G7500 ROPAT Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What is the main purpose of the ROPAT section?

A

To provide recommendations and procedural guidance for operation of the Global 7500

ROPAT stands for Recommended Operating Procedures and Techniques.

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2
Q

If ROPAT conflicts with the AFM, which takes precedence?

A

AFM

AFM refers to the Airplane Flight Manual.

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3
Q

What cockpit philosophy does the Global 7500 subscribe to?

A

Dark Cockpit

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4
Q

In normal operations, what does an illuminated switch indicate?

A

Abnormality or deviation from normal

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5
Q

What are the two main checklist philosophies described?

A
  • Challenge and Response
  • Read and Do
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6
Q

Who typically reads the checklist item in Challenge and Response procedures?

A

Pilot Monitoring (PM)

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7
Q

In the Read and Do method, what is recommended?

A

Verbalization of the checklist

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8
Q

What is used to indicate a non-normal condition in the cockpit?

A

MASTER WARNING or MASTER CAUTION PBAs

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9
Q

Where are non-normal procedures primarily addressed?

A

ECL or QRH

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10
Q

For failures requiring a landing speed correction, how is the corrected VREF calculated?

A

VREF (without failure) + ΔVREF

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11
Q

Are there traditional ‘boxed’ memory items in the Global 7500 non-normal procedures?

A

No

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12
Q

What are pilots highly recommended to memorize?

A
  • Initial actions for smoke
  • Fire
  • Fumes
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13
Q

What is the primary tool for completing checklists on the Global 7500?

A

Electronic Checklist (ECL)

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14
Q

What must be acknowledged before an ECL checklist is considered complete?

A

All warning, caution texts, notes, and tables

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15
Q

What color indicates a completed sensed item in the ECL?

A

Green

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16
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for completion of all required checklists?

A

PIC

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17
Q

What does the ECL ‘STARTED’ status mean?

A

Checklist is in progress or interrupted

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18
Q

What is the correct order of checklist priorities in non-normal situations?

A
  • Emergency
  • Normal
  • Caution
  • Advisory
  • Info
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19
Q

What does the ‘OVERRIDE’ function in the ECL allow?

A

To override a checklist or item not appropriate to the airplane condition

20
Q

What is the primary difference between the PF and PM roles?

A

PF flies and configures, PM monitors and manages systems

21
Q

What is the correct callout exchange for transfer of control?

A

‘You have control’ / ‘I have control’

22
Q

What happens if both sidesticks are moved simultaneously?

A

Inputs are summed algebraically, limited to ±20° pitch and ±18° roll

23
Q

What should be done if a sidestick is inoperative or malfunctioning?

A

Use the SIDESTICK PTY PBA to lock it out

24
Q

What is the callout if maximum allowable speed deviation is exceeded?

25
What is the recommended action if a callout is not acknowledged?
Repeat the callout
26
When should manual flying be considered?
When conditions, mission requirements, and workload permit
27
What is the preferred mode for vertical navigation?
VNAV
28
Which VHF radio is normally used for ATC communications?
VHF2
29
What is the first check in the Before Flight phase?
Power On Check
30
What is the main purpose of the Power On Check?
To ensure safe application of AC electrical power to airplane buses
31
Who usually completes the external walkaround?
PIC, but may delegate to SIC or maintenance
32
When is the Cabin Inspection checklist normally conducted?
When the airplane has been powered down and powered back up
33
What is the recommended display overlay for terrain awareness?
TERRAIN
34
Who is responsible for FMS programming?
Normally the PM, but both must crosscheck
35
What does the takeoff briefing mnemonic TSRED stand for?
* Type * Standard calls * Reject items * Emergency plan * Departure
36
What is the recommended action before starting the engines?
Complete the Before Start Check
37
When is a rolling takeoff considered?
When the airplane is taxied onto the runway and continues into the takeoff roll without stopping
38
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component for takeoff and landing?
27 kts (gusts to 34 kts)
39
What is the recommended minimum speed for FLAP 1 during approach?
160 KIAS
40
What is the stabilized approach height in IMC?
1000 ft AAE
41
What is SCDA?
Standard Continuous Descent Approach
42
What is the normal configuration for a circling approach?
* Gear down * FLAP 4 * VREF + 10
43
What is the recommended holding speed for weights ≤ 39,735 kg (87,600 lb)?
200 KIAS
44
What is the function of the 'PROC' soft key in the ECL?
To access non-CAS procedures
45
What is the first step if smoke, fire, or fumes are detected?
Don oxygen masks/smoke goggles
46
What is the minimum recommended runway length for touch-and-go landings?
TOFL + LFL for the airfield conditions
47
What is required for EFVS operations for credit?
Operational approval and CAA-approved training