Ga Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What are the three principal components of anesthetic action?

A

Immobility, amnesia, unconsciousness

These components define the efficacy of anesthetics during surgical procedures.

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2
Q

What is the concept introduced by Edmond Eger to quantify the potency of inhalational anesthetics?

A

Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)

MAC is used to measure the concentration of anesthetic required to prevent movement in 50% of subjects exposed to a painful stimulus.

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3
Q

What are the two types of memory differentiated by memory researchers in the context of anesthesia?

A
  • Explicit memory
  • Implicit memory

Explicit memory involves conscious awareness, while implicit memory pertains to unconscious information acquisition.

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4
Q

Which regions in the brain are identified as involved in generating personal awareness?

A
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Thalamus
  • Reticular activating system

These regions interact to produce a state of consciousness, which is disrupted by anesthetics.

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5
Q

What are the core patient factors in selecting anesthesia?

A
  • Organ function and co-morbidities
  • CV
  • Respiratory
  • Liver
  • Renal
  • CNS
  • Pregnancy
  • Concurrent medications
  • Pre-anesthetics
  • Polypharmacy

These factors help tailor anesthesia to individual patient needs.

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6
Q

What neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the mechanism of action of general anesthetics?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

GABA is crucial for inhibiting neuronal activity in the CNS.

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7
Q

What is the difference between volatile and gaseous anesthetics?

A
  • Volatile anesthetics: Low vapor pressures, high boiling points, liquids at room temperature
  • Gaseous anesthetics: High vapor pressures, low boiling points, gas form at room temperature

This distinction affects their administration and physiological properties.

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8
Q

What factors control the uptake of anesthetics?

A
  • Solubility
  • Cardiac output

Solubility influences how anesthetics transfer from lungs to blood, while cardiac output affects pulmonary blood flow.

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9
Q

Why is the induction of anesthesia slower with more soluble anesthetic gases?

A

More soluble anesthetics take longer to achieve the same partial pressure in blood as in the alveoli

For example, halothane is more soluble than nitrous oxide, leading to slower induction.

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10
Q

What factors govern the rate of recovery from inhalation anesthesia?

A
  • Blood:gas partition coefficient
  • Pulmonary blood flow
  • Magnitude of ventilation
  • Tissue solubility

These factors influence how quickly an anesthetic is eliminated from the body.

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of inhaled anesthetics that are relatively insoluble in blood?

A

They are eliminated at faster rates than more soluble anesthetics

Examples include nitrous oxide, desflurane, and sevoflurane, which allow for quicker recovery.

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12
Q

Which inhaled anesthetics are associated with a slower recovery due to higher solubility?

A
  • Halothane
  • Isoflurane

These anesthetics have higher blood and brain solubility, leading to prolonged recovery times.

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13
Q

What is the role of ventilation in the elimination of anesthetics?

A

Ventilation helps control the speed of induction and recovery from inhaled anesthesia

Increasing the concentration of anesthetic in inspired gas and alveolar ventilation can enhance the process.

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14
Q

What are the acute toxicities associated with anesthetic agents?

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Hematotoxicity
  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Hepatotoxicity

These toxicities can arise from exposure to various anesthetic agents.

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15
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is not metabolized by human tissues?

A

Nitrous oxide

It is primarily eliminated through exhalation rather than metabolism.

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16
Q

What cardiovascular effects do volatile anesthetics have?

A

They depress normal cardiac contractility and decrease mean arterial pressure

The extent of these effects correlates with the alveolar concentration of the anesthetic.

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17
Q

What renal effects do inhaled anesthetics usually cause?

A

Decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and urine flow

These effects are generally minor compared to surgical stress and are reversible after discontinuation.

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18
Q

What is the effect of halogenated anesthetics on uterine smooth muscle?

A

They are potent uterine muscle relaxants

This effect can be beneficial during certain surgical procedures but may increase uterine bleeding.

19
Q

What is the classification of anesthetic agents?

A
  • Inhaled anesthetics: Halothane, Isoflurane, Desflurane, Sevoflurane, Nitrous Oxide
  • Intravenous anesthetics: Propofol, Barbiturates (Thiopental), Benzodiazepines (Diazepam), Ketamine, Etomidate

This classification helps in understanding the different types and their applications.

20
Q

What are the main classes of inhaled anesthetic agents?

A

Inhaled anesthetic agents include:
* Halothane
* Isoflurane
* Desflurane
* Sevoflurane
* Nitrous Oxide

21
Q

What are the main classes of intravenous anesthetic agents?

A

Intravenous anesthetic agents include:
* Propofol
* Barbiturates (Thiopental)
* Benzodiazepines (Diazepam)
* Ketamine
* Etomidate

22
Q

Which intravenous anesthetic is most frequently administered for induction of anesthesia?

23
Q

What is the presumed mechanism of action of propofol?

A

Potentiation of the chloride current mediated through the GABA A receptor complex.

24
Q

How is propofol metabolized in the body?

A

Rapidly metabolized in the liver; inactive water-soluble compounds are excreted through the kidneys.

25
What is a unique property of propofol regarding recovery?
Recovery from propofol is more complete, with less 'hangover' than thiopental.
26
What is fospropofol?
Fospropofol is a water-soluble prodrug of propofol approved for sedation during monitored anesthesia care.
27
What must be administered to all patients receiving fospropofol?
Supplemental oxygen.
28
What is a common adverse effect of fospropofol?
Paresthesia, often in the perianal region, occurring in up to 74% of patients.
29
What are the principal clinical uses of thiopental?
Induction of anesthesia (unconsciousness) which occurs in less than 30 seconds.
30
What taste may patients experience after the administration of thiopental?
Garlic or onion taste.
31
What should barbiturates not be administered to patients with?
Acute intermittent porphyria.
32
What are the characteristics of etomidate as an intravenous anesthetic?
Hypnotic but not analgesic effects, minimal hemodynamic effects.
33
What is a common side effect of etomidate?
Involuntary myoclonic movements.
34
What is the primary mechanism of action for ketamine?
Inhibition of the N-Methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor complex.
35
What unique state does ketamine induce after an induction dose?
Dissociative anesthesia.
36
What type of binding does ketamine exhibit?
Low protein binding (12%).
37
What is dexmedetomidine?
A highly selective α2-adrenergic agonist.
38
What is the principal clinical use of dexmedetomidine?
Short-term sedation in intubated/ventilated patients in the ICU setting.
39
Fill in the blank: The principal clinical uses of barbiturates involve enhancement of _______ and inhibition of _______ neurotransmission.
inhibitory; excitatory
40
True or False: Propofol has a high plasma clearance that exceeds hepatic blood flow.
True
41
What are the pharmacokinetics of etomidate primarily characterized by?
Ester hydrolysis to inactive metabolites.
42
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