Gait Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side
A
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
2
Q
This muscle is crucial in single limb support to stabilize the pelvis.
a. Psoas major
b. Adductor brevis
c. Gracilis
d. Gluteus medius
A
d. Gluteus medius
3
Q
In the sagittal plane at mid-stance, the GRF creates what type of moment at the ankle during normal gait?
a. Plantarflexion
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Pronation
d. Supination
A
b. Dorsiflexion
4
Q
These muscles are responsible for regulating the rate of tibial progression during normal gait:
a. Tibialis anterior/Pretibial b. Quadriceps
c. Hamstrings
d. Gastrocs/Soleus
A
d. Gastrocs/Soleus
5
Q
At Loading Response during normal gait, where is the GRF located in reference to the hip in the sagittal plane?
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. lateral
d. medial
A
a. anterior
6
Q
What action is achieved when muscles fire eccentrically?
a. The muscles shorten and provide shock absorption
b. The muscles lengthen for shock absorption
c. The muscles shorten and provide more power
d. The muscles lengthen and provide more power
A
b. The muscles lengthen for shock absorption
7
Q
What is the primary responsibility of the passenger unit?
a. postural integrity
b. forward progression
c. stability
d. shock absorption
A
a. postural integrity
8
Q
In the coronal plane, the GRF is ___________ to the knee causing a _________ moment.
a. medial; varus
b. medial; valgus
c. lateral; varus
d. lateral; valgus
A
a. medial; varus
9
Q
Which of the following describes a “4-point” gait pattern?
a. Right crutch, left foot; left crutch right foot
b. Left crutch and right foot simultaneously
c. Left and right crutch; left and right foot
d. Right crutch and foot; left crutch and foot
A
a. Right crutch, left foot; left crutch right foot
10
Q
If the ground reaction force (GRF) is posterior the knee, you would expect to see:
a. Extension
b. Valgus
c. Flexion
d. Varus
A
c. Flexion
11
Q
At initial contact, the hip is flexed how many degrees?
a. 20 degrees
b. 40 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. Neutral
A
a. 20 degrees
12
Q
Maximum hip flexion occurs at:
a. Initial contact
b. Midstance
c. Terminal swing
d. Midswing
A
d. Midswing
13
Q
In the sagittal plane at Loading Response, Where is the GRF located in reference to the ankle during normal gait?
a. Posterior
b. Anterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
A
a. Posterior
14
Q
During normal gait, the second highest torque demand on the carrier unit occurs at the hip during which phase of gait?
a. Initial contact
b. Terminal stance
c. Loading response
d. Midstance
A
c. Loading response
15
Q
During normal gait you see the pelvis drop during mid stance. What muscle weakness could cause this?
A
Gluteus medius
16
Q
At initial contact, the knee is in what position?
a. 0 degrees (full extension)
b. 5 degrees flexion
c. 15 degrees flexion
d. 20 degrees flexion
A
b. 5 degrees flexion
17
Q
Which of the following structural impairments would cause the body weight vector to be posterior to the knee, and cause significant increased demand of the quadriceps muscles?
a. Knee hyperextension
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Knee flexion contracture d. Genu Valgum
A
c. Knee flexion contracture
18
Q
What is the correct order of phases of gait?
a. IC-LR-MSt-TSt-PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw
b. IC-LR-MSt-PSw-MSw-TSw
c. PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw-IC-LR-MSt-TSt d. IC-LR-TSt-MSt-ISw-PSw-TSw-MSw
A
a. IC-LR-MSt-TSt-PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw
19
Q
The COM is at its highest point during this sub-phase of normal gait:
a. Initial contact
b. Midstance
c. Preswing
d. Midswing
A
b. Midstance
20
Q
Which of the following motions does NOT assist in shock absorption?
a. Hip extension
b. knee flexion
c. contralateral pelvic drop d. ankle plantarflexion
A
a. Hip extension
21
Q
A prosthetic foot that is excessively outset in relation to the socket will create which type of moment at the knee?
a. Flexion
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Extension
A
c. Valgus
22
Q
What position is the knee in during Loading Response?
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Hyperextension
A
a. Flexion
23
Q
In the sagittal plane, the highest torque demand of any joint within the locomotor unit occurs at the:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
d. Forefoot
A
c. Ankle
24
Q
A person with severe quadriceps muscle weakness could be negatively affected by this type of moment at the knee:
a. Extension
b. Flexion
c. Varus
d. Valgus
A
b. Flexion
25
At what phase of gait do the hamstring muscles peak?
a. Terminal Swing
b. Terminal stance
c. Pre-swing
d. Loading Response
a. Terminal Swing
26
What is the significance of knee flexion in Initial Swing?
a. toe clearance of 1cm
b. increase step length
c. shock absorption
d. thigh deceleration
a. toe clearance of 1cm
27
What foot support pattern is considered foot-flat support?
a. plantigrade
b. calcaneograde
c. digigrade
d. unguligrade
a. plantigrade
28
During pre-swing:
a. The knee remains fixed in a fully extended position
b. Circumduction of the hip assists in clearing foot with the ground
c. Weight is rapidly transferred to contralateral limb
d. The ipsilateral foot is in weight acceptance
c. Weight is rapidly transferred to contralateral limb
29
What causes trendelenburg gait?
a. hip abductor weakness
b. hip adductor weakness
c. compensation for painful limb
d. contracture
a. hip abductor weakness
30
In a normal gait cycle, the knee flexes to a maximum angle of ____ during stance.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 60
d. 40
d. 40
31
During terminal swing of normal gait in the transverse plane, what position is the pelvis in?
a. forward rotation
b. backward rotation
c. neutral
d. posterior pelvic tilt
a. forward rotation
32
What deviation is used to compensate for weak hip abductor muscles?
a. Backward trunk lean
b. Scissors gait
c. Abducted gait
d. Lateral trunk lean
d. Lateral trunk lean
33
The average degree of pelvic tilt/obliquity is:
a. 2 degrees
b. 4 degrees
c. 8 degrees
d. 15 degrees
b. 4 degrees
34
Which muscle is NOT a knee extensor?
a. biceps femoris
b. vastus lateralis
c. rectus femoris
d. gluteus maximus
a. biceps femoris
35
At initial contact, the muscles that dorsiflex the foot will ______ to decrease/prevent foot slap.
a. Spasm, then relax
b. Concentrically contract
c. Shorten and relax
d. Eccentrically contract
d. Eccentrically contract
36
Initial contact makes up what percent of the gait cycle?
a. 0-2%
b. 2-12%
c. 12-31%
d. 31-50%
a. 0-2%
37
A gait abnormality in which the patient tends to take a long step with the affected limb and a short step with the sound limb in order to avoid pain on the affected side is called _______.
a. Ataxic
b. Apraxic
c. Antalgic
d. Scissors
c. Antalgic
38
How much pelvic rotation is noted in normal human locomotion?
a. 6-8 degrees
b. 10-15 degrees
c. 8-10 degrees
d. 10-12 degrees
c. 8-10 degrees
39
These muscles are active to limit the rate of hip flexion and tibial advancement at mid-swing during normal gait.
a. Quadriceps
b. Pre-tibials
c. Hamstrings
d. Tensor fascia lata
c. Hamstrings
40
A single gait cycle is defined a the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
41
During normal standing, the weight line is _______ to the hip, _______ to the knee and ______ to the ankle.
a. Anterior, Anterior, Posterior
b. Posterior, Posterior, Anterior
c. Posterior, Anterior, Anterior
d. Anterior, Posterior, Posterior
c. Posterior, Anterior, Anterior
42
What muscles are active during peak midstance and quiet standing?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastroc/soleus
c. Hamstrings
d. Pretibials
b. Gastroc/soleus
43
A possible cause for circumduction in the gait cycle is:
a. Hamstring weakness
b. Skeletal lengthening of the uninvolved limb
c. Hip flexor weakness
d. poor proprioception
c. Hip flexor weakness
44
Where is the COM located?
a. ~22 cm superior to the hip joints
b. anterior toT10
c. at the pelvis
d. at the hip joint
b. anterior toT10
45
Which is not a cause of ‘crouch gait’
a. Weakened quadriceps
b. Weak calf group musculature
c. Tightness of the hamstrings
d. Achilles tendon tightness
d. Achilles tendon tightness
46
What percentage of the gait cycle does midstance take up?
a. 0-2%
b. 2-24%
c. 12-31%
d. 24-36%
c. 12-31%
47
When are the plantarflexors active?
a. TSt
b. IC
c. MSw
d. TSw
a. TSt
48
This hip's maximum forward rotation is initially achieved at:
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Midstance
d. Terminal stance
a. Initial contact
49
The following phases of gait are a part of which gait TASK?
Pre-swing
Initial Swing
Mid-Swing
Terminal Swing
a. Swing Limb Advancement
b. Weight Acceptance
c. Single Limb Support
d. Double Limb Support
a. Swing Limb Advancement
50
What deviation might we expect to see associated with weak quadriceps?
a. Backward trunk lean
b. Forward trunk lean
c. Excessive posterior pelvic tilt
d. Vaulting
b. Forward trunk lean
51
You are assessing a new patient and discover that they have hip abductor weakness. What gait deviation can we expect to see in the coronal plane as the patient begins to ambulate?
Excessive contralateral pelvic drop
52
The initial point of knee stability during normal gait occurs at:
a. Initial swing
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance
d. Midstance
d. Midstance
53
During which phase does the hip and knee flex in order to clear the toe from dragging as the limb advances?
a. Mid-Swing
b. Initial Swing
c. Terminal Swing
d. Mid-Stance
a. Mid-Swing
54
At LR, the knee moves to:
a. 15 degrees knee flexion
b. 30 degrees knee flexion c. 60 degrees knee flexion d. 0 degrees knee flexion
a. 15 degrees knee flexion
55
During weight acceptance in the coronal plane, the GRF is slightly medial to the calcaneus. What motion does this cause at the subtalar joint?
a. dorsiflexion
b. internal rotation
c. inversion
d. pronation
d. pronation
56
In normal gait, the torque moment at this phase requires the greatest muscle demand at the hip joint.
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance
d. Preswing
b. Loading response
57
At terminal stance the ground reaction force is positioned ________ to the hip joint during normal gait.
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. In line
d. There is no GRF in Terminal Stance
b. Posterior
58
The ankle joint is _____ rotated in relation to the knee joint.
a. Externally
b. Internally
c. Posteriorly
d. Anteriorly
a. Externally
59
Which of the following structural impairments would cause the ground reaction force to be posterior to the knee?
a. Genu recurvatum
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Knee valgus
d. Knee flexion contracture
d. Knee flexion contracture
60
At midstance, the ground reaction force (GRF) creates what type of torque at the ankle?
a. Supination
b. Plantarflexion
c. Pronation
d. Dorsiflexion
d. Dorsiflexion
61
When using an assistive device, such as a cane, for ambulation the patient should use the device
a. In the contralateral hand
b. On the effected side
c. Under supervision of a therapist
d. With a gait belt
a. In the contralateral hand
62
When does push-off occur?
a. Terminal Swing
b. Pre-Swing
c. Initial Swing
d. Initial Contact
b. Pre-Swing
63
During terminal swing:
a. The knee flexes rapidly
b. The pelvis rotates backwards 5 degrees
c. The knee extends and prepares for initial contact
d. The ankle plantarflexes to 5 degrees
c. The knee extends and prepares for initial contact
64
During normal gait, the knee will flex to ________ degrees during loading response.
a. 5
b. 25
c. 15
d. 40
a. 5
65
What is the maximal amount of dorsiflexion the ankle experiences during a normal gait cycle
a. 25
b. 30
c. 10
d. 40
c. 10
66
What type of moment is created at the knee during stance in the coronal plane?
a. varus moment
b. valgus moment
c. flexion moment
d. internal rotation
a. varus moment
67
During normal gait, the knee extends to allow the tibia to reach a vertical position during:
a. Loading response
b. Midstance
c. Terminal stance
d. Midswing
d. Midswing
68
The action of the pretibial muscles in midswing allow for:
a. Knee stability
b. Toe clearance
c. Single limb support
d. Tibial progression
b. Toe clearance
69
At what phase of gait does the gastroc / soleus muscles peak?
a. Midstance
b. Terminal Stance
c. Loading Response
d. Terminal Swing
b. Terminal Stance
70
You are assessing a new patient and during gait analysis you notice a minimal amount of heel contact at loading response and forefoot contact is rapid. Knee flexion is also minimal at loading response. There is decreased dorsiflexion at mid- stance and forefoot rocker starts early accompanied by rapid heel rise. What structural impairment may be causing this?
a. Paralytic foot drop
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Plantarflexion contracture
c. Plantarflexion contracture
71
Lateral displacement of the pelvis helps to bring the COM under the supporting foot and creates a gait width of
a. 2 inches
b. 4 mm
c. 6 inches
d. 2 cm
a. 2 inches
72
At mid-swing which muscles are active to ensure the foot clears the ground by 1 cm?
Pretibials
73
During Passive Stability, the GRF must be located _________ to the hip and _______ to the knee to maintain stability without utilizing muscle action.
a. posterior to the hip, anterior to the knee
b. posterior to the hip, posterior to the knee
c. anterior to the hip, anterior to the knee
a. posterior to the hip, anterior to the knee
74
At what phase of gait are hamstrings firing to decelerate the advancing limb in preparation for the task of weight acceptance?
a. Terminal stance
b. Preswing
c. Midswing
d. Terminal swing
d. Terminal swing
75
If the prosthetic foot is too dorsiflexed/anteriorly placed, what deviation of gait will we expect to see in early stance phases of gait?
a. Delayed tibial progression
b. Rapid knee flexion
c. Knee hyperextension
d. Varus thrust
b. Rapid knee flexion
76
Initial contact is defined as:
The moment when the foot contacts the ground
77
Which determinant of gait occurs in the transverse plane?
a. horizontal pelvic rotation
b. pelvic tilt
c. lateral pelvic displacement
d. knee flexion
a. horizontal pelvic rotation
78
A positive Trendelenburg sign is caused by loss of the
a. Biceps femoris
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Psoas major
b. Gluteus medius
79
During terminal swing, how far does the body free fall before initial contact?
a. 1 cm
b. 0.02 cm
c. 33cm
d. 60mm
a. 1 cm
80
Why are the hamstrings active at TSw?
a. to decelerate the thigh
b. stance stability
c. foreward progression
d. ensure full knee extension
a. to decelerate the thigh
81
In normal ambulation, the Quadriceps are most active during
a. Pre-swing to terminal stance
b. Mid-stance only
c. Initial contact to loading response
d. Terminal swing to mid-swing
c. Initial contact to loading response
82
In reference to the knee, what position is the GRF at Loading Response?
Posterior
83
At Weight Acceptance, the subtalar joint moves into _____________ motion which assists with shock absorption, reduces rotary stress at the ankle and absorbs shear forces on the plantar surface of the foot.
a. pronation
b. supination
c. dorsiflexion
d. plantarflexion
a. pronation
84
In theory, what do the 6 determinants of gait aim to do?
a. Improve speed and style of normal human locomotion
b. Allow the human to advance from a quadruped to a biped
c. Reduce the magnitude of vertical and lateral displacement of the center of mass
d. Increase energy expenditure by adding compensatory pelvic motions
c. Reduce the magnitude of vertical and lateral displacement of the center of mass
85
At IC, the GRF is _________ to the knee in the sagittal plane.
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. medial
d. lateral
a. anterior
86
what position is the hip in during midswing?
a. 25 degrees flexion
b. 60 degrees flexion
c. 5 degrees flexion
d. 10 degrees hyperextension
a. 25 degrees flexion
87
How much ankle ROM is needed for normal gait in the sagittal plane?
25 degrees
88
What is the most common deformity that causes decreased ROM and thus gait abnormalities?
a. contractures
b. abnormal joint contours c. congenital disorders
d. pain
a. contractures
89
Posterior offset knee joints provide stability during what phase of gait?
a. Swing phase
b. Initial contact
c. Terminal stance
d. Mid-stance
d. Mid-stance
90
70% of the body's weight is located in:
a. Locomotor Unit
b. Center of Mass
c. Passenger Unit
d. Pelvis
c. Passenger Unit
91
A person with weakness in the gluteus maximus and hamstrings muscles would most like display an excessive:
a. knee flexion moment
b. knee extension moment c. hip flexion moment
d. hip extension moment
c. hip flexion moment
92
During the Ankle Rocker, what controls the rate of tibial progression?
a. soleus muscle
b. gastroc muscle
c. elastic recoil of the plantarflexors
d. ankle dorsiflexors
a. soleus muscle
93
In the sagittal plane at Initial Contact, the GRF creates what type of moment at the ankle during normal gait?
a. plantarflexion
b. dorsiflexion
c. inversion
d. eversion
a. plantarflexion
94
The stance period of a gait cycle comprises approximately ____________ % of the total for a normal gait cycle
60
95
In normal gait, the___________ muscles reach peak activity to control the rate of ankle _____________ in early loading response.
a. Gastroc; plantarflexion
b. Gastroc; dorsiflexion
c. Pretibial; dorsiflexion
d. Pretibial;plantarflexion
d. Pretibial;plantarflexion
96
What is a possible cause for a patient experiencing foot slap in their transfemoral prosthesis immediately after initial contact?
a. heel bumper too soft
b. patient lost weight
c. heel bumper too firm
d. knee flexion resistance too strong
a. heel bumper too soft
97
In normal gait, during initial and mid-swing, the action of the pretibial muscles are:
a. Isometric
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. isotonic
c. Concentric
98
At what phase is the dorsiflexors at rest?
a. TSt
b. IC
c. LR
d. ISw
a. TSt
99
During normal gait, the ____________ undergoes a _____________ contraction during loading response to allow the knee to flex for shock absorption while preventing it from over flexing.
a. Hamstrings; concentric b. Hamstrings; eccentric
c. Quadriceps; concentric
d. Quadriceps;eccentric
d. Quadriceps;eccentric
100
The reversal motion of the subtalar joint afer midstance is caused by the external rotation of the tibia, and it in turn is being driven by:
a. Pelvic obliquity of the contralateral hip
b. Forward pelvic rotation of the contralateral hip
c. Forward pelvic rotation of the ipsilateral hip
d. Pelvic obliquity of the ipsilateral hip
b. Forward pelvic rotation of the contralateral hip
101
What is the fulcrum point of the heel rocker?
a. calcaneus
b. ankle
c. achilles
d. MTP joint
a. calcaneus
102
At terminal stance in the sagittal plane, the GRF is _________ to the knee, making it __________.
a. Anterior; Unstable
b. Anterior;Stable
c. Posterior; Stable
d. Posterior; Unstable
b. Anterior;Stable
103
Which anatomical landmark acts as the fulcrum for the forefoot rocker?
a. Ankle
b. Calcaneus
c. Metatarsal heads
d. Malleoli
c. Metatarsal heads
104
At what subphase of gait does maximum ankle dorsiflexion occur?
a. Initial contact
b. Mid-swing
c. Mid-stance
d. Terminal stance
d. Terminal stance
105
What causes foot drop?
a. plantarflexion contracture
b. dorsiflexor weakness
c. spasticity
d. equinovarus deformity
b. dorsiflexor weakness
106
If the prosthetic foot is too dorsiflexed, what deviation of gait will we expect to see in early stance phases of gait?
a. Delayed tibial progression
b. Knee hyper flexion
c. Knee hyper extension
b. Knee hyper flexion
107
Which muscles prevent foot slap at Initial Contact?
a. Dorsiflexors
b. Plantarflexors
c. Quadriceps
d. Evertors
a. Dorsiflexors
108
Define: Steppage gait
a. excessive knee flexion during swing
b. excessive ankle dorsiflexion during swing
c. asymmetrical step lengths
d. gait traversing up or down stairs
a. excessive knee flexion during swing
109
During quiet standing and peak midstance, the anatomical joint that requires muscle activity for stabilization is the:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
d. Metatarsal-phalangeal
c. Ankle
110
In normal gait, maximum hip flexion angle is:
a. 90 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 25 degrees
d. 40 degrees
c. 25 degrees
111
At initial contact, the GRF creates what type of moment at the hip during normal gait?
a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. forward rotation
a. flexion
112
At terminal stance the GRF on the stance side is _____ to the hip and _____ to the ankle.
a. Anterior; posterior
b. Posterior; anterior
c. Anterior; Anterior
d. Posterior; Posterior
b. Posterior; anterior
113
Maximum hip extension occurs at which phase of gait?
a. Mid-swing
b. Terminal swing
c. Terminal stance
d. Mid-stance
c. Terminal stance
114
Prosthetic deviations at mid-stance are best viewed from the
a. Sagittal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Coronal plane
d. Tri-planar view
c. Coronal plane
115
Impact is reduced during ___________________ through shock absorbing actions of the hip, knee, and ankle
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance
b. Loading response
116
How much MTP motion is needed for the Toe Rocker at PreSwing?
a. 55 degrees hyperextension
b. 25 degrees hyperextension
c. 0 degrees
d. 21 degrees flexion
a. 55 degrees hyperextension
117
The knee rapidly flexes to 40 degrees at which phase of the gait cycle?
a. PSw
b. ISw
c. LR
d. MSw
a. PSw
118
The gastroc inserts ____________, causing strong _______________ capabilities.
a. laterally/ eversion
b. medially/ eversion
c. laterally/ inversion
d. medially/ inversion
a. laterally/ eversion
119
The forefoot rocker action in late stance phases initiates knee ______________ for swing phase and assists in efficient clearance of the foot with the ground.
a. Extension
b. Valgum
c. Flexion
d. Varum
c. Flexion
