhibit

A

Prevents GCMS related messages from displaying on CAS display

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34
Q

What is the normal location of primary engine instruments

A

DU2 Upper

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35
Q

What is the normal location of CAS display

A

DU3 upper

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36
Q

What is the restriction on selection of full windows on DU2 and DU3

A

Cannot be selected on both DU2 and DU3 at the same time

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37
Q

What functions are available with phase of flight POF presets

A

They can be selected, stored, and reset

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38
Q

What is the source of HUD symbols

A

HUD computer

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39
Q

What is the source of the EVS image

A

EVS camera, unlike the HUD, uses infrared technology and is optimized to detect runway lighting

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40
Q

How should cloth cover be removed from combiner

A

Rockwell Collins recommends removing cloth cover after moving combiner to operation position. In like fashion, they recommend reattaching cloth cover before moving combiner to stow position

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41
Q

How would you know you have not place combiner in correct operating position

A

ALIGN HUD message appears on combiner display. If this occurs, carefully reposition combiner glass and allow it to snap into detents. Do not use HUD if ALIGN HUD message continues to be displayed

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42
Q

Why does combiner have a breakaway position

A

It’s a safety feature that allows combiner glass to rotate toward windscreen with head impact and lock in place during sudden aircraft deceleration this minimizes head injury

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43
Q

What do top “T” and bottom inverted “T” Represent on combiner during HUD press and hold test

A

Upper and lower limit of data displayed on HUD

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44
Q

What is the primary symbol used to control aircraft with the HUD

A

Flight path vector FPV

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45
Q

What does the Aircraft reference simple (or boresight symbol) represent on HUD

A

Projected centerline of aircraft(boresight)

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46
Q

What is the difference between HUD uncaged and caged modes

A

In uncaged mode, FPV is free to roam horizontally and vertically. In caged mode, FPV is free to move vertically; however, it is locked in horizontal center. In caged mode, FPV indicates planes heading and ghost FPV represents track. In uncaged mode, boresight represents heading and FPV represents track

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47
Q

HUD symbols are described as being either conformal or non-conformal. What is the difference

A

Conformal symbol has real world counterpart (e.g., The Horisont line represents the Horisont degree for degree). Altitude dial is considered non-conformal since it doesn’t represent anything in the real world

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48
Q

Why does horizon line flash on HUD at nose high and nose low attitudes

A

To indicate non-conformity

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49
Q

How do you know when EVS image is available for display

A

FLIR flashes in upper left portion of combiner after cool down and then goes steady. Cool down normally takes 10–15 minutes but can take longer if aircraft is hot soaked

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50
Q

What is NUC

A

NUC stands for non-uniformity correction. It is a calibration process that results in cleaner picture and occurs during camera power-up, flaps selected from 0° to 10°, or manual NUC selected

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51
Q

Describe the three(3) different levels of EVS camera gain

A

AUTO, H for high, and L for low. Select AUTO If you want camera to automatically adjust gain, H for low visibility, and L for night VMC or day with smog. indications of your selection appear on upper left portion of combiner: EVS A for AUTO, EVS H for high, or EVS L for low

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52
Q

How is heat depicted on EVS image

A

Hotter items from IR camera are depicted as lighter while items with less heat are depicted as darker

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53
Q

Describe some factors that affect EVS performance

A

Thick clouds, thermal crossover, Blooming, and misalignment

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54
Q

How can you increase chances of seeing approach and runway lights with EVS in low visibility

A

Make sure the lights are set to full bright prior to commencing the approach and select high gain

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55
Q

What are the requirements for descending below DA with EVS

A

You need EFVS lights to descend below DA and you need visual cues without the aid of EFVS at 100 feet above TDZE in order to continue and land unless qualified under FAR 91.176(a) to continue and land with EFVS in Lou of natural vision

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56
Q

Flight Director or autopilot with vertical guidance, either eyeless or FMS vertical path, is required for all IMCEVS approaches. How do you determine if obstacle free path is present

A

Runway is served by an approach to decision altitude DA

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57
Q

At what altitude does airport symbol normally appear on HUD

A

2000’ above airport

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58
Q

When does runway symbol replace the airport symbol

A

At 350’ RA, runway symbol joins airport symbol and at 325’ RA, airport symbol disappears. Runway symbol is removed from display at 60’ RA

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59
Q

When does flare cue appear

A

100’; it moves upward as aircraft approaches the ground and provides flare guidance

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60
Q

What is provided on HUD unusual attitude display to prevent you from over stressing the aircraft during recovery

A

G-load digital readout

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61
Q

What is RNP

A

Required NAV performance: accuracy in NM required for navigation in the area the aircraft is flying and affects CDI sensitivity. Lower RNP equates to greater CDI sensitivity

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62
Q

What is EPU

A

Estimated position uncertainty: calculated estimate of accuracy of navigation equipment aboard aircraft. If EPU > RNP, Numbers are highlighted by cautionary Amber overlay and CDI needle turns Amber

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63
Q

What does magenta dashed line extending from nose of aircraft to compass arc represent on map display

A

IRS track vector

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64
Q

How do you know if a chart is Geo-referenced

A

A white or green icon appears in right corner of charts title bar which enables aircraft actual position (displayed as green airplane symbol) to be displayed

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65
Q

What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display

A

Amber, blue and white: red can only be scrolled out of view to show other red messages

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66
Q

What happens when a red or amber CAS message becomes active

A

Message displays in inverse video, oral alert sounds (i.e., three chimes for red or two for Amber), and respective annunciator on master warning panel illuminates. When annunciator/button is pushed on master warning panel, annunciator extinguishers, tone silences, and message displays normally. If there are read messages already on CAS display when new red messages becomes Active, new message displays at top of red message stack. If there are amber messages already on CAS display when new amber message becomes active, new message displays at top of Amber message Stack

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67
Q

What happens when a blue CAS message becomes active

A

Message flashes for five seconds and then displays normally, a blue message oral alert is sounded (1 chime). No pilot action is required to acknowledge blue messages: you get one(1) chime only. If there are blue messages already on CAS display when new blue message becomes active, new message displays at top of blue message Stack

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68
Q

What happens when a white status message becomes active

A

Message displays similar to blue CAS message but there is no chime

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69
Q

What are the two (2) Types of automatic CAS message filters

A

Takeoff and landing, and power up

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70
Q

When would Pilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #2

A

Failure of DU #1

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71
Q

When would copilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #3

A

Failure of DU #4

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72
Q

What would a big red X indicate on a DU

A

Loss of data (i.e., failure of associated AGM)

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73
Q

What would be indicated if DU had a black display

A

Failed or unpowered

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74
Q

What is the purpose of DU switches

A

Allows dispatch with single AGM failed

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75
Q

With airplane on ground, if AGM 1, 2 or 4 fails, selecting the corresponding display system control switch to ALT position causes what to occur

A

There is a rearrangement of AGM to DU architecture, DU associated with failed AGM receives graphics, and red X is placed on DU 3

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76
Q

Which displays are considered most important

A

PFD‘s are considered most important followed by primary engine display and CAS

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77
Q

If DU1 fails and is subsequently regained by performing display unit failure procedure, PFD comes back on DU1 and also remains displayed on DU2. How can you unlatch the display and regain your map synoptic

A

In-flight, you’ll need to press DU unlatch (OHPTS>DU Ctrl/Test)

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78
Q

What occurs when AUTO is selected on flight guidance panel

A

Both AP and AT engage: one channel of autopilot connect to autopilot system servos that move side stick, and one channel of autothrottle connects to autothrottle system servers that move power levers.

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79
Q

What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement

A

LO/HI/LO triple tone

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80
Q

With AP engaged, what happens when PFD SRC switch is pressed on flight guidance panel

A

Lateral and vertical modes to change to ROL & FPA; autopilot remains engaged.

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81
Q

During ILS approach below 1200 feet RA, both green triangles illuminate above PFD SRC switch. What does this indicate

A

Both navigation receivers‘ data is being averaged

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82
Q

Describe methodology behind flight mode annunciations on the PFD

A

In all cases, a green mode annunciation(right side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is engaged, while a white mode annunciation (left side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is armed only. Whenever mode transitions form or armed to engaged, Mode is surrounded by green box for five(5) Seconds to alert crew that a mood is engaged

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83
Q

What must the source of navigation be when selecting VNAV

A

Since all VNAV vertical modes are based on FMS altitude and/or constraints, FMS must be the selected NAV source

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84
Q

What is FLCH mode

A

In all cases FLCH modes are speed hold modes (IAS or Mach), meaning the aircraft changes pitch to maintain speed displayed in FGPs speed window

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85
Q

How does clime or decent rate vary with FLCH

A

It is based on the magnitude of altitude change commanded

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86
Q

What is the recommended technique when given a heading 

A

Sync the heading knob, select heading mode, and then spin heading knob

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87
Q

When VGP is engaged vertical mode, what is the effect of any altitude sent in FGP’s altitude preselect window

A

It will be ignored by AFCS similar to an ILS approach

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88
Q

How is GP altitude preselect window depicted on VSD

A

As green dashed line across the display and digital readout in upper left corner of the display

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89
Q

What happens when the ALTITUDE HOLD button is pressed

A

If ALT not active, article mode is immediately changed to ALT, green cue light illuminates and altitude that existed at the instant the button was pressed is held. If ALT is active, ALT hold is the selected and aircraft goes into FPA mode

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90
Q

When is retard mode activated

A

RA < 50’ with gear down

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91
Q

What is the indication of normal AT disengagement

A

AT1 or AT2 flashes Amber for five(5) seconds along with an oral tone(LO/LO/LO triple tone)

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92
Q

True/false: GPS is capable of SVAS signals which enables GVIIII to execute localizer performance with a vertical guidance LPV approaches

A

True

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93
Q

What are long range position sensors on GVII

A

Two(2) GPSs and three (3) IRUs. Hybrid IRSs are primary source of navigation input to FMS: they receive GPS input which greatly improve accuracy and reduces drift rate. If both GPSs fail or entire GPS network goes down, FMS uses performance based sensor selection scheme to select the best performing sensor

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94
Q

What are the primary short range position sensors on GVII

A

VOR/DME and DME/DME

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95
Q

Where is the navigation mode displayed on TSC

A

Pos sensors page of FMS

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96
Q

What kind of information do IRUs provide

A

Position, velocity, heading and altitude data

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97
Q

What would an amber HDG or ATT comparator warning indicate on your PFD

A

Heading or altitude different from other pilot’s

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98
Q

What would red HDG FAIL and a red ATT FAIL annunciations indicate on PFD

A

IRS failure

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99
Q

What is the default heading and attitude reference for each SFD

A

Attitude/Heading reference System(AHRS) unit and magnetometer: attitude from AHRS and heading from magnetometer

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100
Q

What is the source of air data to SFDs

A

ADS 4 is direct wired to SFDs; however, other air data systems are selectable

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101
Q

Describe purpose of air data system ADS

A

It measures pressure and temperature of outside air and supplies data to using systems. Processed air data provided by ADCs include things like pressure altitude, calibrated airspeed, vertical speed, true airspeed, mach number, AOA, and side slip

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102
Q

Why are TAT probes aspirated by bleed air on ground

A

To improve accuracy of temperature readings

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103
Q

Describe some features of the GVII‘s weather radar

A

It controls antenna scan, collects weather and terrain info, and stores it in 3-D memory. Some operational modes include ground mapping, turbulence detection and predictive windshear feature

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104
Q

What is primary and secondary weather and how is it depicted

A

Primary weather is whether along flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted in solid colors. Secondary weather is weather outside of flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted with cross hatching

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105
Q

What is the best policy regarding thunderstorms

A

Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo

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106
Q

What color is turbulence displayed on weather radar

A

Magenta

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107
Q

What happens when ground override is selected

A

This mode overrides forced standby and allows operation of radar on ground: it’s deselected airborne

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108
Q

True/false: if WX is selected and there is a terrain threat, EGPWS displays threats on map and on PFD, regardless of previous display selection

A

True

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109
Q

How is predicted windshear displayed

A

By a series of red and black bands in area of windshear event followed by searchlights (Amber lines outside of black lines) extending from far edge of windshear event on each side and to the edge of WX data buffer

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110
Q

What does the EGPWS use to predict potential conflicts between aircraft flight path and terrain

A

Internal worldwide terrine database along with geographic position information

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111
Q

Where can terrain be displayed

A

On PFD and/or map (Including VSD)

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112
Q

What are the two VSD terrain display modes

A

Terrain under flight plan and terrain under track. When VSD mode is terrain under track, green TRACK is displayed below horizontal axis of display. When mode is Terrain under Flight Plan, green FPLN is displayed

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113
Q

What is the relative elevation of terrain depicted in red or yellow

A

At or above aircraft’s altitude

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114
Q

Caution look ahead distance is computed from aircraft ground speed and turn rate to provide advanced warning and adequate time for crew response. Depending on situation, this distance roughly corresponds to how many seconds of advanced warning

A

40 to 60

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115
Q

What is the difference between amber and red WINDSHEAR warnings

A

Amber WINDSHEAR is for proverse (increasing performance) windshear. Red WINDSHEAR is for adverse (decreasing performance) windshear condition

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116
Q

What is the difference between amber GND PROX and red PULL UP icons displayed on PFD

A

Amber GND PROX displays when aircraft is approaching terrain in unusual manner or at excessive rate whereas red PULL UP displays when GPWS senses closure on rising terrain ahead

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117
Q

What is Windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver

A
  1. AP/AT: Disconnect
  2. Pitch: Smoothly increase using up to full aft stick (30° pitch max)
  3. Power Levers: Full forward
  4. Once safe climb out is assured: retract gear/flaps
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118
Q

Selecting GPWS inhibit inhibits all GPWS aural warnings except for watt

A

Windshear

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119
Q

What kind of situation would you select GPWS inhibit

A

While flying day VFR approach in areas of high terrain

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120
Q

What callouts are inhibited with selection of the Rad ALT inhibit

A

GPWS Mode 6 advisory callouts of altitudes during approach and landing except for “minimums” and “bank angle”

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121
Q

When would you select GPWS flap inhibit

A

In accordance with checklist: to inhibit GPWS voice alarm, “TOO LOW FLAPS”

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122
Q

Where can traffic be displayed

A

Three places: HSI, map and traffic synoptic page

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123
Q

What is the normal TCAS vertical display range

A

Auto range is +-2700’, +9900’/-2700’ climbing & +2700’/-9900’ for descending

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124
Q

What is the meaning of the color yellow on flight plan page

A

From waypoint

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125
Q

What is the meaning of the color magenta on flight plan page

A

To waypoint

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126
Q

What does RTA stand for

A

Select required time of arrival (RTA) from FMS Task Menu then monitor RTA Prog from Flight Progress 

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127
Q

What does BTMS stand for

A

Enable or disable brake temperature monitoring system(BTMS) from AC Cfg radio button under Perf Takeoff tab of FMS menu. Power-up default is Enabled. Disabling BTMS withholds brake temperature information from FMS

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128
Q

Why does approach speed default to Vref + 5 knots 

A

Accounts for the common 10 knot headwind and turbulence

129
Q

Under what FMS tab would you find unit conversion

A

Tools

130
Q

What are the limitations associated with navigation database

A

Verify currency. If out of date, verify latitude/longitude of each waypoint during flight. A current database is required in order to fly any approach procedure using the FMS

131
Q

How is AC power normally produced

A

By engine driven integrated drive generators (IDGs) and/or APU generator.

132
Q

How many TRUs convert AC to DC power 

A

Five (5)

133
Q

What is the purpose of emergency batteries

A

They power emergency avionics and emergency egress lighting

134
Q

What is the difference between red and black circuit breakers

A

Red CBs are related to essential circuits and black CBs are considered nonessential

135
Q

What is the purpose of GCUs

A

They work with electrical system to provide quality power

136
Q

How can a GCU be reset

A

Buy cycling associated generator control switch (L GEN, R GEN or APU GEN) to OFF then ON

137
Q

True/false: all non-failure AC power transfers are NBPTs, except between external AC power and APU power sources

A

True

138
Q

How is electrical power normally controlled

A

By two (2) BPCUs, three (3) GCUs and two (2) ESCs. BPCU are brains of system and control most contactors 

139
Q

Describe emergency batteries

A

Two (2) lead acid emergency batteries: one located up forward in LEER and one located back aft on left side of baggage compartment in forward BEER

140
Q

What are the three modes of emergency batteries

A

Like main batteries, they have three (3) Modes of operation: charge, discharge, and TR mode

141
Q

How are emergency batteries activated

A

ON switch is depressed or they are ARMED and left or right essential DC bus drops below 20 VDC (even momentarily)

142
Q

What items are powered down to emergency batteries

A

Both SFDs without air data
TSCs 2 & 3 Backup Eng/Rad
Emergency lighting 

143
Q

When would MAIN BATTERY switches indicate amber on

A

When starting a APU (left battery discharge only), operating aux pump, or powering ESS DC buses if MAIN BATTERY switches are selected ON and ESS DC buses have no other source of power 

144
Q

What additional function does right battery have on ground

A

It is used to power ground service bus when not powered by right main DC bus or external DC power

145
Q

What are main battery charging requirements

A

AC power applied

146
Q

When is TR mode initiated

A

If battery switches are selected ON, main AC buses are powered, and the following occur - APU start switch is selected ON, aux pump is turned on, or essential DC buses require power from batteries

147
Q

What mode of battery/chargers is lost with loss of Main AC buses

A

TR and charge mode

148
Q

The batteries have split bus configurations. What does this mean

A

Left battery is involved in APU start; both batteries power aux pump

149
Q

When should you remove batteries

A

Cold soak conditions (-20C)

150
Q

On dark airplane, what occurs when EXTERNAL BATTERY switch is selected ON

A

Power is provided from both main batteries and anti-collision beacon illuminates

151
Q

What is the purpose of ground service bus (GSB)

A

To provide DC power to equipment required for minimal servicing while on ground

152
Q

What are the sources of power for ground service bus

A

Right main DC bus, external DC, or right battery

153
Q

Name the locations of four (4) GSB control switches 

A

One behind the cockpit on REER System/Monitor Test panel, one in Security / Gnd Svc panel, one on ground service panel in tail compartment, and one in refuel panel 

154
Q

What happens on dark airplane when GND SVC BUS switch is selected to ON

A

Right battery powers ground service bus and anti-collision beacon illuminates

155
Q

There are four (4) GRN SVC BUS Annunciator lights: one in cockpit, one in security/Grd Svc panel, one in refuel panel, and one on ground service panel and tail compartment. When do the illuminate

A

When GRD SVC BUS is powered by right battery or by external DC power ( i.e., other than normal source of power)

156
Q

When is ground service bus automatically deactivated

A

When all doors are close: tail compartment door, main door, security/Grd Svc panel door, and refuel door

157
Q

What is the function of EBHA battery 

A

It is dedicated source of power to Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuators (EBHAs)

158
Q

What is the purpose of UPS battery

A

It is dedicated source of power to flight control computers

159
Q

If both AC and DC external power is connected, which has priority

A

External AC

160
Q

Describe APU generator

A

It is mounted on APU, is usable on ground, or in-flight. It is physically and distinctly different from IDGs but produces the same type of power up to 35,000’

161
Q

What is the source of power for personal electronic devices, electric razors, hairdryers, blender, toaster, etc.

A

60 Hz power system comprised of two converters. One converter is active while other is standby

162
Q

True false: CABIN / GALLEY and 60 Hz master switches are wired in series (i.e., both must be selected ON for converters to produce power).

A

True. CABIN / GALLEY Master switch also controls 28 VDC to cabin. It is single switch for load shedding all power to cabin

163
Q

What is the purpose of secondary power distribution system (SPDS)

A

It takes power from primary power system and distributes it to various aircraft loads

164
Q

SPDS is composed of two Electrical System Controllers (ESCs) and 14 Modular Power Tiles (MPTs) (4 AC and 10 DC). What is the difference between ESCs and MPTs

A

ESCs perform system control functions and interface with other aircraft systems. MPTs performed power routing and circuit protection function using AC and DC Solid State Power Controllers (SSPCs)

165
Q

What causes AC or DC legend of AC/DC RESET switchlite to activate

A

Fault in AC or DC bus, logic fault within the BPCU, or relay or component failure

166
Q

What happens when you depress RESET switch

A

It resets lockout and allows trip contactors to close if fault no longer exists

167
Q

When would you select L/R Bus Tie to ISLN

A

When directed by checklist. It prevents associated contactor from closing and isolates respective main AC bus from other power sources

168
Q

Describe RAT deployment

A

It is totally manual and is accomplished by pulling guarded RAT DEPLOY handle

169
Q

What does RAT power once it reaches operating speed (Usually 5–8 seconds)

A

FCC UPS bus and EBHA bus through Emerg AC bus, and both Essential DC buses through left and right ESS TRUs

170
Q

How is RAT stowed

A

On the ground using installed hand operated piston pump mounted above RAT assembly: it cannot be stowed in flight

171
Q

What happens as airspeed falls below limit of RAT operation (200 knots)

A

RAT stops operating an Main, UPS and EBHA batteries begin to power fight critical systems for up to 10 minutes

172
Q

When is AUX DC bus load shed or not powered 

A

During single generator operation, RAT generator operation, battery only operation, or when aux TRU is powering another DC bus. Load shed feature is inhibited on the ground

173
Q

Describe the purpose of fifth or Aux TRU

A

It serves as back up to primary TRUs. When not serving in backup role, Aux TRU powers Aux DC bus which provides 28VDC power to cabin loads

174
Q

What is Aux TRU priority

A

Essential before main and left before right

175
Q

Where is fuel stored

A

In wing tanks that are part of internal wing structure: there are no bladders

176
Q

Describe location and capacity of hopper tanks

A

Inside each wing tank, adjacent to center line rib, is a hopper that holds approximately 1170 pounds of fuel for G600

177
Q

What is the purpose of ventilation system

A

It protects from over and under pressurization by allowing air, fuel vapors, and fuel to move about or flow freely

178
Q

Vent tubes are connected to empty chamber or plenum which is located at wingtip, just outboard of fuel tanks. What is the capacity of plenum and vent tubes

A

They provide for 2% fuel expansion

179
Q

What is indicated if HIGH LEVEL WARN lights illuminate on refuel panel

A

High level sensors are wet and Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner (FQSC) has close respective refueling valve

180
Q

What happens when REMOTE FUEL SHUTOFF switch is selected on OHPTS

A

Switch label turned green and both pressure fueling shut off valves close

181
Q

What are the different methods of refueling

A

Single point pressure fueling or
over-the-wing

182
Q

How is automatic refueling controlled

A

From touchscreen controller TSC or refueling panel located at fueling station

183
Q

How many methods are there for maintaining fuel balance

A

To: by moving fuel from hopper to hopper through intertank valve, or by directing fuel from one hopper to opposite engine using cross flow valve

184
Q

How many boost pumps does GVII have and where are they located

A

There are four (4) identical and interchangeable fuel boost pumps in main wheel wells attached to a portion of each hopper

185
Q

What is the purpose of fuel boost pumps

A

They deliver fuel to engines and APU at relatively low pressure through various fuel distribution lines and shutoff valves

186
Q

How does fuel flow into hopper

A

Through ejector pumps and flapper type check valves

187
Q

How do ejectors operate

A

They require only fuel boost pump pressure to operate: they are low pressure, high-volume jet pumps. As long as there is boost pump pressure, ejector pumps deliver steady flow of fuel into each hopper

188
Q

What happens when crossflow valve is opened

A

Boost pump manifolds are joined allowing pressurized fuel from functioning pumps to flow to both engines

189
Q

When do white Fuel Crossflow Valve Open and Fuel Inter Tank Valve Open CAS messages changed to blue

A

After five (5) minutes

190
Q

What is the warning associated with use of crossflow valve

A

You should always OPEN crossflow valve before turning 0FF both boost pumps on one side. Without boosted pressure above 20,000’, Gulfstream says the engine will run erratically and flame out

191
Q

What happens when intertank valve is opened

A

Fuel gravity flows between two hopper tanks allowing the tanks to balance

192
Q

What action does Gulfstream recommend before opening intertank valve

A

Establish sideslip (i.e. rudder trim in direction of heavy tank)

193
Q

What happens when Fuel Return switch defaults to green Auto on power up

A

The system allows heated fuel into tanks when fuel tank temperature is <= 0° and altitude is >= 30,000’. When tank temperatures warm to approximately +10° C, heated fuel stops flowing to the tanks

194
Q

There are several abnormal conditions which inhibit heated fuel return system from operating (e.g., fire handle pulled, low fuel pressure signal, low fuel quantity). What types of normal conditions inhibit the system from operating

A

Crossflow valve open or engine at high power setting

195
Q

What is the purpose of Power Transfer Unit

A

Provides operational redundancy to left system (especially to get to gear up with failure of left engine on takeoff)

196
Q

What is the purpose of Aux pump

A

Primarily designed for ground and maintenance operations

197
Q

Where are hydraulic reservoirs located

A

There are two (2) hydraulic reservoirs located in forward section of tail compartment: left hydraulic system reservoir on left and right hydraulic system reservoir on right

198
Q

A visual site gauge is installed on high-pressure end of each hydraulic reservoir and clearly indicates proper FULL and REFILL levels of Resavoir. What is required for accurate reading

A

Electrical power is not required to read site gauge; however, system must be pressurized to obtain correct reading

199
Q

Describe engine-driven pump

A

It is constant pressure, variable volume pump, which means it produces 3000 psi any time engine is running (Except for pump unloading feature during engine start in-flight)

200
Q

What is the purpose of hydraulic heat exchangers and where are they located

A

There are two hydraulic heat exchangers: one for each system located in each hopper close to floor. Functioning as a radiator, heat exchanger allows surrounding, cooler fuel to cool the hotter hydraulic fluid

201
Q

How many hydraulic accumulators are there and what is the preflight requirement

A

There are two accumulators: one for each system. Check for 1200 psi at 70°F nitrogen pre-charge on preflight

202
Q

What are requirements for PTU operation when ARMED

A

1) Left system pressure < 2400 psi
2) Fluid in the left system
3) Right system not hot 

203
Q

How would gear and flaps operate differently with aux pump

A

They would operate much slower due to low flow rate

204
Q

What are the requirements for Aux pump operation when ARMED

A

In-flight
1) Left system pressure < 1500psi
2) Fluid in left system
3) Left system not hot
4) flap handle position doesn’t match flat position OR landing gear handle position doesn’t match gear position
Aux Pump activates on ground with left system and inboard accumulator pressure < 1200 psi and brake pedals depressed. It deactivates when inboard break accumulator is replenished

205
Q

How does ox pump operate differently in air when selected to ON

A

It operates regardless of hydraulic quantity or temperature; however, it automatically shuts off after two (2) minutes to prevent inadvertent depletion of the batteries

206
Q

There are two replenishing systems in the tail compartment. What are they for

A

One is for hydraulics and one is for oil replenishing

207
Q

What is the purpose of APU

A

Supply flight crew with auxiliary source of bleed air and electrical power during ground operations. In-flight, APU is used for backup electrical power or used for air for main engine start. APU air cannot be used for pressurization

208
Q

What are APUs two on-speed modes

A

Non-essential if on the ground and essential in-flight

209
Q

What is the indication that air inlet door has opened and APU is ready to start

A

Cyan “APU READY” annunciation illuminates on IRS/APU/Batt page of OHPTSs

210
Q

When should you check APU oil level

A

10-30 minutes after shutdown to prevent over-servicing

211
Q

What is the purpose of APU load control valve

A

It opens to provide bleed air from APU while aircraft is on ground, as well as inflight if needed, for main engine start. It is controlled by APU BLEED AIR switch

212
Q

When is APU bleed air available

A

After APU reaches operating speed. If APU was started under cold conditions (i.e., EGT < 149°C), bleed air loading is delayed for 60 seconds unless attempting main engine start in-flight

213
Q

When selecting APU BLEED AIR switch to ON during ground operations, what valve opens in addition to the load control valve

A

Isolation valve

214
Q

Regarding APU, two things occur with right engine lower cowl door open. What are they

A

Amber Cowl Door Open annunciation appears on APU panel and ECU inhibits start while on the ground in order to protect engine cowl

215
Q

What function does ECU perform if APU limits are exceeded

A

It automatically shut down APU on ground (non-essential mode) and in some cases, in-flight (essential mode)

216
Q

Name things that occur when APU MASTER switch is selected to ON

A

ECU performs Power-up Built-In Test (PBIT), commands APU inlet door open, and commands APU fuel shut off valve open. NAV lights and left main fuel pump also turn 0N, and TROV opens

217
Q

What happens when APU MASTER switch is selected to OFF

A

Switch legend extinguishes, APU fuel shut off valve closes and APU, if running, immediately shuts down. Inlet door also begins to close

218
Q

What is the recommended action if APU amber FAULT light illuminates

A

Cycle MASTER and give it another try

219
Q

What is the significance of On legend in APU START / STOP switch

A

It indicates that starter is engaged or APU is running

220
Q

What happens when APU START / STOP switch is selected when APU is running 

A

APU load sheds and APU enters cool down mode. If on the ground and up to 20,000 feet, ECU decreases APU RPM on linear scale (1/2% per second) for 60 seconds (to 70% RPM), then shuts down APU. If above 20,000 feet, ECU maintains APU RPM for 60 seconds, then shuts down APU

221
Q

What happens if APU START switch is depressed at any time during 60 second cool down.

A

APU is commanded to 100% RPM

222
Q

What is the quickest way to shutdown APU

A

Anytime APU MASTER switch is selected off, APU immediately shut down (APU fuel shutoff valve commanded closed)

223
Q

When does APU generator come online

A

When APU reaches operating speed

224
Q

Why does APU GEN switch indicate amber on

A

It represents abnormal in-flight condition

225
Q

What is the difference between essential and non-essential

A

In nonessential mode, there are many conditions which would cause ECU to shut down the APU. If this were to occur, cool down mode is bypassed, APU’s Fuel shutoff valve is closed, and APU shuts down immediately. When in essential mode (In-flight), some protective shutdowns are disabled to allow continued operation

226
Q

What happens if APU is operating in essential mode after landing

A

APU continues to assume aircraft is in essential mode until AP master switch is selected off (or 15 min has elapsed)

227
Q

What does an amber APU essential CAS message indicate

A

It means it hasn’t shut down for one of the malfunctions that would have caused shut down on ground. Do not shut down if you need it because a subsequent start may be inhibited. If you don’t need it, shut it down promptly

228
Q

GVII uses fly-by-wire technology. How does it work

A

Pilot inputs are read by a computer that intern decides how to move control services to best achieve what the pilot wants

229
Q

How is trim accomplished

A

Pitch and role trim is accomplished by actuating switch mounted on side stick; pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch is also used to control pitch

230
Q

What is the purpose of A/P DISC switch

A

It disengages is autopilot and stops runaway trim and all three axes

231
Q

What is the function of FLT CTRL RESET switch

A

Used to reset flight control computers, side sticks, and controls surface actuators when directed by checklist

232
Q

What effect does loss of one hydraulic system have on flight controls

A

Loss of one spoiler pair

233
Q

What are control laws

A

Software in FCCs that translate electrical commands from cockpit control sensors and aircraft motion sensors (inertial/air data) into flight control surface commands

234
Q

How many computers control the fly-by-wire flight control system

A

Three (3) computers: two (2) flight control computers for normal operation and Backup Flight Control Unit in case both flight control computers fail

235
Q

What is the minimum number of FCC channels that can command all flight control surfaces on the aircraft

A

One

236
Q

What is the purpose of Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU)

A

It is designed to provide what Gulfstream calls “ Get home capability” if both primary FCCs fail

237
Q

What happens once the BFCU becomes active

A

He communicates directly with EBHA remote electronic units (REUs) on separate backup data buses and is active for duration of flight

238
Q

Describe Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA)

A

It is a special actuator with self-contained electric motor/pump and hydraulic reservoir

239
Q

What type of sensor input is provided to FCCs

A

Input from IRSs, AHRS, ADSs and radio altimeters

240
Q

Describe AOA limiting feature

A

In this mode, full stick input commands maximum nose angle of attack of 0.95

241
Q

Which mode protects from surface flutter and separation that would occur greater than Vdive speed 

A

High speed protection

242
Q

What is the auto-retract feature

A

It retracts speed brakes at high power settings 

243
Q

Name the four (4) Flight control modes

A

Normal, alternate, direct, and backup

244
Q

When would flight control mode change from normal to alternate

A

Loss of multiple air data or inertial sensors; may also revert to alternate mode if FCCs lose communication with REUs that control HS MCE

245
Q

What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are invalid

A

Flight control system reverts to direct mode

246
Q

What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are unable to compute the control law

A

Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU) activates to provide “get home”capability

247
Q

What term is used to describe the amplification, attenuation, boosting, or magnification that is applied to forward signal to achieve desired aircraft response

A

Gain

248
Q

Normal mode has four (4) primary operating sub modes what are they

A

On ground, In-flight, AOA limiting, and High speed protection

249
Q

Describe how the flight control system operates in alternate mode

A

Pitch, roll, and rudder pedal inputs are multiplied by a set of fixed gains to command elevator, ailerons, roll spoilers, and Rudder

250
Q

How many sets of gains are associated with degraded flight control modes

A

2:1 cent of generally smaller numbers used one flap handle and gear handle are up (and aircraft is presume to be traveling at a higher speed - 340kts), and a set of generally larger numbers that are used if flap handle or gear handle is down (and aircraft is presumed to be traveling slower - 250kts)

251
Q

What functions with ailerons to improve roll response

A

Mid and outboard spoiler panels extend to a maximum of 55°

252
Q

Name the two types of flight control actuators

A

Hydraulic Actuator (HA) and Electronic Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA)

253
Q

Describe HA operation

A

It is controlled electrically by its Remote Electronics Unit (REU) and uses hydraulic power to move control surface

254
Q

What is the function of REU

A

It averages FCC1 and FCC2 commands and electrically controls a valve in hydraulic manifold to control actuator position to match FCC commands

255
Q

What additional features do EBHAs have

A

Able to operate in electric backup mode if normal source of hydraulic pressure is lost or operate in MCE direct control mode for REU failure

256
Q

Describe EB operation

A

Within EB hydraulic manifold, an electric motor turns a hydraulic pump that draws fluid from self-contained reservoir: it acts like third hydraulic system

257
Q

What does the color of HA or EBHA status border indicate on flight control synoptic page

A

Green for active/healthy, gray for inactive, and amber for failed

258
Q

What pilot action is required for an aileron, spoiler, or elevator surface jam

A

Both pilot and copilot side sticks remain available to control the unrestricted surfaces: fly normally and trim, and referred to AFM

259
Q

Under what condition with pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch have to be used

A

Back up mode: if this were to occur, pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch bypasses FCCs and controls horizontal stabilizer directly at a constant, minimum rate

260
Q

What is the difference between active, degraded active, and passive sidestick modes

A

Active mode features electronic linking an electronic feel. In degraded active, sidesticks remain length but lose active feel. In passive mode, there is a loss of both electronic linking and feel

261
Q

What pilot action is required in the unlikely event that rudder pedals become mechanically jammed

A

Pilots would have to use other flight controls or differential power to control the aircraft

262
Q

What component is responsible for moving the stabilizer surface

A

Horizontal Stab Trim Actuator (HSTA) which is a dual electric motor

263
Q

What kind of things can go wrong with the horizontal stabilizer

A

FCC loss of communication with controlling REUs, Failure of dual electric motor, mechanical jam of Jack screw, or failure of both channels of Horizontal Stab Motor Control Electronics (HS MCE)

264
Q

What is elevator off-load feature

A

Once elevator deflection exceeds preset value for predetermined amount of time, horizontal stabilizer and elevators move simultaneously: horizontal stabilizer moves to the new trim position as elevators move to “faired” position (0° relative to horizontal stab surface). It is controlled or commanded from FCCs to reduce elevator deflection

265
Q

Describe how the flaps operate

A

Manually operated, electrically controlled, hydraulically powered, and mechanically actuated

266
Q

What happens if there is any sort of malfunction (e.g., flap jam, asymmetry, runaway, etc) during flap operation 

A

Flap motion is interrupted

267
Q

What happens if you attempt to extend the flaps at high rate of speed

A

A load limiter device prevents the flaps from extending

268
Q

When do the spoilers function

A

Six boiler panels (three on each wing) operate as speed brakes/air brakes and ground spoilers; four operate as fight spoilers (two outboard)

269
Q

What is maximum spoiler deflection

A

55°

270
Q

What is the maximum deflection with full speed break extension

A

30° in-flight or 55° on ground with flap handle not up

271
Q

What indications would you get during speed break extension

A

When move left and aft out of forward detent, a white Speed Brakes Extended message displays

272
Q

How would the indications change during level off

For speed break extended 

A

As power is increase during level off, white Speed Brakes Extended message changes to amber and you get the associated two bong caution chime

273
Q

What happens if speed brakes are extended and pilot advances the throttles to high power setting

A

Speed brakes automatically retract although Speed break handle remains in extended position, and amber Speed Break Auto Retract message displays

274
Q

What function do ground spoilers perform on touchdown or during rejected takeoff

A

All spoiler panels automatically deploy to reduce lift and increase breaking effectiveness

275
Q

What are the requirements for ground spoiler deployment

A

Throttle that idle and one of the following: both main gear WOW, left WOW and right wheel spin, right WOW and left wheel spin, both main gear wheel spin and radar altitude less than 10 feet

276
Q

How is nose cone de-iced

A

By a number of bleed air holes around the tip of cone

277
Q

What accessories are mounted on the engine

A

Breather, Fuel Metering Unit (FMU), hydraulic pump, Integrated Drive Generator (IDG), oil tank and pump, Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), and starter

278
Q

What is the meaning of engine oil shut down quantity

A

It is a 10 minute after shut down snapshot quantity

279
Q

How is oil filling accomplished

A

By conventional gravity filling or through remote replenishing system

280
Q

When does EEC channel transition from A to B or B to A

A

When FUEL CONTROL switch is positioned from RUN to 0FF. Note: ground-air-ground transition also required

281
Q

What is the only time you’re completely FADEC protected during start

A

On the ground

282
Q

What can you consider if starter air valve fails to open

A

It has a manual override

283
Q

What is rotor bow or thermal bowing

A

N1 and N2 shafts warp or bow due to asymmetrical cooling after shut down

284
Q

During what mode would the EEC energize both igniters continuously at high spark rate and schedule fuel flow until rpm stabilizes

A

Flameout detection

285
Q

What mode provides auto relight if FUEL CONTROL switch is selected to OFF and then back to ON within 20 seconds

A

Quick relight

286
Q

Which component, driven by accessory gearbox, is dedicated source of power to EEC when the engine is running

A

Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA)

287
Q

What are some benefits of FADEC

A

Engine protection, improved handling, better fuel efficiency, and prolonged engine life

288
Q

How can autothrottles be disconnected

A

Push either quick disconnect switch, toggle either engage/disengage button, or manually adjust throttles

289
Q

What is the purpose of hold mode on takeoff

A

Any changes in bleed air are ignored by EECs which prevents N1 Changes during takeoff role, rotation, and climb out to 400’ AGL

290
Q

Under what conditions will drag devices be required for descent

A

WAI on and TAT < 0°C

291
Q

When do engines go to approach idle

A

Gear extended or flaps 39°

292
Q

Which AT auto-engage conditions can be inhibited

A

Vertical mold change: other reasons are safety related (i.e., during EDM, speed protection, and for FLCH mode descending through 2000’) and cannot be inhibited

293
Q

When is MCT authorized for use and for what time limit

A

It is intended for infrequent use at pilot discretion and available without time limit

294
Q

When does TO/GA power change to MCT thrust

A

As altitude and forward speed increases; TO/GA is available within takeoff envelope

295
Q

What is the caution associated with selection of ENGINE CONTROL switches to ALT

A

Move affected engine power lever to mid range to avoid a thrust bump

296
Q

Describe thrust reverser operation

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

297
Q

REV appears inside N1 gauges during thrust reverser operation. Describe color indications

A

White for in transit, green for full deployment, amber for uncommanded deployment on ground, and red for uncommanded deployment in-flight flight

298
Q

What happens to the engine during uncommanded thrust reverser deployment

A

FADEC commands engine to idle

299
Q

Which bottle can discharge into the APU

A

Left bottle

300
Q

How do you know if a fire bottle has discharged

A

CAS message

301
Q

Which tests are performed with Master Test Switch

A

Annunciator, smoke, passenger oxygen, and equipment overheat

302
Q

How are fire handles normally locked in stowed position

A

With electrical solenoid

303
Q

What happens if a fire handle solenoid malfunctions

A

A manual override button underneath each fire handle allows handle activation

304
Q

What happens when a fire handle is polled

A

It shuts off fuel at tank, trips Generator Control Unit (GCU), and shuts off hydraulics in tail compartment

305
Q

What happens if engine fire persists after discharging the first bottle

A

Fire handle may be rotated to inboard DISCH 2 position to inject agent from left fire bottle into the engine

306
Q

The smoke evacuation valve has how many positions

A

Two: CLOSED and VENT SMOKE

307
Q

Fire testing, detection, and protection is available down to what source of power

A

Main batteries only: not available with emergency batteries

308
Q

What is the location of the smoke detectors

A

Ceiling of baggage compartment as well as galley and lavatories

309
Q

What happens when smoke evacuation valve is selected to VENT SMOKE position

A

Smoke evacuation valve opens and baggage compartment air is vented overboard through vent on ceiling of baggage compartment. Air is exhausted overboard through right side wing-to-body faring near lavatory servicing

310
Q

Can interior baggage compartment door be opened once baggage compartment is depressurized

A

No, it is impossible without equalizing the pressure between baggage compartment and cabin

311
Q

If interior baggage compartment door is closed, what is the process for reentry once baggage compartment is depressurized

A

Play smoke evacuation valve back to CLOSED position. This causes baggage compartment ventilation shut off valve to re-open and restore airflow to compartment

312
Q

Describe APU’s fire detection system 

A

It has 7 foot helium filled tube secured to top of APU enclosure

313
Q

What happens to APU during a fire

A

ECU automatically shuts it down

314
Q

Describe engine fire detection system

A

Comprised of series of detector segments/elements and jumper wires

315
Q

What happens when Fire Test switch is depressed

A

You get 13 lights and 3 chimes: FIRE light illuminates on APU control panel, you get 5 red CAS messages, 1 amber CAS, both red WARN indications, Both fire handles illuminate, both FUEL CONTROL switches illuminate, and fire bell sounds from nose wheel well on ground

316
Q

What indications do you get for an APU fire

A

You get 5 lights and 3 chimes: FIRE light on APU control panel, amber FAULT light in MASTER switch, both red WARN indications, and one red CAS message. Additionally, you get fire bell on ground

317
Q

What indications do you get for an engine fire

A

You get 5 lights and 3 chimes: both red WARN indications, fire handle, FUEL CONTROL star light and one red CAS message

318
Q

Describe the equipment overheat detection system

A

A number of thermal switches are installed in aircraft interior to monitor temperature levels. They utilize two preset temperatures: 150°F and to 50°F depending on location and type of equipment monitored. Switches set at a trip point of 150°F generate amber CAS message when the temperature is reached and switches set at a trip point of 250°F generate red CAS message (generally amber for electrical and red for bleed air)

319
Q

What is the location of fire bottles

A

Two identical single shot fire bottles are mounted in tail compartment: pressurized by nitrogen and filled with Halon

Gulfstream G500/600 Initial (2 decks)

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