Gastro Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

What are associated with NASH?

A

Obesity
T2DM
hyperlipidaemia
jejunoileal bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the features of NASH?

A

asymptomatic
hepatomegaly
increased echogenity on US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Liver results for NASH

A

ALT>AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment plan for NAFLD/NASH?

A

lifestyle changes
weight loss
monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the urea breath test used to check?

A

eradication of H.pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long after eradication therapy can you use urea breath test?

A

4 weeks post treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is barrett’s oesophagus?

A

normal stratified squamous epithelial lining of the distal oesophagus is replaced by metaplastic columnar epithelial ( glandular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the risk factors for Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Over>50
male
Caucasian
smoking
obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the investigations for Barrets?

A

OGD + biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How often should surveillance occur is someone has Barrets?

A

no dysplasia - 2-5years
Mild dysplasia - 6m
high grade - 3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is main risk of barrets oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of oesophageal cancer?

A

dysphagia
anorexia
weight loss
odynophagia
hoarse voice
vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two types of oesophageal cancers and where are they typically found?

A

Squamous : upper 2/3 of oesophagus
Adenocarcinoma: distal 1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors for Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

A

GORD
Barrets
Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk factors for squamous cell cancer of oesophagus

A

smoking
alcohol
achalasia
plummer vinson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What investigations are performed for suspected oesophageal cancers?

A

Endoscopy + biopsy
Ultrasound for local staging
CT chest, abdo and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the most common causes of Acute upper GI bleed?

A

oesophagel varices
peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of Acute upper GI bleed?

A

Haematemesis ( bright red, coffee ground)
malena
raised urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some differential diagnosis for acute upper GI bleed?

A

Oesophageal causes:
Varices
Oesophagitis
Cancer
Mallory Weiss tear

Stomach :
Gastric ulcer
gastric cancer
diulafoy lesion
gastritis

Duodenum :
ulcer
fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Anatomy that counts as acute upper GI bleed?

A

oesophagus
stomach
duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of Oesophageal causes of Acute Upper GI Bleed

A

Varices : large volume of fresh red blood, malena, hemodynamically unstable, stops and restarts

Oesophagitis: small volume of blood ( streaky) , no malena, stops randomly

Mallory Weiss tear: after a large bout of vomiting, bright red, no malena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What risk assessment scores do you use for an acute upper gi bleed?

A

Blatchford ( pre assessment) –> determines whther patient is managed inpatient or not
Rockall (after endoscopy) –> risk of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Within how many hours after presenting with an acute gi bleed must a patient have an endoscopy?

A

all should have an endoscopy within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Management for Acute GI bleed if patient needs resuscitation?

A

A-E assessment
2 large bore cannulas
blood transfusion
platelets (actively bleeding and platelet count of less than 50 x 109/litre)
FFP
Prothrombin complex concentrate if patient on warfarin and actively bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Management of variceal bleed
-Terlipressin (at presentation) -antibiotics (at presentation) -Band ligation for oesophageal -N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for gastric varices -transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) offered if nothing else works
26
What blood test is good to monitor liver function in acute liver failure?
prothrombin time short half life
27
What is the gram staining of C.Diff?
gram positive rod
28
What causes C.diff?
Clindamycin 2nd and 3rd generation Cephalosporins
29
Investigation for C.Diff
stool sample detecting c diff toxin
30
Management of C.Diff
1st line - 10 days oral Vancomycin 2nd line - 10 days oral fidaxomicin 3rd line - oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole
31
What is first line treatment for Hepatorenal syndrome?
Terlipressin
32
What is the key test to determine the severity of C.diff?
WCC
33
Management of Crohns to induce remission
1st line - glucocorticosteroids ( pred) 2nd line - Mesalazine azathioprine or mercaptopurine may be added not used as monotherapy
34
1st line to maintain remission in crohns
azathioprine or mercaptopurine methotrexate second line
35
What are the features of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
ascites abdo pain fever
36
Investigations for diagnosis of SBP
paracentesis : neutrophil count > 250 cells/ul
37
What is the most common bacteria that causes SBP
E.coli
38
symptoms of Haemochromatosis
Fatigue ED Arthralgia bronze skin DM hepatic signs hypogonadism cardiac failure (2nd to dilated cardiomyopathy)
39
What is the inheritance pattern of haemochromatosis?
Aut rec mutation in HFE on Cr6
40
What management to perform if patient has variceal bleed but after initial treatment is still bleeding & awaiting OGD?
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
41
What sign on xray suggest UC?
Lead pipe colon
42
What medication should be avoided in bowel obstruction?
metoclopramide causes bowel obstruction
43
Whats the management of life threatening C.Diff?
Oral Vancomycin IV metronidazole
44
How long after last diarrhea episode should a patient with C.Diff be kept in isolation?
48 hours
45
What is pernicious anaemia?
autoimmune condition causing vitamin B12 deficiency antibodies against intrinsic factor blocking B12 binding site antibodies against gastric parietal cells
46
symptoms of pernicious anemia
anaemia symptoms: dyspnoea, pallor, lethargy pins and needles, weakness, ataxia, numbness, memory loss, poor concentration glossitis
47
Investigations of pernicious anaemia
FBC- low Hb, high MCV, Bloodfilm - hypersegmented Vitamin B12 and Folate levels antibodies for intrinsic factor
48
What is the management of pernicious anaemia?
Vitamin B12 replacement therapy regime for non neuro symptoms: 3 injections per week for 2 weeks followed by 3 monthly treatment of vitamin B12 injections
49
What is the criteria for mild flare of UC?
less that 4 stools a day ( with or without blood) no systemic features
50
What is the criteria for moderate flare of UC?
4-6 stools a day mild systemic symptoms
51
What is the criteria for Severe flare of UC?
>= 6 stool a day ( with blood) systemic symptoms - fever, abdo pain, hypoalbuminemia,
52
What to do if someone presents with new found dysphagia?
urgent referral for endoscopy
53
What is Achalasia?
failure of peristalsis and relaxation of LOS due to degeneration in auerbach's plexus
54
What are the symptoms of achalasia?
- dysphagia of solids and liquids - heart burn - regurgitation of food
55
What are the investigations of achalasia?
Oesophageal manometry --> Xs LOS tone after swallowing Barium swallow test --> birds beak look --> expanded oesophagus Chest Xray -->widened mediastinum --> Fluid level
56
What is first line management of achalasia?
pneumatic (balloon) dilation
57
What are the features of wilsons disease?
Brain --> basal ganglia degeneration --> speech, behavioural and psychiatric manifestations --> psychosis --> asterixis, parkinsonism Liver --> acute hepatitis --> Cirrhosis Cornea --> keyser fischer rings
58
What investigation confirms diagnosis of Wilsons?
ATP7B testing
59
What else is seen in investigations for Wilsons?
reduced serum caeruloplasmin reduced total serum copper increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
60
Management of wilsons
61
What should you also examine if a young male presents with lower abdominal pain?
testicular examination
62
What does a positive pANCA suggest?
PSC
63
Presenting features of pharyngeal pouch
cough halitosis difficulty swallowing regurgitation
64
What does High SAAG indication?
Portal hypertension liver cirrhosis, failure cardiac failure, constrictive pericarditis
65
How to manage ascites?
1) Spironolactone 2) prophylactic antibiotics to reduce risk of SBP Can drain
66
What type of hepatitis is associated with shell fish?
Hep A
67
What is triple therapy for H.Pylori?
1) PPI + Clarithro + metronidazole 2) PPI + Clarithro + amox
68
What is Sister Mary Joseph node indicative of?
metastatic umbilical lesion
69
Triad for Boerhavre syndrome
subcutaneous emphysema pain vomiting
70
What is gallstone ileus?
small bowel obstruction secondary to gallstones
71
What is used in the management of acute alcoholic hepatitis?
prednisolone
72
What investigation should be performed in all patients with suspected IBS?
Anti-TTG eliminate celiac
73
What is Melanosis coli?
abnormal pigmentation of the large bowel commonly associated with Laxative abuse
74
What location of an anal fissure should be concerning for Crohns?
Lateral anal fissure
75
Causes of macrocytic anaemia
F: Foetus A: Alcohol excess T: Thyroid (hypothyroid) R: Reticulocytosis (due to haemolytic anaemia as RBC precursors are bigger) B: B12/folate deficiency C: Cirrhosis (liver) M: Myeloproliferative disorders C: Cytotoxic drugs (e.g. 5-fluorouracil)
76
Brown coloured urine + diverticular disease + signs of large bowel obstruction
colovesical fistula
77
Induce remission of Crohns
Glucocorticosteroids Eternal feeding 5-ASA second line
78
What is Reynolds pentad?
Charcots triad + hypotension + confusion
79
What hepatitis is associated with undercooked pork?
Hep E
80
What needs to be administered for a large paracentesis of ascites?
IV human Albumin
81
How is SAAG calculated?
Serum Albumin - ascitic albumin
82
What does this describe : Extraluminal air is present along with a paracolic fluid collection
bowel perforation
83
What is tested for exocrine function of pancreas?
Faecal elastase
84
Severe abdominal pain + history of AF + PR bleeding
Acute mesenteric ischaemia
85
What test do you perform for acute mesenteric ischaemia?
Serum lactate
86
What are causes of normocytic anemia?
- Haemolytic anameia - blood loss - aplastic anaemia - anaemia of chronic disease - CKD
87
What investigation to perform for Crohns patients with fistula?
MRI pelvis
88
What antibiotics to use for anal fistula in Crohns patients?
oral metronidazole