Gastro 2 Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

Types o/f bariatric surgery

A

Primarily restrictive operations
* laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB)
it is normally the first-line intervention in patients with a BMI of 30-39kg/m^2
produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but as it has fewer complications
* sleeve gastrectomy
stomach is reduced to about 15% of its original size
* intragastric balloon
the balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of 6 months

Primarily malabsorptive operations
* biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch
usually reserved for very obese patients (e.g. BMI > 60 kg/m^2)

Mixed operations
Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery
is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action

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2
Q

What is the urea breath test?

A

patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea
urea is broken down by H. pylori urease
after 30 mins patient exhale into a glass tube
mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2
should not be performed within 4 weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within 2 weeks of an antisecretory drug (e.g. a proton pump inhibitor)
sensitivity 95-98%, specificity 97-98%
may be used to check for H. pylori eradication

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3
Q

What is the CLO test?

A

Rapid urease test (e.g. CLO test)
biopsy sample is mixed with urea and pH indicator
colour change if H pylori urease activity
sensitivity 90-95%, specificity 95-98%

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4
Q

what is haemochromatosis?

A

Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation. It is caused by the inheritance of mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6.

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5
Q

How is Haemochromatosis investigated?

A

There is continued debate about the best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis.
general population
transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker
ferritin should also be measured but is not usually abnormal in the early stages of iron accumulation
testing family members
genetic testing for HFE mutation

These guidelines may change as HFE gene analysis become less expensive

Typical iron study profile in patient with haemochromatosis
transferrin saturation > 55% in men or > 50% in women
raised ferritin (e.g. > 500 ug/l) and iron
low TIBC

Further tests - LFTs, MRI, liver biopsy

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6
Q

How is haemacromatosis managed?

A

venesection is the first-line treatment
monitoring adequacy of venesection: transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l
desferrioxamine may be used second-line

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7
Q

Investigations for pancreatic cancer?

A

ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90%
high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice if the diagnosis is suspected
imaging may demonstrate the ‘double duct’ sign - the presence of simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts

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8
Q

features of pancreatic cancer?

A

painless jaundice
pale stools, dark urine, pruritus
cholestatic liver function tests

the following abdominal masses may be found (in decreasing order of frequency)
hepatomegaly: due to metastases
gallbladder: Courvoisier’s law states that in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones
epigastric mass: from the primary tumour
many patients present in a non-specific way with anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain
loss of exocrine function (e.g. steatorrhoea)
loss of endocrine function (e.g. diabetes mellitus)
atypical back pain is often seen
migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) is more common than with other cancers

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9
Q

what is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition characterised by excessive levels of gastrin secondary to a gastrin-secreting tumour. The majority of these tumours are found in the first part of the duodenum, with the second most common location being the pancreas.

Around 30% of gastrinomas occur as part of MEN type I syndrome.

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10
Q

what are the features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome?
And how is it diagnosed?

A

Features
multiple gastroduodenal ulcers
diarrhoea
malabsorption

Diagnosis
fasting gastrin levels: the single best screen test
secretin stimulation test

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11
Q

How do you diagnose bile acid malabsorption

A

the test of choice is SeHCAT
nuclear medicine test using a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid (SeHCAT)
scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention/loss of radiolabelled 75SeHCAT

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12
Q

how is bile acid malabsorption managed?

A

bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

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13
Q

Prophylaxsis against variceal haemorrhage?

A

Propranolol - reduced rebreeding and mortality - non selective beta blocker which decreases portal venous pressure by reducing cardiac output and splanchnic blood flow

Endoscopic variceal band ligation (superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy)
Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.’
it should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated
proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration
Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be used if the above measures are unsuccessful in preventing further episodes

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14
Q

what are the causes of Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

polycythaemia rubra vera
thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies
pregnancy
combined oral contraceptive pill: accounts for around 20% of cases

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15
Q

features of Budd chairi syndrome?

A

The features are classically a triad of:
abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
ascites → abdominal distension
tender hepatomegaly

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16
Q

what is Budd chair syndrome?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome, or hepatic vein thrombosis, is usually seen in the context of underlying haematological disease or another procoagulant condition.

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17
Q

investigations for Budd Chiari syndrome?

A

ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

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18
Q

what happens in refeeding syndrome?

A

hypophosphataemia
this is the hallmark symptom of refeeding syndrome
may result in significant muscle weakness, including myocardial muscle (→ cardiac failure) and the diaphragm (→ respiratory failure)
hypokalaemia
hypomagnesaemia: may predispose to torsades de pointes
abnormal fluid balance

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19
Q

what is the pathophysiology of hypophosphataemia in refeeding syndrome?

A

Shift from Fat to Carbohydrate Metabolism: In refeeding syndrome, the reintroduction of carbohydrates leads to a shift from fat to carbohydrate metabolism. This switch activates insulin secretion, which in turn increases cellular uptake of glucose.
Intracellular Movement of Phosphate: Insulin and increased glucose uptake stimulate the intracellular movement of phosphate, which is used in the synthesis of ATP and 2,3-diphosphoglycerate in erythrocytes. This intracellular shift reduces serum phosphate levels.
Decreased Phosphate Stores: Patients with chronic malnutrition often have depleted phosphate stores, although their serum phosphate levels may initially be normal. When refeeding starts, the sudden demand for phosphate in anabolic processes exceeds the supply, leading to hypophosphatemia.

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20
Q

clinical consequences of hypophphopshataemia in referring syndrome?

A

Cardiac Dysfunction: Hypophosphatemia can impair myocardial contractility, leading to heart failure. It may also cause arrhythmias due to its role in maintaining normal cellular electrophysiology.
Respiratory Failure: Phosphate is essential for ATP production, necessary for respiratory muscle function. Severe hypophosphatemia can lead to muscle weakness, including the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, potentially resulting in acute respiratory failure.
Neurological Complications: These can range from confusion and seizures to coma, attributable to disturbed ATP metabolism in the central nervous system.
Haematological Effects: Reduced 2,3-diphosphoglycerate levels in erythrocytes affect oxygen release from haemoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Hypophosphatemia can also result in hemolysis.
Rhabdomyolysis: Phosphate depletion impairs ATP production in muscles, which can lead to muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

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21
Q

how is familial adenomatous polyposis inherited?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant disorder

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22
Q

what is ischaemic colitis?

A

Ischaemic colitis describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel. This may lead to inflammation, ulceration and haemorrhage.

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23
Q

what sit is most commonly affected in ischaemic colitis?

A

It is more likely to occur in ‘watershed’ areas such as the splenic flexure that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.

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24
Q

what would an XR show in ischaemic colitis?

A

‘thumbprinting’ may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

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25
What is Wilson's disease and how is is inherited?
Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues. Metabolic abnormalities include increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion.
26
where is the gene defect located in Wilsons disease?
Wilson's disease is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13.
27
Features of Wilsons disease?
liver: hepatitis, cirrhosis neurological: basal ganglia degeneration: in the brain, most copper is deposited in the basal ganglia, particularly in the putamen and globus pallidus speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems are often the first manifestations also: asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism Kayser-Fleischer rings green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris due to copper accumulation in Descemet membrane present in around 50% of patients with isolated hepatic Wilson's disease and 90% who have neurological involvement renal tubular acidosis (esp. Fanconi syndrome) haemolysis blue nails
28
Investigations for Wilsons disease?
slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings reduced serum caeruloplasmin reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin) free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased increased 24hr urinary copper excretion the diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene
29
Management of Wilsons disease?
penicillamine (chelates copper) has been the traditional first-line treatment trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent which may become first-line treatment in the future tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation
30
hepatitis B in pregnant? Who should be offered screening? Treatment of babies born to mothers with hep B? Can it be transmitted via breastfeeding?
all pregnant women are offered screening for hepatitis B babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who've had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin studies are currently evaluating the role of oral antiviral treatment (e.g. Lamivudine) in the latter part of pregnancy there is little evidence to suggest caesarean section reduces vertical transmission rates hepatitis B cannot be transmitted via breastfeeding (in contrast to HIV)
31
what is SBP and what are the features?
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a form of peritonitis usually seen in patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis. Features ascites abdominal pain fever
32
how do you diagnose SBP?
Diagnosis paracentesis: neutrophil count > 250 cells/ul the most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli
33
Management of SBP?
intravenous cefotaxime is usually given
34
when should abx prophylaxis be given in SBP?
cpatients who have had an episode of SBP patients with fluid protein <15 g/l and either Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome NICE recommend: 'Offer prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin for people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less until the ascites has resolved'
35
HIV - common biliary and pancreatic disease?
The most common cause of biliary disease in patients with HIV is sclerosing cholangitis due to infections such as CMV, Cryptosporidium and Microsporidia Pancreatitis in the context of HIV infection may be secondary to anti-retroviral treatment (especially didanosine) or by opportunistic infections e.g. CMV
36
risk factors for gastric cancer?
Risk factors Helicobacer pylori triggers inflammation of the mucosa → atrophy and intestinal metaplasia → dysplasia pernicious anaemia, atrophic gastritis diet salt and salt-preserved foods nitrates ethnicity: Japan, China smoking blood group A
37
features of gastric cancer?
abdo pain dyspepsia weight loss N&V dysphagia GI bleeding if lymphatic spread: left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow's node) periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph's node)
38
what is seen on biopsy of gastric cancer?
signet ring cells may be seen in gastric cancer. They contain a large vacuole of mucin which displaces the nucleus to one side. Higher numbers of signet ring cells are associated with a worse prognosis
39
what is Barrett's oesophagus?
Barrett's refers to the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium. There is an increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma, estimated at 50-100 fold.
40
what are the histological features of Barrett's?
the columnar epithelium may resemble that of either the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine (e.g. with goblet cells, brush border)
41
what are the risk factors for Barret's?
gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is the single strongest risk factor male gender (7:1 ratio) smoking central obesity
42
How is Barret's managed?
High dose PPI Endoscopic surveillance with biopsy If dysplasia of any grade is identified endoscopic intervention is offered. Options include: radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia endoscopic mucosal resection
43
investigations for chronic pancreatitis?
abdominal x-ray shows pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases CT is more sensitive at detecting pancreatic calcification. Sensitivity is 80%, specificity is 85% functional tests: faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging inconclusive
44
who requires screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?
patients liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol
45
what is the management of variceal bleeding?
terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation (i.e. before endoscopy) band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures
46
what is primary biliary cholagnitis?
> chronic liver disorder > middle aged females >Interlobular bile ducts become damaged by a chronic inflammatory process causing progressive cholestasis which may eventually progress to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman
47
associations with primary Biliary cholagitis?
Sjogren's syndrome (seen in up to 80% of patients) rheumatoid arthritis systemic sclerosis thyroid disease
48
clinical features with primary Biliary cholangitis?
early: may be asymptomatic (e.g. raised ALP on routine LFTs) or fatigue, pruritus cholestatic jaundice hyperpigmentation, especially over pressure points around 10% of patients have right upper quadrant pain xanthelasmas, xanthomata also: clubbing, hepatosplenomegaly late: may progress to liver failure
49
how is primary biliary cholangitis diagnosed?
AMA - 98% of patients SMA raised IgM MRCP
50
management of primary biliary cholangitis ?
ursodeoxycholic acid pruritus: cholestyramine fat-soluble vitamin supplementation liver transplantation e.g. if bilirubin > 100 (PBC is a major indication) recurrence in graft can occur but is not usually a problem
51
complications of primary biliary cholangitis?
cirrhosis → portal hypertension → ascites, variceal haemorrhage osteomalacia and osteoporosis significantly increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (20-fold increased risk)
52
what biologic therapy can be used in C.dfff?
bezlotoxumab is a monoclonal antibody which targets C. difficile toxin B
53
What is Villous adenoma?
Villous adenomas are colonic polyps with the potential for malignant transformation. They characteristically secrete large amounts of mucous, potentially resulting in electrolyte disturbances.
54
what are the features of villous adenoma?
The vast majority are asymptomatic. Possible features: non-specific lower gastrointestinal symptoms secretory diarrhoea may occur microcytic anaemia hypokalaemia
55
What causes ascending cholangitis?
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection (typically E. coli) of the biliary tree. The most common predisposing factor is gallstones.
56
what are the features of ascending cholangitis?
Charcot's triad of right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever and jaundice occurs in about 20-50% of patients fever is the most common feature, seen in 90% of patients RUQ pain 70% jaundice 60% hypotension and confusion are also common (the additional 2 factors in addition to the 3 above make Reynolds' pentad)
57
investigations for ascending cholangitis?
ultrasound is generally used first-line in suspected cases to look for bile duct dilation and bile duct stones
58
management of ascending ascending cholangitis?
intravenous antibiotics endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction
59
How is C.diff spread?
spreads via the faecal-oral route by ingestion of spores
60
What is Cholestyramine?
Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant used in the management of hyperlipidaemia. It decreases bile acid reabsorption in the small intestine, therefore upregulating the amount of cholesterol that is converted to bile acid. The main effect it has on the lipid profile is to reduce LDL cholesterol. It is also occasionally used in Crohn's disease for treatment diarrhoea following bowel resection.
61
what is ocreotide used for?
Overview long-acting analogue of somatostatin somatostatin is released from D cells of pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon and insulin Uses acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage acromegaly carcinoid syndrome prevent complications following pancreatic surgery VIPomas refractory diarrhoea
62
what is steatosis and what is steatohepatitis?
steatosis - fat in the liver steatohepatitis - fat with inflammation, non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), see below progressive disease may cause fibrosis and liver cirrhosis
63
what is NAFLD?
NAFLD is thought to represent the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome and hence insulin resistance is thought to be the key mechanism leading to steatosis.
64
what is NASH?
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis in the absence of a history of alcohol abuse. It is relatively common and thought to affect around 3-4% of the general population.
65
what is associated with NAFLD?
obesity type 2 diabetes mellitus hyperlipidaemia jejunoileal bypass sudden weight loss/starvation
66
COntraindications of liver biopsy?
deranged clotting (e.g. INR > 1.4) low platelets (e.g. < 60 * 109/l) anaemia extrahepatic biliary obstruction hydatid cyst haemoangioma uncooperative patient ascites
67
What symptoms should be present for at least 6 months to consider a diagnosis of IBS?
Abdominal pain, and/or bloating, and/or change in bowel habit ## Footnote These symptoms are essential for the initial consideration of IBS.
68
What is required for a positive diagnosis of IBS?
Abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency/stool form, plus 2 of the following: * altered stool passage (straining, urgency, incomplete evacuation) * abdominal bloating, distension, tension or hardness * symptoms made worse by eating * passage of mucus ## Footnote These criteria help differentiate IBS from other gastrointestinal disorders.
69
What additional features may support the diagnosis of IBS?
Lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms ## Footnote While not definitive, these features can provide supportive evidence for IBS.
70
What are the red flag features to inquire about in a potential IBS diagnosis?
Red flag features include: * rectal bleeding * unexplained/unintentional weight loss * family history of bowel or ovarian cancer * onset after 60 years of age ## Footnote These features may indicate a more serious underlying condition.
71
What primary care investigations are suggested for IBS?
Suggested investigations include: * full blood count * ESR/CRP * coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) ## Footnote These tests help rule out other conditions that may mimic IBS symptoms.
72
What kind of bacteria is C.diff?
anaerobic gram-positive, spore-forming, toxin-producing bacillus
73
Risk factors for gastric cancer?
Helicobacer pylori triggers inflammation of the mucosa → atrophy and intestinal metaplasia → dysplasia pernicious anaemia, atrophic gastritis diet salt and salt-preserved foods nitrates ethnicity: Japan, China smoking blood group A
74
what is the most common type of gastric cancer?
Gastric adenocarcinoma, the most prevalent type of gastric cancer, arises from the glandular epithelium of the stomach lining.
75
Features of gastric cancer?
abdominal pain typically vague, epigastric pain may present as dyspepsia weight loss and anorexia nausea and vomiting dysphagia: particularly if the cancer arises in the proximal stomach overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is seen only in a minority of patients if lymphatic spread: left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow's node) periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph's node)
76
what is the pathophsyiology of hepatorenal syndrome?
The most accepted theory regarding the pathophysiology of HRS is that vasoactive mediators cause splanchnic vasodilation which in turn reduces the systemic vascular resistance. This results in 'underfilling' of the kidneys. This is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus which then activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing renal vasoconstriction which is not enough to counterbalance the effects of the splanchnic vasodilation.
77
What are the two categories of hepatorenal syndrome?
Type 1 HRS Rapidly progressive Doubling of serum creatinine to > 221 µmol/L or a halving of the creatinine clearance to less than 20 ml/min over a period of less than 2 weeks Very poor prognosis T2 HRS Slowly progressive Prognosis poor, but patients may live for longer
78
Management of hepatorenal syndrome?
vasopressin analogues, for example terlipressin, have a growing evidence base supporting their use. They work by causing vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation volume expansion with 20% albumin transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
79
what is acute mesenteric ischaemia?
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel, for example the superior mesenteric artery. Classically patients have a history of atrial fibrillation. The abdominal pain is typically severe, of sudden onset and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings. Management urgent surgery is usually required poor prognosis, especially if surgery delayed
80
what is chronic mesenteric ischaemia?
Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a relatively rare clinical diagnosis due to it's non-specific features and may be thought of as 'intestinal angina'. Colickly, intermittent abdominal pain occurs.
81
What are the diffent types of oesophageal cancer?
## Footnote Until recent times oesophageal cancer was most commonly due to a squamous cell carcinoma but the incidence of adenocarcinoma is rising rapidly. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of oesophageal cancer and is more likely to develop in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett's.
82
Features of oesophageal cancer?
dysphagia: the most common presenting symptom anorexia and weight loss vomiting other possible features include: odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, cough
83
How is oesophageal cancer diagnosed?
Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used for diagnosis Endoscopic ultrasound is the preferred method for locoregional staging CT scanning of the chest, abdomen and pelvis is used for initial staging FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease
84
How is oesophageal cancer managed?
Operable disease (T1N0M0) is best managed by surgical resection - the most common procedure is an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy The biggest surgical challenge is that of anastomotic leak, with an intrathoracic anastomosis resulting in mediastinitis In addition to surgical resection many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy
85
what is carcinoid syndrome?
usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation may also occur with lung carcinoid as mediators are not 'cleared' by the liver
86
Features of carcinoid syndrome?
flushing (often the earliest symptom) diarrhoea bronchospasm hypotension right heart valvular stenosis (left heart can be affected in bronchial carcinoid) other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may also be secreted resulting in, for example, Cushing's syndrome pellagra can rarely develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour
87
Investigations for carcinoid syndrome?
urinary 5-HIAA plasma chromogranin A y
88
Management of carcinoid syndrome?
somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help
89
what is Gilbert's syndrome?
Gilbert's syndrome is an autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.
90
Features of Gilbert's ?
unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (i.e. not in urine) jaundice may only be seen during an intercurrent illness, exercise or fasting
91
Investigations in Gilbert's?
rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or IV nicotinic acid
92
what are threadworms?
Infestation with threadworms (Enterobius vermicularis, sometimes called pinworms) is extremely common amongst children in the UK. Infestation occurs after swallowing eggs that are present in the environment.
93
Features of threadworms?
Threadworm infestation is asymptomatic in around 90% of cases, possible features include: perianal itching, particularly at night girls may have vulval symptoms
94
Diagnosis of threadworms?
Diagnosis may be made by the applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
95
Managment of threadworms?
CKS recommend a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household mebendazole is used first-line for children > 6 months old. A single dose is given unless infestation persists
96
NICE bariatric referral cut-offs
with risk factors (T2DM, BP etc): > 35 kg/m^2 no risk factors: > 40 kg/m^2
97
Causes of Jejunal villous atrophy on biopsy?
coeliac disease tropical sprue hypogammaglobulinaemia gastrointestinal lymphoma Whipple's disease cow's milk intolerance
98
How do you indice remission in crohns disease?
glucocorticoids (oral, topical or intravenous) are generally used to induce remission. Budesonide is an alternative in a subgroup of patients enteral feeding with an elemental diet may be used in addition to or instead of other measures to induce remission, particularly if there is concern regarding the side-effects of steroids (for example in young children) 5-ASA drugs (e.g. mesalazine) are used second-line to glucocorticoids but are not as effective azathioprine or mercaptopurine* may be used as an add-on medication to induce remission but is not used as monotherapy. Methotrexate is an alternative to azathioprine infliximab is useful in refractory disease and fistulating Crohn's. Patients typically continue on azathioprine or methotrexate metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease
99
How do you maintain remission in crohns disease?
stopping smoking is a priority (remember: smoking makes Crohn's worse, but may help ulcerative colitis) azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line to maintain remission +TPMT activity should be assessed before starting methotrexate is used second-line
100
what surgery is indicated in crohns disease?
around 80% of patients with Crohn's disease will eventually have surgery stricturing terminal ileal disease → ileocaecal resection segmental small bowel resections stricturoplasty perianal fistulae an inflammatory tract or connection between the anal canal and the perianal skin MRI is the investigation of choice for suspected perianal fistulae - can be used to determine if there (is an abscess and if the fistula is simple (low fistula) or complex (high fistula that passes through or above muscle layers) patients with symptomatic perianal fistulae are usually given oral metronidazole anti-TNF agents such as infliximab may also be effective in closing and maintaining closure of perianal fistulas a draining seton is used for complex fistulae a seton is a piece of surgical thread that's left in the fistula for several weeks to keep it open. This is useful because persisting fistula tracks after premature skin closure predispose to abscess formation perianal abscess requires incision and drainage combined with antibiotic therapy a draining seton may also be placed if a tract is identified
101
Complications of crohns disease?
As well as the well-documented complications described above, patients are also at risk of: small bowel cancer (standard incidence ratio = 40) colorectal cancer (standard incidence ratio = 2, i.e. less than the risk associated with ulcerative colitis) osteoporosis
102
what is the spectrum of alcoholic liver disease?
alcoholic fatty liver disease alcoholic hepatitis cirrhosis
103
Investigation findings suggestive of alcoholic liver disease?
gamma-GT is characteristically elevated the ratio of AST:ALT is normally > 2, a ratio of > 3 is strongly suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis
104
Management of alcoholic hepatitis?
Glucocorticoids are often used during the acute episode of alcoholic hepatitis pentoxyphylline is also sometimes used the STOPAH study (see reference) compared the two common treatments for alcoholic hepatitis, pentoxyphylline and prednisolone. It showed that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days and that pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes
105
What calculation is used to decide if a patient with acute alcoholic hepatitis would benefit from steroids?
Maddrey's discriminant function (DF) is often used during acute episodes to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy it is calculated by a formula using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration
106
What do you need to interpret TTG?
IgA You cannot interpret TTG level in coeliac disease without looking at the IgA level
107
Where are gastrinomas usually found?
The majority of gastrinomas are found in the first part of the duodenum
108
HNPCC - other than colon cancer what cancer are patients at risk of?
endometrial cancer
109
what is angiodysplasia?
Angiodysplasia is a vascular deformity of the gastrointestinal tract which predisposes to bleeding and iron deficiency anaemia.
110
What is thought to be associated with angiodysplasia?
There is thought to be an association with aortic stenosis, although this is debated. Angiodysplasia is generally seen in elderly patients
111
features of angiodysplasia?
anaemia gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding if upper GI then may be melena if lower GI then may present as brisk, fresh red PR bleeding
112
Diagnosis of angiodysplasia?
colonoscopy mesenteric angiography if acutely bleeding
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Manageemnt of angiodysplasia?
**for active bleeding lesions:** endoscopic therapy is first-line: argon plasma coagulation (APC) or bipolar cautery can be used to coagulate visible vessels. Adrenaline injection may provide temporary haemostasis in unstable patients or where endoscopy fails, mesenteric angiography with embolisation can be considered surgery (e.g. segmental bowel resection) is a last resort for refractory or massive bleeding **for recurrent or less severe bleeding:** antifibrinolytics (e.g. tranexamic acid) may reduce bleeding episodes hormonal therapy with oestrogens and progesterone may be trialled in refractory cases (evidence is limited) **supportive care:** iron supplementation for anaemia blood transfusion as required