Gastric Flashcards

(106 cards)

1
Q

Gastric volvulus results when the stomach twists on itself, but
rarely occurs unless there is an associated

A

diaphragmatic hernia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

, the stomach folds on its
short axis, which runs across the stomach from the lesser curvature
to the greater curvature, with
the antrum twisting anteriorly and superiorly.

A

In mesenteroaxial volvulus

Mesenteroaxial volvulus
is often incomplete and intermittent, manifesting chronic symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

organoaxial volvulus, the stomach twists along its long
axis, which passes through the esophagastric junction region to
the pylorus.

A

In most cases, the antrum rotates anteriorly and
superiorly and the fundus posteriorly and inferiorly, twisting the
greater curvature at some point along its length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute gastric volvulus causes sudden severe pain in the upper
abdomen or lower chest, associated with the inability to swallow.

A

Persistent unproductive retching is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The combination of pain, unproductive

retching, and inability to pass a nasogastric tube is called

A

Borchardt triad

If the volvulus is associated with a diaphragmatic
hernia, plain chest or abdominal films will show a large gas-filled
structure in the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acute gastric volvulus is an emergency, with a mortality rate in

A

the vicinity of 30%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

signs of gastric infarction are not present,
acute endoscopic detorsion may be considered. Using fluoroscopy,
the endoscope is advanced to form an alpha loop in the
proximal stomach

A

The tip is passed through the area of torsion
into the antrum or duodenum if possible, avoiding excess
pressure. Torque may then reduce the gastric volvulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

type 1 gastroesophageal
varices (GOV1) extend 2 to 5 cm below the gastroesophageal
junction and are in continuity with esophageal varices;

A

type 2 gastroesophageal varices (GOV2) are in the cardia and

fundus of the stomach and in continuity with esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

varices that occur in the fundus of the stomach in the absence of
esophageal varices are called isolated gastric varices type 1 (IGV1),

A

whereas varices that occur in the gastric body, antrum, or pylorus
are called isolated gastric varices type 2 (IGV2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Approximately 25% of patients with portal hypertension have
gastric varices, most commonly GOV1, which comprise approximately
70% of all gastric varices. Intrahepatic causes of portal
hypertension may be associated with both GOV1 and GOV2.
Splenic vein thrombosis usually results in IGV1, but the most common
cause of fundal gastric varices may be cirrhosis

A

Gastric varices typically occur in association with advanced portal
hypertension. Bleeding is thought to be more common in patients
with GOV2 and IGV1 than in those with other types of gastric
varices; in other words, bleeding is more common from fundal varices
than from varices at the gastroesophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gastric varices, however,

tend to be larger in diameter than esophageal varices.

A

Gastric
varices are supported by gastric mucosa, whereas esophageal varices
tend to be unsupported in the lower third of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Although gastric varices
have been thought to bleed less frequently than esophageal varices,
the bleeding rates probably are comparable if patients are matched
for the severity of cirrhosis (Child-Turcotte-Pugh score

A

Large gastric varices (>20 mm diameter), especially in patients
with a MELD score above 17, are most likely to bleed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cyanoacrylate glue injection
may be more effective than beta blocker therapy in preventing
gastric variceal bleeding246 but is not currently recommended
until confirmed by larger studies. TIPS is also not recommended
for the primary prevention of gastric variceal bleeding. BRTO has
been used in uncontrolled studies to prevent bleeding from gastric
varices, with some success.

A

acute gastric variceal hemorrhage and includes volume
resuscitation, avoidance of overtransfusion, and antibiotic prophylaxis
with norfloxacin, 400 mg twice daily, or ciprofloxacin,
500 mg twice daily, for 7 days. EGD is carried out after patients
have been volume resuscitated and stabilized and often following
endotracheal intubation to protect the airway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

blood is found in the
stomach and gastric varices with a “white nipple sign” (indicating
a fibrin-platelet plug) are seen in the absence of other causes
of bleeding; or gastric varices are noted in the absence of other
lesions in the esophagus and stomach.

A

Medical
management with vasoactive agents should be started as early as
possible, preferably at least 30 minutes before endoscopic therapy
is carried out. The preferred endoscopic therapy for fundal gastric
variceal bleeding is injection of polymers of cyanoacrylate, usually
N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Obliteration of the varices occurs
when the injected cyanoacrylate adhesive hardens on contact with
blood.

A

The endoscope may be damaged by the glue, but the risk is
minimized if silicone gel is used to cover the tip of the instrument
and suction is avoided for 15 to 20 seconds following injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cyanoacrylate injection has been
found to be superior to both variceal band ligation and sclerotherapy
using alcohol.251 Complications of cyanoacrylate injection
include bacteremia and variceal ulceration

A

For injection of GOV2 or IGV1, a retroflexed endoscopic

approach is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It is much easier to
obliterate GOV1 than GOV2 or IGV1. IGV1 are the most difficult
gastric varices to obliterate and, when present, should prompt
early consideration of definitive treatment such as portosystemic
shunting if cyanoacrylate is not available.

A

Band ligation of varices greater than
10 mm in diameter is usually unsafe. Ligation is safest if the varices
are in the cardia of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If endoscopic and pharmacologic therapies fail to control gastric
variceal bleeding, then a Linton-Nachlas tube may be passed
as a temporizing measure. Most patients in whom endoscopic and
pharmacologic treatment fails to control gastric variceal bleeding
will require a TIPS, which can control bleeding in greater than
90% of patients—

A

Patients require an average of 2 or 3 sessions for obturation of
gastric varices with cyanoacrylate polymers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Comparison of Portal Hypertensive Gastropathy (PHG) and
GAVE
Feature

PHG
Proximal stomach
Mosaic pattern Present
Red color signs Present

A

GAVE
Distal stomach
Mosaic pattern Absent
Red color signs Present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The stomach volume
ranges from approximately 30 mL in a neonate to 1.5 to 2 L in
adulthood.
The stomach is recognizable in the fourth week of gestation
as a dilation of the distal foregut

A

As the stomach
enlarges, the dorsal aspect grows more rapidly than the ventral
aspect, therefore forming the greater curvature. Additionally,
during the enlargement process the stomach rotates 90 degrees orienting the greater curvature (the
dorsal aspect) to the left and the lesser curvature (ventral aspect)
to the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

right vagus nerve innervating
the posterior stomach wall (the primordial right side) and
the left vagus nerve innervating the anterior wall (the primordial
left side).

A

The esophagogastric
junction generally lies to the left of the T10 vertebral body,
1 to 2 cm below the diaphragmatic hiatus. The gastroduodenal
junction lies at L1 and generally to the right of the midline in
the recumbent fasted individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The esophagogastric
junction generally lies to the left of the T10 vertebral body,
1 to 2 cm below the diaphragmatic hiatus. The gastroduodenal
junction lies at L1 and generally to the right of the midline in
the recumbent fasted individual

A

The greater curvature forms the left lower stomach border,
whereas the lesser curvature forms the right upper border. Posteriorly,
portions of the pancreas, transverse colon, diaphragm,
spleen, and apex of the left kidney and adrenal gland bound the
stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The posterior wall of the stomach actually comprises
the anterior wall of the omental bursa, or lesser peritoneal sac.
Anteriorly, the liver bounds the stomach, whereas the inner
aspect of the anterior abdominal wall bounds the anterior left
lower aspect.

A

The stomach is completely invested by peritoneum,
except for a small bare area at the esophagogastric junction.
This peritoneum passes as a double layer from the lesser curvature
to the liver as the gastrohepatic portion of the lesser
omentum and then hangs down from the fundus and greater
curvature as the greater omentum, extending to the transverse
colon (as the gastrocolic ligament), spleen (as the gastrosplenic
ligament), and diaphragm (as the gastrophrenic
ligament).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The arterial blood supply to the stomach is derived from branches
of the celiac artery—common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic
arteries

A

that form 2 arterial arcades situated along the lesser

curvature and the lower two thirds of the greater curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The lesser curvature is supplied from above by the left gastric artery and from below by the right gastric artery, a branch of the common hepatic artery or gastroduodenal artery (which is a branch of the common hepatic artery).
The greater curvature below the fundus is supplied from above by the left gastroepiploic artery (a branch of the splenic artery) and from below by the right gastroepiploic artery (a branch of the gastroduodenal artery). The right and left gastroepiploic arteries usually terminate by anastomosing, therefore completing the greater curvature arterial arcade; occasionally they end without anastomosis The greater curvature below the fundus is supplied from above by the left gastroepiploic artery (a branch of the splenic artery) and from below by the right gastroepiploic artery (a branch of the gastroduodenal artery
26
The arterial supply to the gastric fundus and left upper aspect of the greater curvature is via the short gastric arteries, which arise from the splenic artery
the short gastric arteries, which arise from the splenic artery. The venous drainage of the stomach generally accompanies the arterial supply, emptying into the portal vein or 1 of its tributaries, the splenic or superior mesenteric veins
27
The left gastroepiploic vein becomes the splenic vein and later receives the short gastric veins, therefore draining the fundus and upper great curvature of the stomach.
The inferior gastric region drains into subpyloric and omental nodes, then the hepatic nodes, terminating in the celiac nodes The superior gastric or lesser curvature region lymph drains into the left and right gastric nodes adjacent to their respective vessels and terminates in the celiac nodes.
28
The gastric sympathetic innervation is derived from preganglionic fibers arising predominantly from T6 to T8 spinal nerves,
The parasympathetic innervation is via the right and left vagus nerves, which form the distal esophageal plexus, and gives rise to the posterior and anterior vagal trunks near the gastric cardia.
29
The luminal surface of the gastric wall forms thick, longitudinally oriented folds, or rugae, that flatten with distention. Four layers make up the gastric wall: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, and serosa
The mucosa of the cardia, antrum, | and pylorus is somewhat paler than that of the fundus and body.
30
It is within the fundic and body mucosa that most of the functional secretory elements of the stomach are located submucosa, immediately deep to the mucosa, provides the dense connective tissue skeleton of collagen and elastin fibers. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, arterioles, venules, lymphatics, and the submucosal plexus are also contained within the submucosa
The third tissue layer, the muscularis propria, is a combination of 3 muscle layers: inner oblique, middle circular, and outer longitudinal. The inner oblique muscle fibers course over the gastric fundus, covering the anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach wall; the middle circular fibers encircle the body of the stomach, thickening distally to become the pyloric sphincter; and the outer longitudinal muscle fibers course primarily along the greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach
31
inner oblique, middle circular, and outer longitudinal.
The inner oblique muscle fibers course over the gastric fundus, covering the anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach wall; the middle circular fibers encircle the body of the stomach, thickening distally to become the pyloric sphincter; and the outer longitudinal muscle fibers course primarily along the greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach
32
typical gland is subdivided into 3 areas: the isthmus (where surface mucous cells predominate), the neck (where parietal and mucous neck cells predominate), and the base (where chief cells predominate, along with some parietal and mucous neck cells).
Chief cells, also known as zymogen cells, predominate in deeper layers of the oxyntic glands. These pyramid-shaped cells play a role in synthesis and secretion of pepsinogens I and II.
33
Those cells containing granules that reduce silver without pretreatment are called argentaffin cells. Argentaffin cells that stain with potassium dichromate are enterochromaffin (EC) cells; most ECs contain serotonin
weeks 5 and 6 of embryologic development, the duodenal lumen is temporarily obliterated owing to proliferation of its mucosal lining
34
patients with gastric erosion(s) or ulcer(s), thick gastric fold(s), gastric polyp(s) or mass(es), and for diagnosis of Hp infection (discussed later). Two biopsies should be taken from the antrum (lesser and greater curvatures), one from the incisura angularis, and 2 more from the gastric body (lesser and greater curvatures)
Acute gastritis, characterized by dense infiltration of the stomach with neutrophilic leukocytes
35
Phlegmonous (suppurative) gastritis is an infection of the gastric submucosa and muscularis propria, often sparing the mucosa
The mortality rate of phlegmonous gastritis is close to 70%, Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam is one empiric regimen that can be used
36
Chronic gastritis is much more common than acute gastritis, | although it may be clinically silent
are risk factors for other diseases such as PUD and gastric neoplasms, including adenocarcinoma and lymphoma (MALToma),
37
Three types of chronic gastritis are recognized: diffuse antral gastritis which is usually due to Hp infection, environmental metaplastic atrophic gastritis (EMAG), and autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis
Hp is a gram-negative helical- or spiral-shaped flagellated bacterium.
38
A form of Hp gastritis characterized by mucosal infiltration by plasma cells that contain Russell bodies (Russell body gastritis) has been described
A form of Hp gastritis that can be recognized endoscopically is nodular gastritis, which can resolve following eradication of the organism from the Nodular gastritis/gastropathy is recognized by its chicken-skin appearance and can be seen in other conditions, including Crohn disease, syphilitic gastritis, lymphocytic (varioliform) gastritis, collagenous gastritis (all discussed later), and in AA-amyloidosis
39
Hp infection is the most common chronic bacterial infection in humans. Estimates suggest that over 50% of the world’s population is infected with the bacterium, including 70% to 80% of populations in developing nations.
key risk factor for infection is socioeconomic status during childhood. Infection is commonly acquired at an early age, particularly in developing countries where the majority of children become infected before the age of 10.
40
serologic evidence of Hp infection is uncommon in children before age 10, but rises to 10% in adults between 18 and 30 years of age, and further increases to 50% in those age 60 or older
Organism loads are 100-fold higher in vomitus when compared with stool and saliva; organisms are also present in aerosolized vomitus out to 1.2 m during the act of vomiting.
41
Hp contain 6 to 8 flagella at one end of their bodies and flagella- mediated motility is one of the few characteristics shown to be required for successful Hp colonization of the host
Exposure of Hp to low gastric pH levels increases expression of bacterial genes encoding urease.55 Urease helps Hp adapt to the acidic gastric milieu, allowing a more neutral pH to occur near the bacteria as its urease splits urea into CO2 and ammonia (NH3), with the NH3 reacting with H+ to produce ammonium ion (NH4 +)
42
Hp show strict tropism for gastric-type mucosa, including in | nongastric regions of the GI tract where there is gastric metaplasia
Metaplasia may also be associated with hypochlorhydria/ achlorhydria, encouraging overgrowth of the stomach with other (non-Hp) species of bacteri
43
A key interaction between Hp and gastric epithelium is mediated by a segment of bacterial DNA referred to as the cag pathogenicity island (cag PAI).
identify Hp in a gastric biopsy specimen: biopsy urease testing, histology, and culture. The choice of method depends on the clinical situation, cost, availability, and test accuracy.125 For each method, either 1 or 2 biopsies are obtained from both the antrum and corpus
44
``` Serology (qualitative or quantitative IgG) Widely available Inexpensive Good NPV Poor PPV if Hp prevalence is low Not useful after treatment ``` Urea breath (13C or 14C) Identifies active infection Accuracy (PPV, NPV) not affected by Hp prevalence Useful both before and after treatment Availability and reimbursement inconsistent Accuracy affected by PPI and antibiotic use Small radiation dose with14C test Stool antigen Identifies active infection Accuracy (PPV, NPV) not affected by Hp prevalence Useful both before and after treatment Fewer data available Accuracy affected by PPI and antibiotic use
To improve sensitivity in such patients, stopping the potentially problematic medication and delaying EGD for 2 weeks (if possible) can be considered, and testing multiple (>2) biopsy samples from the antrum and corpus may be attempted.
45
Histologic examination had been considered the gold standard for identifying infection, with reported sensitivity and specificity as high as 95% and 98%, respectively.
Culture of mucosal biopsies is difficult because Hp is fastidious and slow growing, requiring specialized media and growth environment
46
In chronic atrophic gastritis (gastric atrophy),148-168 loss of specialized cells within gastric glands, such as parietal and chief cells, leads to a reduction or absence of their secreted products, such as intrinsic factor (IF) and hydrochloric acid (hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria) as well as pepsinogen, with an increased risk of adverse consequences such as vitamin B12 malabsorption, gastric bacterial overgrowth, and enteric infections
Two types of chronic atrophic gastritis are recognized (Fig. 52.2, and Fig. 52.3B and C): an environmental metaplastic EMAG, also called multifocal atrophic gastritis, and an autoimmune metaplastic AMAG, also called diffuse corporal atrophic gastritis. EMAG (usually due to chronic Hp infection) and AMAG (usually due to autoreactive T and B/plasma cells against various antigens of the parietal cell)
47
EMAG is characterized by involvement of both the gastric | antrum and corpus with glandular atrophy and IM
important for endoscopists to obtain at least 2 biopsies from the antrum, 1 from the incisura angularis, and 2 from the gastric body in order for the pathologist to be able to render a diagnosis of EMAG
48
AMAG, also called diffuse corporal atrophic gastritis, is an autoimmune destruction of glands in the corpus of the stomach. AMAG is the pathologic process underlying pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disorder
Examination of mucosal biopsy specimens shows inflammatory debris, chronic active gastritis, and enlarged cells with CMV inclusion bodies indicative of an active infection (Fig. 52.7A). “Owl-eye” intranuclear inclusions are the hallmark of CMV infection in routine H&E histologic preparations and may be found in vascular endothelial cells, mucosal epithelial cells, and connective tissue stromal cells IV ganciclovir or foscarnet, along with reducing immunosuppression, if feasible
49
Barium-air double-contrast radiographs show a cobblestone pattern, shallow ulcerations with a ragged contour, and an interlacing network of crevices filled with barium that corresponds to areas of ulceration.
Measles, caused by rubeola virus, has many GI manifestation, including, rarely, gastritis. The characteristic histologic pattern is of numerous multinucleated giant cells (Warthin-Finkeldey cells
50
Erosions and acute ulcers of the gastric mucosa may occur rapidly after major physical or thermal trauma, shock, sepsis, or head injury. These are often referred to as stress ulcers
Injury to the stomach from external ionizing radiation can be classified as acute (<6 months) or chronic (>1 year) (see Chapter 41).302,303 It is thought that the tolerance level for radiationinduced gastropathy is approximately 4500 cGy. With a gastric dose of ≥5500 cGy, most patients will develop clinical evidence of gastropathy and/or gastric ulcer formation
51
Ménétrier’s disease is typically but not always associated with protein-losing gastropathy (see Chapter 31) and with hypochlorhydria, whereas its rare hyperplastic, hypersecretory variant is associated with increased or normal acid secretion and parietal and chief cell hyperplasia, with or without excessive gastric protein loss. Ménétrier’s disease has been associated with infection with Hp, CMV, and HIV.
Historically, recommended Hp treatment regimens generally included a PPI plus 2 antibiotics for 10 to 14 days. However, recent recommendations have moved toward a standard 14-day treatment duration, as shorter treatment durations are associated with reduced effectiveness
52
quadruple combinations of a PPI and 3 antibiotics | or antimicrobial agents are now generally recommended
Clarithromycin triple therapy comprises the twice-daily combination of clarithromycin 500 mg, amoxicillin 1000 mg, and a PPI in standard dose taken for 14 days
53
Bismuth-based quadruple therapy is another recommended primary treatment option. It consists of the combination of a bismuth salt (e.g., bismuth subsalicylate or bismuth subcitrate), tetracycline, metronidazole and a PPI for 10 to 14 days. Because this regimen contains neither clarithromycin nor amoxicillin, it is an appropriate choice for patients who have previously used macrolides, who reside in areas with high (≥15%) macrolide resistance, and for those who are truly penicillin-allergic
``` Concomitant therapy (also known as nonbismuth-based quadruple therapy) is the quadruple combination of clarithromycin ```
54
``` Clarithromycin triple therapy PPI, clarithromycin 500 mg, and amoxicillin 1000 mg, each twice daily (or, if penicillin allergic, metronidazole 500 mg 3 times daily in place of amoxicillin) ``` 14
``` Bismuth-based quadruple therapy PPI twice daily, bismuth subcitrate or subsalicylate 4 times daily, tetracycline 500 mg 4 times daily, and metronidazole 250 to 500 mg 3 or 4 times daily ``` 10-14
55
``` Concomitant therapy PPI, clarithromycin 500 mg, and amoxicillin 1000 mg, and a nitroimidazole 500 mg, each twice daily 10-14 ```
Sequential therapy PPI and amoxicillin 1000 mg, both twice daily 5-7 PPI, clarithromycin 500 mg, and a nitroimidazole 500 mg, each twice daily 5-7
56
Hybrid therapy PPI and amoxicillin 1000 mg, both | twice daily
PPI, clarithromycin 500 mg, amoxicillin 1000 mg, and a nitroimidazole 500 mg, each twice daily
57
Bismuth-based quadruple therapy (see Table 52.7) 14 Strong Low Appropriate for patients who failed in
``` Levofloxacin triple therapy (see Table 52.7) 14 Strong Moderate (For duration, low) Appropriate for patients who failed initial treatment with a clarithromycin-based regimen ```
58
Sequential therapy involves a 2-step regimen, each of 5 to 7 days in duration. In the first step, a PPI is given with amoxicillin alone. In the second step, the PPI is given with clarithromycin and a nitroimidazole (typically tinidazole but possibly also metronidazole). This approach was developed in Europe where it had been widely adopted. It has not been extensively evaluated in trials conducted within North America but has not been found to be superior to other regimens
A combination of levofloxacin, omeprazole, nitazoxanide (“Alinia”) and doxycycline (referred to as “LOAD”) was found to be superior to clarithromycin-based triple therapy in a US randomized controlled trial.364 No further trials have been reported with this regimen.
59
The most important predictors of failure of treatment are antibiotic resistance and poor adherence to treatment
An ulcer in the GI tract can be defined as a 5 mm or larger break in the lining of the mucosa, with appreciable depth at endoscopy or with histologic evidence of submucosal extension. An erosion is a break less than 5 mm
60
The most frequent complication from PUD is bleeding
The principal risk factors of PUD are Hp infection and NSAID | use
61
Most patients with Hp infection have a pan-gastritis involving both the antral and fundic mucosa that lowers gastric acid secretion13 and predisposes to GU formation
Regular use of | NSAIDs increases the odds of GI bleeding up to 5- to 6-fold
62
This low risk of ulcer rebleeding after eradication of Hp was not seen in patients with bleeding ulcers who continued to take NSAIDs
Smoking, stress, type A personality, and excessive alcohol | use are some of the risk factors implicated for PUD.
63
Importantly, patients with a history of idiopathic bleeding ulcers have a 4-fold increased risk of recurrent ulcer bleeding and more than 2-fold increase in mortality compared to patients with history of Hp ulcers
The predominant symptom of patients with uncomplicated PUD is epigastric pain. Pain is typically associated with hunger, occurs at night, and is often relieved by food and antacids
64
EGD is the procedure of choice for diagnosis of uncomplicated PUD
If a DU or GU is found during EGD, gastric mucosal biopsies should be obtained for a rapid urease test to diagnose Hp infection Biopsies should also be taken from the edges of GUs because of risk of gastric cancer.
65
if the GU biopsies are benign, EGD is repeated 8 weeks later to confirm healing of the GU, because up to 4% of apparently benign GUs at initial endoscopy are subsequently found to be malignant.
Alarm Features in Patients With UGI Symptoms* Age older than 55 years with new-onset dyspepsia Family history of UGI cancer GI bleeding, acute or chronic, including unexplained iron deficiency Jaundice Left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (Virchow node) Palpable abdominal mass Persistent vomiting Progressive dysphagia Unintended weight loss *These features should prompt EGD and often other testing to establish a definitive diagnosis (
66
uninvestigated dyspepsia who are below 60 years of age should have a noninvasive test H and treatment if positive. Those with a negative test or do not respond to this approach should receive a trial of PPI therapy. Tricyclic antidepressants or prokinetic therapies can be tried if they are not responsive to PPI therapy
Patients older than age 60 presenting with new-onset upper abdominal symptoms suggestive of PUD should therefore be referred for EGD
67
Most physicians do not use antacids as primary therapy to heal ulcers but instead recommend their use to relieve dyspeptic symptoms. The most common adverse effect of magnesium-containing antacids is diarrhea. In contrast, aluminum- and calciumcontaining antacids may cause constipation.
When administered in the evening, H2RAs are effective in suppressing nocturnal acid output.46 H2RAs are well absorbed after oral dosing, and their absorption is not affected by food. H2RA nizatidine does not undergo first-pass metabolism, and its bioavailability approaches 100% with oral dosing.
68
PPIs decrease gastric acid secretion through inhibition of H+, K+-ATPase, the proton pump of the parietal cell
Absorption of the enteric-coated PPIs may be erratic, and peak serum concentrations are not achieved until 2 to 5 hours after oral administration. Although the plasma half-life of PPIs is short (≈2 hours), the duration of acid inhibition is long as a result of covalent binding of the active metabolite of the prodrug to the H+, K+-ATPase
69
``` TABLE 53.1 Risk Factors for NSAID Ulcers* Risk factor Risk ratio History of complicated ulcer 13.5 Use of multiple NSAIDs (including aspirin, COX-2 inhibitors) 9 Use of high doses of NSAIDs 7 Use of an anticoagulant 6.4 History of an uncomplicated ulcer 6.1 Age >70 years 5.6 Hp infection 3.5 Use of a glucocorticoid 2.2 *Not all NSAIDs pose the same risk. ```
Current evidence indicates that COX-2 inhibitors are as effective as a combination of nonselective NSAIDs combined with a PPI in patients at risk for ulcers.
70
Low CV risk Low GI NSAID at the lowest effective dose Mod GI NSAID plus a PPI, or celecoxib alone Hi GI Celecoxib plus a PPI
High CV risk† Low GI Naproxen or celecoxib, plus a PPI mod Naproxen or celecoxib, plus a PPI Hi Celecoxib plus a PPI if simple analgesics *Low GI risk denotes no risk factors (see Table 53.1); moderate GI risk denotes 1 or 2 risk factors; high GI risk denotes ≥3 risk factors, prior complicated ulcer, or concomitant use of low-dose aspirin or anticoagulants. All patients with a history of ulcer who require NSAIDs should be tested for Hp, and if infection is present, eradication therapy should be given (see Chapter 52). †High CV risk denotes the requirement for prophylactic low-dose aspirin for primary or secondary prevention of serious CV events. CV, cardiovascular.
71
Low ulcer risk: no risk factors. Patients without risk factors (see Table 53.1) are at very low risk of ulcer complications with NSAID use (≈1% per year). Rational use of NSAIDs, including avoidance of high doses of NSAIDs and use of a less ulcerogenic NSAID (e.g., ibuprofen, diclofenac) at the lowest effective dose is a cost-effective approach
Moderate ulcer risk: 1 or 2 risk factors. These patients should receive combination therapy with an antiulcer agent (a PPI or misoprostol) and an NSAID. Alternatively, substitution with celecoxib alone is as effective as the combination therapy mentioned earlier.
72
High ulcer risk: 3 or more risk factors, history of ulcer complications, or concomitant use of low-dose aspirin, glucocorticoids, or anticoagulant therapy
In general, NSAIDs should be avoided in these patients, not only because of the high risk of ulcer complications but also owing to the serious consequences of ulcer complications in the presence of comorbidities. Glucocorticoid therapy (without NSAID) can be considered if short-term antiinflammatory therapy is required for acute, self-limiting arthritis If regular anti-inflammatory therapy is required for chronic arthritis, the combination of celecoxib and a PPI offers the best GI protection
73
Defining patients with high cardiovascular risk remains arbitrary. The American Heart Association recommends that aspirin should be considered in all apparently healthy men and women whose 10-year risk for a cardiovascular event is 10% or above.
Ibuprofen can attenuate the cardioprotective effect of aspirin, possibly through competitive binding to platelet COX-1, and concomitant use of ibuprofen and low-dose aspirin, therefore, should be avoided
74
If an NSAID is deemed necessary in patients at high cardiovascular risk, current evidence suggests that either celecoxib at moderate dose (200 mg/ day) or naproxen can be considered
One major drawback of concomitant use of NSAIDs such as naproxen and low-dose aspirin is that the combination will markedly increase the risk of ulcer complications; thus, combination of celecoxib and low-dose aspirin may be the best available option for patients with high GI and high cardiovascular risk who require NSAIDs for long term
75
Volume resuscitation should take priority and precede endoscopy. Features of liver disease should call attention to the possibility of bleeding from esophagogastric varices rather than an ulcer.
Early endoscopy is generally defined as EGD performed within 24 hours of the patient’s admission. In patients with signs of active UGI bleeding, urgent endoscopy establishes a diagnosis and offers a possible intervention. RCTs demonstrated that early endoscopy in patients at low risk for rebleeding allowed early hospital discharge, reduced resource utilization, and facilitated management as outpatients.
76
The Rockall scoring system is a composite score using pre- and postendoscopy clinical parameters to predict mortality.
The Glasgow Blatchford score (GBS), on the other hand, uses only clinical parameters to predict the need for intervention and is calculated from patient’s Hgb level and blood urea concentration, pulse and systolic blood pressure on admission, the presence or absence of melena or syncope, as well as evidence of cardiac or hepatic failure.
77
GBS score of 1 appears to be the threshold for outpatient management. The GBS score, however, does not define a cutoff value above which urgent endoscopy becomes mandatory.
Type I: Active bleeding: Ia: Spurting hemorrhage (Fig. 53.4) Ib: Oozing hemorrhage (see Fig. 53.4) Type II: Stigmata of recent hemorrhage: IIa: Nonbleeding visible vessel (see Fig. 53.4) IIb: Adherent clot (see Fig. 53.4) IIc: Flat pigmentation (see Fig. 53.4) • Type III: Clean-base ulcers
78
Actively bleeding ulcers and ulcers with nonbleeding visible vessels (“protuberant discoloration” or a “sentinel clot”) warrant endoscopic therapy
concluded that clot removal followed by endoscopic treatment of the vessel underneath lowers the risk of recurrent bleeding from 30% to 5%.
79
sentinel clot, is often used synonymously with visible vessel.117 It represents a fibrin clot, which plugs the rent in an eroded artery. As the ulcer begins to heal, the clot resolves leaving a flat pigmentation to the ulcer base, which eventually disappears from the ulcer floor. This evolution of a bleeding vessel usually takes less than 72 hours. Ulcers with a flat pigmentation or a clean base do not warrant endoscopic therapy
The 30 day re-bleeding rate was lower with the use | of a Doppler probe to guide the treatment endpoint
80
The rationale for antisecretory therapy in bleeding PUD is based on the fact that both pepsin activity and platelet aggregation are pH dependent. An ulcer stops bleeding when a fibrin or platelet plug blocks the rent in a bleeding artery. When gastric pH exceeds 4, pepsin is inactivated, preventing enzymatic digestion of blood clots.
A gastric pH of 6 or greater is critical for clot stability and hemostasis. GU or DU who were receiving either a high dose of omeprazole (IV bolus 80 mg, followed by 8 mg/hr) or a high dose of ranitidine (IV bolus 50 mg, followed by 0.25 mg/kg/hr). The gastric pH exceeded 6 with omeprazole 99.9% of the time, but less than 50% of the time in patients receiving ranitidine
81
Perforation of a GU or DU (Fig. 53.5) is a surgical emergency that may be the initial manifestation of PUD, especially in patients using NSAIDs. Ulcer perforation is associated with a mortality approaching 30%. Older adults with significant comorbid illnesses and a delay in performing surgery have the worst prognosis.
Perforated gastroduodenal ulcer carries a high mortality rate one third of them caused by persistent leaks Large perforations (>10 mm) suggest sizable ulcerations and should also be managed by laparotomy; often, gastric resections are required in such patients.
82
GU accounts for approximately 20% of perforated peptic ulcers Malignancy is seen in approximately 6% of perforated GUs
Gastric outlet obstruction is now an infrequent complication of PUD. Its clinical manifestations—nausea and postprandial vomiting, abdominal fullness, pain, and early satiety
83
Patients with obstructing peptic ulcers are often volume depleted. The loss of fluid, hydrogen ions, and chloride ions in the vomitus leads to hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.
Endoscopic balloon dilation has been used successfully in patients with gastric outlet obstruction from PUD
84
The use of a balloon is preferred because its inflation produces a uniform radial force, which has a theoretical advantage over the longitudinal shearing force associated with the use of conventional dilators many authorities recommend dilation to 15 mm, which is often associated with relief of symptoms
Respiratory failure (OR 15.6) and coagulopathy (OR 4.3) were independent predictive factors for bleeding stress ulcers. In 2015, a prospective study152 of 1034 patients admitted to ICUs was published; clinically important GI bleeding occurred in 2.6% of patients. Those with 3 or more comorbid illnesses, liver disease, receiving renal replacement therapy, and with a high organ failure score were at risk. Patients in the ICU with traumatic brain injuries and burns also belong to a highrisk group of developing GI bleeding.
85
PPIs were more effective for preventing clinically important bleeding than H2RA (OR 0.38), sucralfate (OR 0.30), or placebo (OR 0.24). PPIs, however, increased the risk of nosocomial pneumonia compared with H2RA (OR 1.27), sucralfate (OR 1.65), and placebo
40 mg of intravenous PPI or placebo and found that deaths by 90 days were similar between groups (31.1% vs. 30.4%). The rate of composite adverse events (gastrointestinal bleeding, Clostridium difficile infection, pneumonia, or myocardial ischemia) were comparable (21.9 vs. 22.6%). There were fewer clinically important bleeding events in the PPI group
86
Gastric cancer can be subdivided using the Laurén classification into 2 distinct histologic subtypes with different epidemiologic and prognostic features (Fig. 54.2).7 The intestinal type of cancer is characterized by the formation of gland-like tubular structures with features reminiscent of intestinal glands. This type of gastric cancer is more closely linked to environmental and dietary risk factors,
The diffuse type of cancer lacks glandular structure and consists of poorly cohesive cells that infiltrate the wall of the stomach. It is found at the same frequency throughout the world, occurs at a younger age, and is associated with a worse prognosis than the intestinal form
87
Extensive involvement of the stomach by the diffuse type can result in a rigid and thickened stomach, a condition referred to as linitis plastic
Adenocarcinoma of the stomach is also classified into proximal tumors (EGJ and gastric cardia) and distal or nonjunctional tumors (fundus, body, and antrum of the stomach
88
Junctional cancers can be further classified according to the Siewert classification by the location of the main tumor mass into
Type I (1 to 5 cm above the EGJ), Type II (from 1 cm above to 2 cm below the junction), and Type III (2 to 5 cm below the junction) tumors
89
A common feature of the initiation and progression to intestinal-type gastric cancer is chronic inflammation oaf the gastric mucos
``` Risk Factors for Gastric Adenocarcinoma DEFINITE Adenomatous gastric polyps* Chronic atrophic gastritis Cigarette smoking Dysplasia* EBV History of gastric surgery (esp. Billroth II)* Hp infection Intestinal metaplasia GENETIC FACTORS Family history of gastric cancer (first-degree relative)* Familial adenomatous polyposis (with fundic gland polyps)* Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer* Juvenile polyposis* Peutz-Jeghers syndrome* PROBABLE High salt intake History of gastric ulcer Obesity (adenocarcinoma of the cardia only) Pernicious anemia* Regular aspirin or other NSAID use (protective) Snuff tobacco use POSSIBLE Diet high in nitrates Heavy alcohol use High ascorbate intake (protective) High intake of fresh fruits and vegetables (protective) Low socioeconomic status Ménétrier disease Statin use (protective) QUESTIONABLE High green tea consumption (protective) Hyperplastic and fundic gland polyps ```
90
Although it is currently assumed that presence of intestinal metaplasia is most likely to mark the point of no return, there is even an effect of Hp eradication if advanced lesions are present
The natural history of chronic Hp infection includes 3 possible outcomes34: (1) simple gastritis, where patients often remain asymptomatic; (2) duodenal ulcer phenotype, which occurs in 10% to 15% of infected subjects; and (3) gastric ulcer/gastric cancer phenotype
91
There is a general consensus that TP53 is the most commonly mutated gene in gastric cancer (60% to 70% of gastric cancers) and that mutations in Ras, APC, and Myc are rare
Chronic atrophic gastritis, which is defined as the loss of specialized glandular tissue in its appropriate region of the stomach, is an established morphologic change that occurs along the sequence toward the development of gastric cancer.238 The presence of atrophic gastritis has an annual incidence of progression to gastric cancer of approximately 0.1% to 1.0%.
92
There are 2 forms of atrophic gastritis (see Chapter 52). The more common is environmental multifocal atrophic gastritis, which is associated with Hp infection and more likely to be associated with metaplasia
The presence of Hp infection is associated | with an approximately 10-fold increased risk of atrophic gastritis.
93
second form of atrophic gastritis, autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis, is associated with anti-parietal cell and intrinsic factor antibodies. This form of atrophy is confined to the body and fundus. Autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis is associated with pernicious anemia and an increased gastric cancer risk, albeit not as high as that seen with Hp-induced MAG, owing most likely to a lesser degree of inflammation
Intestinal metaplasia (IM) can be subdivided into 3 categories, as classified by Filipe’s group.254 Type I (complete) IM contains goblet cells that secrete sialomucins and mature, nonsecretory absorptive cells. Type 1 IM is not a risk factor for gastric cancer. Type II (incomplete) IM contains few if any absorptive cells, columnar “intermediate” cells in various stages of differentiation secreting neutral or acidic sialomucins, and goblet cells secreting sialomucins and/or occasionally sulfomucins. Type III (incomplete) is less differentiated than type II, with the intermediate cells secreting mainly sulfomucins and the goblet cells secreting sialo- and/or sulfomucins. Type II or III IM is associated with an approximately 20-fold increased risk of gastric cancer.
94
Hyperplastic polyps are generally benign, often multiple, and are typically observed in the setting of chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g., chronic atrophic gastritis), pernicious anemia, chronic antral gastritis, adjacent to ulcers and erosions, and especially at sites of gastroenterostomies
In contrast to other polyps of the stomach, gastric adenomas undergo malignant transformation at a high rate. When gastric adenomas were followed by serial endoscopy with biopsy, progression through dysplasia to carcinoma in situ developed within 4 years in approximately 11% of cases
95
management of gastric polyps.278 Among the recommendations were: (1) all gastric polyps should be at least biopsied; (2) all gastric adenomas, symptomatic polyps, and polyps with dysplasia should be removed; and (3) Hp, if present, should be eradicated in patients with hyperplastic or adenomatous
The Billroth II operation with gastrojejunostomy predisposes to the development of cancer at a 4-fold higher rate than a Billroth I procedure with gastroduodenostomy, suggesting that bile reflux may be a significant predisposing factor
96
Gastric cancer is metastatic at the time of diagnosis in 33% of cases Early gastric cancers are asymptomatic in up to 80% of cases
When a nonhealing gastric ulcer is found, at least 6 to 8 biopsy specimens from the edge and base of the ulcer are recommended
97
American Gastroenterological Association has recommended that an upper endoscopy be performed in patients who are older than 55 years with new-onset dyspepsia and in patients younger than 55 years who have “alarm” symptoms (weight loss, recurrent vomiting, dysphagia, evidence of bleeding, anemia
Dyspeptic patients in whom an empirical trial of PPIs and eradication of Hp do not relieve symptoms should undergo prompt endoscopic evaluation as well.
98
polypoid (Ip and Is), nonpolypoid (IIa, IIb, and IIc), nonpolypoid and excavated (III). (From the Paris endoscopic classification of superficial neoplastic lesions: esophagus, stomach, and colon:
T1 tumors are confined to the mucosa (T1a) and submucosa (T1b); T2 tumors invade the muscularis propria but not the serosa; T3 tumors penetrate the subserosal connective tissue without involving the visceral peritoneum or contiguous structures; and T4 tumors invade the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and may involve adjacent organs and tissues
99
Accurate staging in gastric cancer is important for treatment decisions. EUS is the best-studied modality for the staging of gastric cancer and remains the test of choice for assessing tumor depth and nodal involvement
EUS allows the visualization of the 5 layers of the gastric wall. The superficial gastric mucosa is represented by an echogenic first layer, and the deeper mucosa by a hypoechogenic second layer; the submucosa is represented by an echogenic third layer, the muscularis propria as a hypoechogenic fourth layer, and the serosa as an echogenic fifth layer.
100
There are data to suggest that large tumor size (>5 cm) may be independently associated with worse survival, independent of nodal status or overall tumor stage
Lesions larger than 4.5 cm have a greater than 50% chance of spread into the submucosa, are associated with “positive” nodes, and are therefore less likely to be endoscopically resectable
101
The following criteria have been suggested for EMR in gastric cancer: (1) the cancer is located in the mucosa and the lymph nodes are not involved, as indicated by EUS examination; (2) the maximum size of the tumor is less than 2 cm when the lesion is slightly elevated (type IIa) and less than 1 cm when the tumor is flat or slightly depressed (type IIb or IIc) without an ulcer scar; (3) there is no evidence of multiple gastric cancers or simultaneous abdominal cancers; and (4) the cancer is of the intestinal type. Despite these guidelines, it is generally not possible to remove lesions larger than 1.5 to 2.0 cm en bloc by EMR, and piecemeal removal of EGC is associated with decreased rates of curative resection
The Japanese have developed expanded criteria for ESD for early gastric cancer: (1) mucosal intestinaltype cancer of any size without ulceration, (2) mucosal intestinaltype cancer less than 3 cm with ulceration, and (3) submucosal intestinal-type cancer less than 3 cm and with submucosal invasion less than 500 μm
102
Primary gastric lymphomas account for 5% of gastric neoplasms, with an increasing trend worldwide.16 The stomach is the most common extranodal site of lymphoma and accounts for 68% to 75% of PGILs.
GISTs comprise 1% to 3% of all malignant GI tumors; they are | the most common mesenchymal tumor of the GI tract
103
A simplified “rule of 5s” has been advocated in which size larger than 5 cm and more than 5 mitoses per 50 high-power fields (HPFs) define an intermediate-high risk gastric GIST and in which size larger than 5 cm or more than 5 mitoses per 50 HPFs define an intermediate-high risk nongastric GIST
``` Most GISTs (60% to 70%) arise in the stomach; 20% to 30% originate in the small intestine, and less than 10% in the esophagus, colon, and rectum. ```
104
The second most common site for GISTs to arise is in the small intestine. 98,99
In one report, approximately half of all small bowel tumors | identified on small bowel capsule endoscopy were GISTs
105
GISTs visualized by EUS appear as hypoechoic masses contiguous with the fourth (muscularis propria) or second (muscularis mucosae) layers of the normal gut wall. In one study,115 7 the EUS features most predictive of so-called benign GI GISTs were regular margins, tumor size 3 cm or less, and a homogeneous echogenicity pattern.
Multivariate analysis identified the presence of cystic spaces and irregular margins as independent predictors of malignant potential. A second study identified tumor size larger than 4 cm, irregular extraluminal borders, echogenic foci larger than 3 mm, and cystic spaces larger than 4 mm as factors that correlated with malignant behavior in GIST.
106
TABLE 30.5 Comparison of Eosinophilic Esophagitis and GERD
EoE Prevalence of atopy Very high Prevalence of food sensitization Involvement of proximal esophagus Yes