Gastroenterology Flashcards
(241 cards)
odynophagia (7)
pain on swallowing, oft worse when drinking a hot liquid, may be indicative of oesophageal ulceration or oesophagitis from GORD, or oesophageal candidiasis
cancer less likely as implies mucosal sensation is intact - dont dismiss this tho
may be urti, pharyngitis, epiglotitis
GORD (6 risk factors, 6 sx, 2x ix, 3 things main ix may show, risk of cancer from barrets, 6mx options)
may be due to hiatus hernia, gastroparesis, raised abdo pressure, and unhealthy diet; using NSAIDs regularly, and binge drinking
heartburn, esp on bending; fluid/food regurgitation on squeezing, waterbrash, nocturnal cough (gastric fluid reflux to larynx when flat), chest pain (from oesophageal spasm), dysphagia or odynophagia (though rare unless complicated)
endoscopy if ALARMS sx or persistent despite PPI w/o H pylori infection; 24hr-pH measurement if considering surgery
endoscopy may show oesophagitis (+/- ulcers and strictures - these cause dysphagia and need endoscopic dilatation)
barret’s oesophagus: metaplasia of distal oesphageal epithelium from squamous to columnar, usually no symptoms but 10% lifetime risk of getting adenocarcinoma from it
conservative (lifestyle, weight loss, antacids), medical (PPI or H2ra), endoscopic and surgical if eg large hiatus hernia
achalasia (what it is, 2 causes of similar presentation, 5 sx, rare complication, 3ix, 2mx and their 2 main risks)
degen of ganglia in distal oesopgaus/LOS causes peristalsis and sphincter relaxation to fail, and the oesophagus to gradually dilate; more common in middle aged people
similar condition when myenteric plexus destroyed in Chagas disease or oesophageal cancers
presents: insidious, intermittent dysphagia, worse if swallowing when slouched, better for liquids than solids; heartburn and chest pain may occur, and in late stages regurg and aspiration; SCC is rare complication
upper GI endsocopy to exclude malignancy, barium swallow will show narrowing v distal with proximal dilatation and reduced peristalsis; oesophageal manometry is diagnostic, shows the absent peristalsis and raised LOS pressure
medical options not usually helpful
endoscopic dilation or botulinum injection help but inc risk of GORD and have small risk of perforation
fundoplication - 4 parts of LOS, 3 indications, commonest procedure inc how done and post-op problem, 4 types of hiatus hernia, HH 6 risk factors, 4 surgical indications, when to suspect scariest problem, general mx)
The intrinsic musculature of the distal esophagus, which is usually in a state of tonic contraction.
The sling fibers of the gastric cardia, which contribute to the high-pressure zone of the lower esophageal sphincter.
The crura of the diaphragm, which surrounds the esophagus at the esophageal diaphragmatic hiatus.
The gastroesophageal junction, which should be located intra-abdominally so that the intra-abdominal pressure on the distal esophagus prevents reflux.
generally if repeated aspirations, failure to control on maximal medical therapy, or unable/prefer not to take medications
nissen fundoplication commonest procedure, upper part of stomach (fundus) wrapped tightly around oesophagus to create a better seal; some dysphagia common afterwards while oedema settles
hiatus hernia t1 >95% of all is sliding type where GOJ displaced upwards, t2 when stomach into mediastinum, t3 when t2 + t1 giving GOJ and stomach in mediastinum, t4 when extra organ like colon, SI, spleen also herniate into chest
HH risk inc’d by age (lost muscle strength and elasticity); also raised intra-ab pressure eg obesity, pregnancy, chronic constipation; also prev surgeries, trauma etc
generally manage resulting GORD medically first, then surgical indications as above or severe oesophageal inflam with strictures go for surgery, also if large or have volvulus; nissen fundoplication (among other types) usually done; suspect volvulus if have HH and unwell (chest pain and sweating but no ACS, hyper or hypotension, nausea etc, may dev coffee ground vomiting)
oesophageal carcinoma (ACC where, other type where, where is most common, 5 risk factors, 6 sx, 3ix, 4mx)
ACC in lower third, SCC anywhere, more common in middle and far east; smoking, alcohol, betel nut, tobacco chewing, achalasia are risk factors
presentation: painless, rapidly progressing dysphagia, weight loss; late focal invasion will give chest pain or hoarse voice, spread to cervical lymph nodes; may form fistula from oesophagus to bronchus giving coughing after eating, pneumonia or pleural effusion
upper GI endoscopy to find and biopsy, barium swallow will show length of tumour if endoscope couldnt pass by it; abdo, thorax CT for staging or endoscopic US
if operable, oesophagectomy; if not then stent it to relieve dysphagia, radiotherapy and analgesics
px of minor oesophageal conditions (pharyng pouch, eosin oesoph, oesoph rings/webs, MW tear)
pharyngeal pouch: dysphagia, night time cough, halitosis, lump in throat; diagnose with barium swallow
eosinophillic oesophagitis: vomiting in kids or dysphagia in adults
oesophageal rings/webs: intermittent dysphagia to solids over years, rings distal and webs proximal; usually spotted by radiology
mallory-weiss tear: mucoasal tear leading to haematemsis; typical history will say initial vomitus does not contain blood; will usually settle spontaneously, acid suppression or endoscopic therapy needed in rare cases
foreign body ingestion - 2 types, 9 suggestive sx of impaction, signs of a complication to look out for, urgent endo 3 crit, surgery 3 crit, 2 mx otherwise; for food bolus 2 mx
may be true foreign body or impacted food bolus
Emesis, retching, blood-stained saliva,
hypersialorrhoea, wheezing and/or respiratory distress in non-communicative patient are suggestive; may vomit and have retrosternal pain or foreign body sensation
look for signs of perforation (inc cervical)
Urgent endoscopy if foreign body in the upper third part of the oesophagus, complete obstruction, sharp foreign bodies or button batteries
Enteroscopy and surgery should be considered for long, sharp/pointed foreign bodies, batteries or magnets that have passed the duodenojejunal angle
Otherwise if in oesophagus then OGD in 24hrs, if reached stomach and doesn’t fit above crit then will likely pass
for food bolus: if can’t swallow saliva then urgent, otherwise remove in 12-24hrs, less if not soft food eg a bone; trial 1mg IV glucagon but many studies haven’t shown benefit
haematemesis inc how far down can source be, 7 causes in order of likeliness, 5 ix, 3mx choices (inc 3 reasons for urgent instead of day case)
prox to jejunum (ligament of Treitz);
peptic ulcer > gastric erosion/gastritis > mallory weiss tear > oesophageal varices (10%) > duodenitis > oesophagitis > tumour
check FBC, LFT, VBG, clotting status; crossmatch blood if type unknown
upper GI endoscopy as day procedure or emergency if varices likely/large Hb drop or unstable haemodynamically otherwise transfuse if needed and monitor
if bleeding after endoscopy, high chance of surgery being needed
dyspepsia (5 causes inc 5 medications, ALARMS sx and deciding whether to do endoscopy, 3 step management pathway, mx of Barrett’s inc risk of progressing)
Gastro-eosophageal reflux disorder (GORD)
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer disease
Cancer
Medications: calcium antagonists, nitrates, NSAIDs, steroids, bisphosphonates
Non ulcer dyspepsia- endoscopy negative
ALARMS symptoms
Anaemia
Loss of weight
Anorexia
Recent onset symptoms/progressive
Melaena/haematemesis
Swallowing difficulty
-> if yes, or >55yo, then endoscopy
if no then Stop drugs causing dyspepsia.
Lifestyle changes: eat less spicy food, caffeinated/fizzy drinks
Over the counter antacids
Review after 4 weeks
not improved? urea breath test
- if neg, PPI/H2Ra 2 weeks, if still no improvement consider ogd
-if pos, eradicate with trip therapy;
after 4 weeks urea breath test, if shows bacti eradicated then endoscopy
barrets: velvety epithelium; frequent endoscopic surveillance + random biopsies
If any dysplasia identified – resection/ablation
10% risk progressing to ACC
dyspepsia in children
Recognise the following as possible complications of GOR in infants, children and young people:
reflux oesophagitis
recurrent aspiration pneumonia
frequent otitis media (for example, more than 3 episodes in 6 months)
dental erosion in a child or young person with a neurodisability, in particular cerebral palsy.
Recognise the following as possible symptoms of GOR in children and young people:
heartburn
retrosternal pain
epigastric pain.
OGD for ALARMS type sx or if suspect sandifers syndrome, no improvement in regurgitation after 1 year old
persistent, faltering growth associated with overt regurgitation
unexplained distress in children and young people with communication difficulties
Consider performing an oesophageal pH study (or combined oesophageal pH and impedance monitoring if available) in infants, children and young people with:
suspected recurrent aspiration pneumonia
unexplained apnoeas
unexplained non‑epileptic seizure‑like events
unexplained upper airway inflammation
dental erosion associated with a neurodisability
frequent otitis media
a possible need for fundoplication
a suspected diagnosis of Sandifer’s syndrome
Investigate the possibility of a urinary tract infection in infants with regurgitation if there is:
faltering growth
late onset (after the infant is 8 weeks old)
frequent regurgitation and marked distress.
Consider a 4‑week trial of a PPI or H2RA for those who are unable to tell you about their symptoms (for example, infants and young children, and those with a neurodisability associated with expressive communication difficulties) who have overt regurgitation with 1 or more of the following:
unexplained feeding difficulties (for example, refusing feeds, gagging or choking)
distressed behaviour
faltering growth.
Consider a 4‑week trial of a PPI or H2RA for children and young people with persistent heartburn, retrosternal or epigastric pain.
Assess the response to the 4‑week trial of the PPI or H2RA, and consider referral to a specialist for possible endoscopy if the symptoms:
do not resolve or recur after stopping the treatment
Only consider enteral tube feeding to promote weight gain in infants and children with overt regurgitation and faltering growth if:
other explanations for poor weight gain have been explored and/or
recommended feeding and medical management of overt regurgitation is unsuccessful
reduce and stop enteral tube feeding as soon as possible.
Consider jejunal feeding for infants, children and young people:
who need enteral tube feeding but who cannot tolerate intragastric feeds because of regurgitation or if reflux‑related pulmonary aspiration is a concern
Consider fundoplication in infants, children and young people with severe, intractable GORD if:
appropriate medical treatment has been unsuccessful or feeding regimens to manage GORD prove impractical
oesophageal cancer (4ix and their roles, staging + mx, 3 complications, Barrett’s (inc what to stain for) and SCC histo)
ACC typically lower, SCC typically upper; Investigations
First-line: OGD -> CT -> pet-ct -> endo USS (+biopsy)
Endoscopic ultrasound – T staging and nodal disease; biopsy of these nodes possible too
CT scan – T staging and obvious metastases
PET -CT – subtle metastases
Local Disease – T1a = endoscopic removal alone (no chemo needed)
T1b-3 = radical oesophagectomy + chemo/radio, can include local nodal involvement
T4 = typically palliation (beyond adventitia to airways, diaphragm etc), same if M staging
problems: mechanical obstruction, poor food/fluid intake, infiltration into other organs
barrets histo: columnar lining, mucin, glandular tissue; dysplasia see nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia, increased mitoses, loss of
nuclear polarity; stain for p53 can help identify areas of dysplasia; Her2 staining for if trastuzumab can be used
squamous: sharp transition to area with no glycogen light splodges, loss of tissue maturation towards surface, areas of necrosis
dysphagia (14 causes, 3 complications, indications for pouch surgery, commonest cause for dysphagia and 4 causes of strictures, OGD alternative, eosinophilia œsophagitis appearance, 2 associations, 2sx, ix, 3mx; achalasia cause, 4 sx, 3 ix, 3 types, 3mx; 4 general ix for dysphagia pathway; main mx for neuro/elderly cause
stroke, PD, MG, MS, MND; cancer, phar pouch; achalasia, chagas, CREST, foreign body, stricture, mediastinal mass
getting elderly by itself contributes to devloping dysphagia
dysphagia -> dehydration, malnut, rec pneumonia so multi admissions
pharyngeal pouch treated surgically if >2cm, herniation through killians dehiscence
GORD commonest cause -> erosive oesophagitis -> stricture from fibrosis as heals; 24hr pH monitoring helpful
candida, shatzki ring (maybe fe def)
barium swallow if unfit or unwilling for OGD
eosino oesph; white rough looking, rings and longitudinal ridges; oft men, oft atopy; dysphagia/food impaction, maybe heartburn
biopsy needed -> paired biopsy so can differentiate eosin and reflux disease (if eosins only in distal prob reflux, if both eos oesoph)
complex treatment but some combo of PPI, topical steroids, elemental diet
achalasia: Caused by degeneration of Auberbach’s plexus.
Presentation –dysphagia: episodic in nature; solids + fluids, chest pain, regurgitation of food
Investigations – Endoscopy to rule out malignancy
Manometry – high LOS pressure; type 1 no contraction, type 2 panoesoph pressure, type 3 spastic premature contractions; can also show
absent peristalsis, oesophageal spasm etc
Barium swallow – ‘birds beak’ sign
Management
Intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum
Balloon dilatation
Heller cardiomyotomy
dyphagia do endo, biopsy if abnorm; no abnorm still biopsy for eosin oesoph (may look normal), if neg for that then high resolution
mannometry + ambulatory pH monitoring
and dont forget neuro + elderly association, where dietary advice mainly is intervention after SALT review; other options include risk feeding, NGT as a bridge to PEG feeding (usually latter more if younger eg MND, former is old or coming towards end of life)
h pylori management - endoscopy when, other 2 tests, triple therapy variants, when you repeat main ix
Consider endoscopy if ALARMS symptoms OR >55
Test for H pylori after 4 week trial of conservative measures – urea breath test; consider stool cultures as alternative, each test is about as good as the other
It is found in the antrum of the stomach
urea breath test works as follows: patient ingests a small amount of urea labeled with carbon 13 (13C) or carbon 14. If urease is present (produced by the organism), the urea is hydrolyzed and the patient exhales labeled carbon dioxide that is then collected and measured
H pylori positive –> triple therapy for 7 days: PPI e.g. omeprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin/metro; 2nd lineis same as first for 7 days but can switch clari and metro; 3rd line for 10 days is PPI + bismuth subsalicylate + 2 abx of clari, metro, tetracycline, levoflox - needs micro d/c
if pen allergic first line metro + clari, 2nd line metro + levo; 3rd line as above but use eg rifabutin after micro d/c
H pylori negative 🡪 PPI
if symptom free dont need to repeat urea breath test, if sx still then repeat to see if bacti eliminated
h pylori infection paeds
H. pylori infection rarely causes symptoms in children in the absence of peptic ulcer disease; Further evaluation should be reserved for when epigastric pain is closely associated with the intake of food or when there are associated ‘red flag’ features; Testing is not indicated for suspected functional abdominal pain or gastroesophageal reflux disease. Parents should be counselled that, in the absence of PUD, eradication may not relieve symptoms however is still probably required to reduce the carcinogen risk
red flags:
Localised epigastric pain
Right upper or right lower quadrant pain
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
Persistent vomiting
Overt gastrointestinal blood loss
Weight loss
Decelerating linear growth
Delayed puberty
Unexplained fever
Family history of inflammatory bowel disease, coeliac disease or PUD
first-line diagnosis based on stool antigen testing, followed by eradication if positive. Children should only be referred for gastroenterology opinion and endoscopy when they have failed to have a successful primary eradication of H. pylori confirmed by a positive repeat stool antigen test
Patients should be off acid suppression for at least two weeks and antibiotics for four weeks before testing. The use of Gaviscon preparations should not affect test results
For patients where the antibiotic sensitivity and resistance patterns are not known (the majority of non-biopsied patients) our recommendation is triple therapy for 14 days with:
Omeprazole, HIGH DOSE amoxicillin and metronidazole; Where peptic ulcer is strongly suspected, 3 months of acid suppression should also be used to promote healing
To maximise treatment effectiveness, second-line treatment should be discussed with your local gastroenterology team
Patients who have previously taken clarithromycin and/or metronidazole should be considered at high-risk for resistance.
Confirmation of eradication
The long-term risk and uncertainty regarding gastric carcinoma mean confirmation of eradication is MANDATORY.
Eradication of H. pylori infection should be confirmed 4-8 weeks after treatment using stool antigen testing.
Patients should be off acid suppression for at least two weeks and antibiotics for four weeks before testing
Patients with H. pylori should be referred for opinion and endoscopy when they have failed to have a successful eradication with confirmatory positive post-treatment stool antigen test.
Persistence of dyspeptic symptoms after a trial of appropriately dosed acid suppression or dependence on long-term acid suppressants with/without H. pylori are further indicators for consideration of endoscopy.
haematemesis clinical path (inc scoring sx, main ix and deciding when to do, initial mx 6 things, what if ogd cant stop, what is coffee ground vomiting more likely to represent, 2 things to give if suspect varicosities and when to give, target time to OGD for all admissions, 3x mx for varices, mx for erosive inflam, mx for tear)
blatchford score calculates who can safely be discharged w/o endoscopy; rockall score is less sensitive but can be used for predicting risk of mortality and so stratifying how urgent OGD needed and whether to involve CCOT etc
initial management 2x cannulae, resus with fluids or blood, IV pantoprazole, reverse anticoag (continue DAPT, if major bleed continue only asp; vit K for warf, withold DOAC and if major bleed monoclonal to reverse); later endoscope
major haemorrhage protocol and CCOT r/v if haem unstable, transfuse only aiming for Hb >70 (note takes time for Hb to fall as is a concentration, needs autotransfusion to dilute); in all UGIB keep plats >50 with transfusion if required
However note that there’s decent evidence that giving FFP to variceal bleeds INCREASES mortality and INCREASES the chance that bleeding won’t be controlled at initial OGD. We think this is because INR is a poor representative of the overall haemostatic balance in liver patients, and all the FFP is really achieving is increasing her circulating volume, thereby increasing portal pressures and bleeding tendency, but without the life-sustaining property of red blood cells
if endo can’t control bleeding -> CT angiography, maybe radiological intervention
coffee ground vomit likely milder more chronic bleed eg gastritis
Patients with suspected varices should receive terlipressin prior to endoscopy + proph antibiotics (ceftriaxone or ciproflox); octreotide is an alternative to terlipressin, and terlipressin needs to be stopped if chest pain, ECG changes or distal dyanosis
Ideally all patients admitted with upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage should undergo upper GI endoscopy within 24 hours of admission.
Varices should be banded or subjected to sclerotherapy. If this is not possible owing to active bleeding then a Sengaksten- Blakemore tube
Patients with erosive oesophagitis / gastritis should receive a proton pump inhibitor.
Mallory Weiss tears will typically resolve spontaneously
terlipressin - what it is, what it binds (inc effect on the kidneys), mechanism, main 3 complications and ix to counter this
synthetic peptide analogue of the hormone vasopressin
binds V1/V2r but with much lower affinity than vasopressin, also binds V1 6x more strongly than V2 so whilst antidiuretic effect is there it is minimal - and if you improve hypotension and thus kidney perfusion you might even improve urine output
by causing splanchnic vasoconstriction it reduces GI bleeding, and also reduces the splanchnic fluid redistribution that contributes to HRS
it also causes vasoconstriction elsewhere and so need to be careful - check for cardiac history, get an ECG before starting terlipressin and at least one after to minimise risk of precipitating ACS; you can also worsen diastolic HF and MR due to the increased afterload
sengstaken-blakemore and minnesota tubes
Sengstaken–Blakemore tube (3 lumen) vs Minnesota tube (4 lumen) as allows aspiration of both gastric and oesophageal contents, not just gastric contents; used to tamponade if not responsive to medical or endoscopic therapy, or in emergencies
patient is often endotracheally intubated first to prevent aspiration, then insert via mouth via laryngoscopy into the oesophagus
confirm position on CXR (gastric balloon in stomach)
inflate gastric balloon using 50mL increments up to 250 -300ml for SBT or 450-500ml for Minnesota tube
pull balloon back until against gastric fundus to tamponade blood flow
note that re-bleeding on balloon deflation occurs in ~50% of cases
can get pressure necrosis if in situ for more than 24-36 h, and should deflate then re-inflate after 12
how quickly does Hb drop after acute bleeding? 2 sources of haemodilution, how long until it reaches max depletion? and by how much?
immediate circulating volume can be maintained with blood in reservoirs - large veins, spleen, and liver (alone will 250ml of mobilizable blood), then after this exhausted haemodilution
haemodilution from autotransfusion and kidneys retaining fluid takes time -> may see some change within minutes, changes rapidly initially then change slows until lowest level reached up to 3 days after the blood loss and then rises again; if you give non-blood fluids the Hb drop will be even faster
all that said, within 30mins to 1.5hrs of bleed the Hb should match the clinical picture approx, and dilution is usually complete within 12-24hrs
it will fall by about 10g/L for every 500ml blood lost (can be 5-20g/L)
Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) - what it is, 4 indications, 2x complications
tract created within the liver using x-ray guidance to connect portal vein to hepatic vein and then stented open
used to treat the complications of portal hypertension, including:
variceal bleeding, esp if endoscopy failed
portal gastropathy, an engorgement of the veins in the wall of the stomac
severe ascites
Budd-Chiari syndrome
up to 25% of patients who undergo TIPS will experience transient post-operative hepatic encephalopathy caused by increased porto-systemic passage of nitrogen from the gut
in rare cases, suddenly shunting portal blood flow away from the liver may result in acute liver failure secondary to hepatic ischemia and this may require emergency shunt closure
tracheo-oesophageal fistula repair 4 complications
anastomotic leaks, strictures at site of anastomosis (may need balloon dilatation), GORD, aspiration (rec cough, bronchitis, pneumonia)
note in most cases surgical strictures are due to scarring
TOF
Suspected TOF? eg lots of secretions and resp distress
Pass size 8/10 feeding tube - confirmed in stomach then feed as normal
If tube fails to enter stomach get ANNP/surgeon/senior to attempt
If still not enter stomach check CXR to see if coiled in upper pouch to confirm TOF
A combined CXR and AXR must be performed: if gas is present in the stomach
and bowel a TOF must exist whereas if the abdomen is gasless the diagnosis is likely to
be pure oesophageal atresia. A double bubble shadow suggests a co-existing duodenal
atresia. Assessment of vertebral bodies from thoracic to sacral spine should be
requested.
IV fluids as per protocol.
Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics as per local guidelines.
Nurse supine with the head elevated by approximately 45°.
All babies should have a long line placed as soon as is practical and PN initiated
until full enteral feeds established postoperatively
Open right sided thoracotomy, closure of the fistula and oesophageal anastomosis is
the standard method
VACTERL ix should be performed
Type A: OA with no fistula
Type B: OA with proximal fistula
Type C: OA with distal fistula (90% cases)
Type D: OA with proximal and distal fistula
Type E: TOF with no atresia
OA/TOF cannot be diagnosed with certainty in the antenatal period.
The combination of polyhydramnios and a small or undetectable stomach on a
prenatal ultrasound scan is suggestive for OA
Oesophageal atresia
Inability to feed.
Coughing / Choking.
Excessive frothing at mouth.
Inability to pass a nasogastric tube.
Cyanotic episodes.
Signs of aspiration.
6 causes of recurrent aphthous ulcers (and details on behcets - 7sx, gene association, reaction to blood test, course)
most idiopathic but linked to crohns, UC, coeliac, behcets, neutropenia
behcets has oral/genital ulcers, eye pain/iritis, neuro involvement (aseptic meningoenceph, pseudotumour cerebri); may get lesions like erythema nodosum, migratory thrombophleb, medium/large joint arthritis; HLA-B5 associated; bullous pustular reaction to subcut puncture (in eg blood test); is relapsing-remitting
parotitis (acute and chronic - commonest cause, 2 bugs and which pts for acute supp, acute siad due to what and which gland, what to check for if recurrent parotitis, 4 things for rec paro of childhood, 2 causes for chronic paro, 4 ix in all cases)
commonest cause is mumps so check MMR status; submandib glands can also be affected
acute supp parotitis commonly by staph aureus and strep pyogenes; occurs in debilitated patients who are dehydrated
acute sialadenitits (usually submandib) due to duct calculus
rec parotitis may be HIV infection
also rec parotitis of childhood (no stones or strictures, may be unilat or bilat, w erythema around stensens duct + maybe pus discharge)
chronic parotitis due to sialectasis, sjogrens (slightly tender, dry eyes/mouth)
ix in all cases inc x-rays, MC&S of expressed pus, sialograms, possibly HIV test
gut tube embryology - membrane at either end and how connects to yolk sac, how two curvatures develop and how they move, 4 regions and transcription factor for each, how endoderm and mesoderm interact, midgut growth and how it rotates (inc how many degrees total), how omphalocele forms, meckels diverticulum prevalence, cause, 2 problems it causes, something it can contain and what problem that can cause, two variants within it, problems abnormal rotation can cause, 2 things omphalocele associated with, difference from gastroschisis
craniocaudal and lateral folding generate gut tube, which is initially blind ending foregut and hindgut connected by midgut which connects to yolk sac via vitelline duct; hindgut ends at cloacal membrane and foregut buccopharyngeal
thoracic part of foregut with dorsal wall growing faster than ventral such that greater/lesser curvatures develop; 90 degree rotation about craniocaudal axis then brings greater curvature to left and orients vagus trunks ant/post; further caudal tilting then orients greater curvature inferiorly
regional specification begins once lateral folding brings 2 sides together; TFs in different regions with SOX2 for stomach/oesophagus, PDX1 for duodenum, CDXC for SI and CDXA for LI; initial patterning stabilised by reciprocal interactions between endoderm and visceral mesoderm initiated by SHH expression in gut tube upregulateing mesoderm factors that in turn determine gut tube structures eg caudal midgut/hindgut express SHH making mesoderm express Hox genes which direct formation of caecum/colon etc
extensive midgut growth, particularly region that will form ileum, means it grows more rapidly than abdo so primary intestinal loop forced out through umbilical cord, carrying its arterial supply; herniated loop undergoes 90 degree rotation counterclockwise; jejunal/ileal lengthening continues giving rise to series of folds and gut tube retracted with further 90 degree rotation; caecum moves inferiorly and final 90 degrees rotation gives total of 270
if umbilical ring doesn’t close, loop of intestine may remain outside cavity as an omphalocele in 2.5 in 10,000 births
meckel’s diverticulum in 2-4% of people, 3-5 times more prevalent in males and becomes inflamed in ~1/3 of people, causes by failure of regression of vitelline duct and connected to umbilicus typically by fibrous cord or fistula around which rest of gut may rotate and become obstructed; contains ectopic gastric mucosa in 50% of people which may ulcerate/perforate; vitelline cyst may occur or full fistula
abnormal rotation can cause range of problems such as freely suspended coils of intestine prone to torsion or volvulus resulting in obstruction or even obstructed blood supply
omphalocele associated with trisomies, beckwith-weidemann; defect in body wall eg incomplete ventral folding gives gastroschisis, similar to omphalocele but loops not in sac