Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the stepwise progression to becoming alcoholic liver disease?

A

alcohol related fatty liver - reversible
alcoholic hepatitis - reversible with permanent abstinence
cirrhosis - scar tissue, irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the recommended alcohol consumption?

A

no more than 14 units of alcohol per week for both men and women over 3 ore more days and no more than 5 a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how can harmful alcohol abuse be screened for?

A

C – CUT DOWN? Ever thought you should?
A – ANNOYED? Do you get annoyed at others commenting on your drinking?
G – GUILTY? Ever feel guilty about drinking?
E – EYE OPENER? Ever drink in the morning to help your hangover/nerves?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how are people screened for harmful alcohol use?

A

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the complications of alcohol?

A

Alcoholic Liver Disease
Cirrhosis and the complications of cirrhosis including hepatocellular carcinoma
Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)
Pancreatitis
Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the signs of liver disease?

A

Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
Spider Naevi
Palmar Erythema
Gynaecomastia
Bruising – due to abnormal clotting
Ascites
Caput Medusae – engorged superficial epigastric veins
Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which investigations are required for suspected liver disease?

A

FBC – raised MCV
LFTs – elevated ALT and AST (transaminases) and particularly raised gamma-GT. ALP will be elevated later in the disease. Low albumin due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver. Elevated bilirubin in cirrhosis.
Clotting – elevated prothrombin time due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver
U+Es may be deranged in hepatorenal syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which scans could be used to establish liver disease and the results?

A

USS - fatty changes, fibrosis
endoscopy - assess and treat varices from portal hypertension
CT/MRI- fatty change, carcinoma, megaly, abnormal blood vessel changes and ascites
biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the general management of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Stop drinking alcohol
Consider a detoxication regime
Nutritional support with vitamins (particularly thiamine) and a high protein diet
Steroids improve short term outcomes (over 1 month) in severe alcoholic hepatitis but infection and GI bleeding need to be treated first and do not improve outcomes over the long term
Treat complications of cirrhosis (portal hypertension, varices, ascites and hepatic encephalopathy)
Referral for liver transplant in severe disease however they must abstain from alcohol for 3 months prior to referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the complications of alcohol withdrawal and when do they occur?

A

6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety
12-24 hours: hallucinations
24-48 hours: seizures
24-72 hours: “delirium tremens”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define delirium tremens

A

medical emergency
alcohol stimulates GABAr - relaxing
and inhibits glutamate r - also inhibitory
but chronic use - GABA downregulated and glutamate upregulated…excitability and adrenergic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does delirium tremens present with?

A

Acute confusion
Severe agitation
Delusions and hallucinations
Tremor
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
Arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how can alcohol withdrawal be assessed?

A

CIWA-Ar (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment – Alcohol revised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what drugs is used to control alcohol withdrawal?

A

chlordiazepoxide - benzodiazepine
Iv high dose B vitamins and oral thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

Alcohol excess leads to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. . Wernicke’s encephalopathy comes before Korsakoffs syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the clinical fx of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Confusion
Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements)
Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the clinical fx of korsakoffs syndrome?

A

Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde)
Behavioural changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is WKS treated/

A

stop alcohol
thiamine supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

wwhat are the most common causes of cirrhosis?

A

Alcoholic liver disease
Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the rarer causes of cirrhosis?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Haemochromatosis
Wilsons Disease
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Cystic fibrosis
Drugs (e.g. amiodarone, methotrexate, sodium valproate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the signs of cirrhosis?

A

Jaundice – caused by raised bilirubin
Hepatomegaly – however the liver can shrink as it becomes more cirrhotic
Splenomegaly – due to portal hypertension
Spider Naevi – these are telangiectasia with a central arteriole and small vessels radiating away
Palmar Erythema – caused by hyperdynamic cirulation
Gynaecomastia and testicular atrophy in males due to endocrine dysfunction
Bruising – due to abnormal clotting
Ascites
Caput Medusae – distended paraumbilical veins due to portal hypertension
Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which investigations are required for cirrhosis?

A

Liver biochemistry is often normal, however in decompensated cirrhosis all of the markers (ALT, AST, ALP and bilirubin) become deranged.
The albumin level drops and the prothrombin time increases as the synthetic function becomes worse.
Hyponatraemia indicates fluid retention in severe liver disease.
Urea and creatinine become deranged in hepatorenal syndrome.
Further bloods can help establish the cause of the cirrhosis if unknown (such as viral markers and autoantibodies).
Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma and can be checked every 6 months as a screening test in patients with cirrhosis along with ultrasound.
enhanced liver fibrosis - >7.7, not always possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what may imaging show of cirrhosis?

A

USS- nodularity, corkscrew appearance of arteries, enlarged portal vein, ascites, splenomegaly
fibro scan - every 2 yrs if at risk, elasticity, degree of cirrhosis
endoscopy -varices
CT/MRI
biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is heptatocellular carcinoma screened for?

A

USS, every 6 mths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is the severity of cirrhosis scored?

A

child-pugh score
- billirubin
- albumin
- INR
- ascites
- encephalopathy
if compensated - MELD score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does the general management of cirrhosis involve?

A

Ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein every 6 months for hepatocellular carcinoma
Endoscopy every 3 years in patients without known varices
High protein, low sodium diet
MELD score every 6 months
Consideration of a liver transplant
Managing complications as below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the complications of cirrhosis?

A

Malnutrition
Portal Hypertension, Varices and Variceal Bleeding
Ascites and Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)
Hepato-renal Syndrome
Hepatic Encephalopathy
Hepatocellular Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how does cirrhosis lead to malnutrition and how is this managed?

A

increased use of muscle tissue as fuel and reduces protein available in body for muscle growth
also disrupts livers ability to store glucose as glycogen when required…muscle wasting and weight loss
- regular meals
- low sodium
- high protein and calorie
- avoid alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does liver cirrhosis lead to portal hypertension?

A

increases resistance of blood flow…back flow in portal system..vessels at the sites where portal system to anastome with systemic venous system to become sweollen and tortuouse…varices
at gastro-oesophageal, ileocaecal, rectal, ant abdo walla via umbilical vein (Caput medusae)
once start bleeding wont stop, but asx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how are stable varices managed?

A

Propranolol reduces portal hypertension by acting as a non-selective beta blocker
Elastic band ligation of varices
Injection of sclerosant (less effective than band ligation)
Transjugular Intra-hepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) is a technique where an interventional radiologist inserts a wire under xray guidance into the jugular vein, down the vena cava and into the liver via the hepatic vein. They then make a connection through the liver tissue between the hepatic vein and the portal vein and put a stent in place. This allows blood to flow directly from the portal vein to the hepatic vein and relieves the pressure in the portal system and varices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how are bleeding oesophageal varices managed?

A

resus - vasopressin analogues - vasoconstriction, correct coagulopathy with vit K and FFP, prophylactic abx, intubation and ICU
urgent endoscopy - inject sclerosant, elastic band ligation
sengstaken-blakemore tube into oesophagus if endoscopy fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do ascites form from cirrhosis?

A

increased pressure in portal system causes fluid to leak out of capillaries in the liver and bowel into peritoneal cavity…hypovolaemic so reduced blood flow to kindyes….so releases renin -> RAAS causing fluid and sodium reabsorption
it is a transudate - low protein content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how are ascites managed?

A

Low sodium diet
Anti-aldosterone diuretics (spironolactone)
Paracentesis (ascitic tap or ascitic drain)
Prophylactic antibiotics against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin) in patients with less than 15g/litre of protein in the ascitic fluid
Consider TIPS procedure in refractory ascites
Consider transplantation in refractory ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how does spontaneous bacterial peritonitis present?

A

Can be asymptomatic so have a low threshold for ascitic fluid culture
Fever
Abdominal pain
Deranged bloods (raised WBC, CRP, creatinine or metabolic acidosis)
Ileus
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the most common organisms causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pnuemoniae
Gram positive cocci (such as staphylococcus and enterococcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis managed?

A

ascitic culture
IV cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

define hepatorenal syndrome

A

Hypertension in the portal system leads to dilation of the portal blood vessels, stretched by large amounts of blood pooling there. This leads to a loss of blood volume in other areas of the circulation, including the kidneys. This leads hypotension in the kidney and activation of the renin-angiotensin system. This causes renal vasoconstriction, which combined with low circulation volume leads to starvation of blood to the kidney. This leads to rapid deteriorating kidney function. Hepatorenal syndrome is fatal within a week or so unless liver transplant is performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

define hepatic encephalopatjy

A

causes by build up of toxins in brain..ammonia - functional impairment of liver in cirrhosis to metabolise, and collateral vessels develop to bypass liver cause ammonia to enter blood system directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Constipation
Electrolyte disturbance
Infection
GI bleed
High protein diet
Medications (particularly sedative medications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how is hepatic encephalopathy managed?

A

laxatives - promote excretion of ammonia
abx - rifaximin - less bacteria producing ammonia
nutrition - NG feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

define non alcoholic fatty liver disease

A

forms part of the “metabolic syndrome” group of chronic health conditions relating to processing and storing energy that increase risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes - fatty deposits in liver cells intefering with function, can progress to hepatitis and cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the risk factors for NAFLD?

A

Obesity
Poor diet and low activity levels
Type 2 diabetes
High cholesterol
Middle age onwards
Smoking
High blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a non invasive liver screen?

A

abnormal LFT’S-? next action
Ultrasound Liver
Hepatitis B and C serology
Autoantibodies (autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis)
Immunoglobulins (autoimmune hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis)
Caeruloplasmin (Wilsons disease)
Alpha 1 Anti-trypsin levels (alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency)
Ferritin and Transferrin Saturation (hereditary haemochromatosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which autoantibodies attack the liver?

A

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
Smooth muscle antibodies (SMA)
Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)
Antibodies to liver kidney microsome type-1 (LKM-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how is non alcoholic fatty liver disease diagnosed?

A

liver USS - hepatic steatosis
ELF blood test - fibrosis (first line)
NAFLD fibrosis score
fibroscan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how is alcoholic fatty liver disease managed?

A

Weight loss
Exercise
Stop smoking
Control of diabetes, blood pressure and cholesterol
Avoid alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when would you refer a pt to a liver specialist?

A

when have significant fibrosis - so need to be treated with vit E or pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the causes of hepatitis?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis
Non alcoholic fatty liver disease
Viral hepatitis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Drug induced hepatitis (e.g. paracetamol overdose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how does hepatitis present?

A

Abdominal pain
Fatigue
Pruritis (itching)
Muscle and joint aches
Nausea and vomiting
Jaundice
Fever (viral hepatitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the biochemical results for hepatitis?

A

high AST/ALT, proportionally more than ALP
billirubin rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how common is hep A?

A

not in UK, most common worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how is hep A transmitted and what sx does it cause?

A

faecal-oral route, usually by contaminated water or food
- N+V, anorexia, jaundice, cholestasis causing dark urine and pale stools, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how is hep A managed?

A

analgesia- resolves in 1-3 months
vaccinated
notifiable disease to public health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how does hep B spread?

A

direct contact with blood or bodily fluids - sex, sharing needles, contaminated products such as toothrushes or minor cuts
mother to child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the prognosis of hep B?

A

most people recover within 2 months
10% develop chronic hep B carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what do the viral markers tell you about the presence of disease?

A

Surface antigen (HBsAg) – active infection
E antigen (HBeAg) – marker of viral replication and implies high infectivity
Core antibodies (HBcAb) – implies past or current infection
Surface antibody (HBsAb) – implies vaccination or past or current infection
Hepatitis B virus DNA (HBV DNA) – this is a direct count of the viral load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what does core antibodies tell you about the hepatitis sttatus?

A

IgM and IgG versions of the HBcAb. IgM implies an active infection and will give a high titre with an acute infection and a low titre with a chronic infection. IgG indicates a past infection where the HBsAg is negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does hep B e antigen tell about the hepatitis status?

A

Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) is important. Where the HBeAg is present it implies the patient is in an acute phase of the infection where the virus is actively replicating. The level of HBeAg correlates with their infectivity. If the HBeAg is higher, they are highly infectious to others. When they HBeAg is negative but the hepatitis B e antibody is positive this implies they have been through a phase where the virus was replicating and but the virus has now stopped replicating and they are less infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how are people vaccinated against hep B?

A

with hep B surface antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how do you manage hepatitis B?

A

Have a low threshold for screening patients that are at risk of hepatitis B.
Screen for other blood born viruses (hepatitis A and B and HIV) and other sexually transmitted diseases
Refer to gastroenterology, hepatology or infectious diseases for specialist management
Notify Public Health (it is a notifiable disease)
Stop smoking and alcohol
Education about reducing transmission and informing potential at risk contacts
Testing for complications: FibroScan for cirrhosis and ultrasound for hepatocellular carcinoma
Antiviral medication can be used to slow the progression of the disease and reduce infectivity
Liver transplantation for end-stage liver diseas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how does hep C spread?

A

blood and bodily fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how is hep C managed?

A

NO VACCINE
curable with direct acting antiviral meds - need genotype
screen
notify public health
refer for specialist management
stop smoking and drinking
educate
test for complications - fibroscan for cirrhosis and USS for hepatocellular carcinoma
liver transplant for end stage liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the prognosis of hep C?

A

1 in 4 rceovery
3 in 4 becomes chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the complications of hep C?

A

liver cirrhosis
heptacocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how is hep C tested for?

A

hep C antibody
calculate viral load and assess for individual genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how does a hep D spread?

A

only survives in patients who already have a hep V infection..attaching to HBsAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how serious is hep D and how is it treated?

A

Hep D increases complications and disease severity of hep B
notifiable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how is hep E transmitted?

A

faecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how is hep E treated?

A

cleared within a month and no tx is usually required
rarely can progress to chronic hep and liver failure
NO VACCINATION
notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the cause of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

unknown
genetic and environmental causing T cell mediated response against liver cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are the two types of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

type 1 - middle aged wmen, around or after menopause with fatigue and fx of liver disease
type 2 - teenage/early twenties present with acute hepatitis, high transaminases and jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what biochemical results are there for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

raised ALT, AST
raised IgG
autoantibodies, type 1 - ANA, anti-actin, anti SLA/LP
type 2 - anti-LKM1, anti-LC1
confirmed with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how is autoimmune hepatitis treated?

A

high dose prednisolone
azathioprine
liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

define haemochromatosis

A

iron storage disorder that results in excessive total body iron and deposition of iron in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the genetic mutation involved in haemachromatosis?

A

HFE gene located on chromosome 6
autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the sx of haemochromatosis?

A

Chronic tiredness
Joint pain
Pigmentation (bronze / slate-grey discolouration)
Hair loss
Erectile dysfunction
Amenorrhoea
Cognitive symptoms (memory and mood disturbance)
presenting at age of 40 or later in females as menstruation eliminates iron from body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how is haemochromatosis diagnosed?

A

serum ferritin level (can rise in inflammation) so transferrin saturation is helpful in distinguishing between a high ferritin caused by iron overload (in which case transferrin saturation is high) from a high ferritin due to other causes such as inflammation or non alcoholic fatty liver disease…if both high, perform genetic test to confirm
liver biopsy with Perl’s stain - iron conc in parenchymal cells
CT abdo - attenuation
MRI - liver depositis of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the complications of haemochromatosis?

A

Type 1 Diabetes (iron affects the functioning of the pancreas)
Liver Cirrhosis
Iron deposits in the pituitary and gonads lead to endocrine and sexual problems (hypogonadism, impotence, amenorrhea, infertility)
Cardiomyopathy (iron deposits in the heart)
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Hypothyroidism (iron deposits in the thyroid)
Chrondocalcinosis / pseudogout (calcium deposits in joints) causing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how is haemtochromatosis managed?

A

Venesection (a weekly protocol of removing blood to decrease total iron)
Monitoring serum ferritin
Avoid alcohol
Genetic counselling
Monitoring and treatment of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

define wilson disease

A

excessive accumulation of copper in the body and tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the genetic mutation causing wilson’s disease?

A

mutation in the “Wilson disease protein” on chromosome 13. The Wilson disease protein also has the catchy name “ATP7B copper-binding protein”
autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are the features of wilson’s disease?

A

Hepatic problems (40%)-
chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis,
Neurological problems (50%)
concentration and coordination difficulties, dysarthria, dystonia, parkinsonism, motor sx are assymetrical
Psychiatric problems (10%) -
mild depression, full psychosis
kayser-fleischer rings in cornea - brownish cirlces in iris
haemolytic anaemia
renal tubular acidosis
osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how is wilson’s disease diagnosed?

A

serum caeruloplasmin - low (can be falsely normal or elevated in cancer/inflammation)
liver biopsy - liver copper content (gold standard)
24 hour urine copper assay elevated
low serum copper
kayser-fleischer rings
MRI brain - non specific changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

how is wilson’s disease treated?

A

copper chelation -
Penicillamine
Trientene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the cause of alpha 1 antitrypsin defiency?

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) is mainly produced in the liver, travels around the body and offers protection by inhibiting the neutrophil elastase enzyme. A1AT is coded for on chromosome 14. In A1AT deficiency, there is an autosomal recessive defect in the gene for A1AT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the two main organs affected by alpha 1 antitrypsin defiency?

A

liver - cirrhosis
lungs - bronchiecatsis and emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how is cirrhosis caused by alpha 1 antitrypsin defiency?

A

normally alpha 1 antitrypsin created in liver - instead mutant version is produced, which gets trapped in liver, building up and causes damage…cirrhosis and then carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how are the lungs damaged by alpha 1 antitrypsin defieincy?

A

lack of normal alpha 1 leads to excess of protease which attacks C.T of lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how is alpha 1 antitrypsin defiency diagnosed?

A

Low serum-alpha 1-antitrypsin (screening test of choice)
Liver biopsy - cirrhosis and acid-Schiff-positive staining globules (this stain highlights the mutant alpha-1-antitrypsin proteins) in hepatocytes
Genetic testing - A1AT gene
High resolution CT thorax - bronchiectasis and emphysema

90
Q

how is alpha 1 antitrypsin defiency treated?

A

stop smoking
symptomatic tx
NICE recommend against the use of replacement alpha-1-antitrypsin, however the research and debate is ongoing regarding the possible benefits
Organ transplant - end-stage liver or lung disease
Monitoring for complications (e.g. hepatocellular carcinoma)

91
Q

define primary billiary cirrhosis?

A

a condition where the immune system attacks the small bile ducts within the liver- the intralobar ducts, also known as the Canals of Hering are first affected. This causes obstruction of the outflow of bile, which is called cholestasis. The back-pressure of the bile obstruction and the overall disease process ultimately leads to fibrosis, cirrhosis and liver failure. lack of bile acids in stool - malabsorption of fats. bile acids, bilirubin and cholesterol build up in blood

92
Q

how does primary biliary cirrhosis present?

A

Fatigue
Pruritus
GI disturbance and abdominal pain
Jaundice
Pale stools
Xanthoma and xanthelasma
Signs of cirrhosis and failure (e.g. ascites, splenomegaly, spider naevi)

93
Q

what are the associations of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

middle aged women
autoimmune conditions - thyroid
rheumatoid conditions - RA, sjogrens

94
Q

how is primary biliary cirrhosis diagnosed?

A

LFT’s - ALP raised
autoantibodies - anti-mitochondrial antibodies, ANA
ESR raised
IgM raised
liver biopsy

95
Q

how is primary biliary cirrhosis treated?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid reduces the intestinal absorption of cholesterol
Colestyramine is a bile acid sequestrate in that it binds to bile acids to prevent absorption in the gut and can help with pruritus due to raised bile acids
Liver transplant in end stage liver disease
Immunosuppression (e.g. with steroids) is considered in some patients

96
Q

what are the complications of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

cirrhosis
portal hypertension
Symptomatic pruritus
Fatigue
Steatorrhoea (greasy stools due to lack of bile salts to digest fats)
Distal renal tubular acidosis
Hypothyroidism
Osteoporosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

97
Q

define primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts become strictured and fibrotic…obstructing flow of bile out of liver and into intestine…liver inflammation, fibrosis and cirrhosis

98
Q

what is primary sclerosing cholangitis caused by?

A

genetic
autoimmune
microbiome
evironment
association with UC

99
Q

what are the risk factors for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Male
Aged 30-40
Ulcerative Colitis
Family History

100
Q

how does PSC present?

A

Jaundice
Chronic right upper quadrant pain
Pruritus
Fatigue
Hepatomegaly

101
Q

what are the biochemical results of PSC?

A

LFTs - raised ALP, billirubin and as progresses ALT and AST
autoantibodies - p-ANCA, ANA, aCL

102
Q

what is the gold standard investigations for PSC?

A

MRCP

103
Q

what are the associations and complications of PSC?

A

Acute bacterial cholangitis
Cholangiocarcinoma develops in 10-20% of cases
Colorectal cancer
Cirrhosis and liver failure
Biliary strictures
Fat soluble vitamin deficiencies

104
Q

how is PSC managed?

A

liver transplant
ERCP

105
Q

what are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Viral hepatitis (B and C)
Alcohol
Non alcoholic fatty liver disease
Other chronic liver disease- screened for HCC

106
Q

what condition is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

A

PSC

107
Q

how does HCC present?

A

Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Anorexia
Nausea and vomiting
Jaundice
Pruritus

108
Q

how does cholangiocarcinoma present?

A

painless jaundice

109
Q

what are the tumour markers of HCC and cholangiocarcinoma?

A

HCC - alpha-fetoprotein
cholangiocarcinoma - CA19-9

110
Q

how are liver cancers diagnosed?

A

liver USS
CT/MRI
ERCP

111
Q

how is HCC treated?

A

resection
liver transplant
kinase inhibitors - inhibiting prolieration of cancer cells - sorafenib, regorafenib and lenvatinib

112
Q

how is cholangiocarcinoma treated?

A

resection
ERCP

113
Q

define haemangioma

A

benign tumours of liver

114
Q

define focal nodular hyperplasia

A

benign liver tumour made of fibrotic tissue
usually asx and has no malignant potention
related to oestrogen - COCP

115
Q

define orthotopic transplant

A

entire liver is transplanted from a deceased patient to a recipient

116
Q

defin liver donor transplant

A

portion of the organ from a living donor, transplant it into a patient and have both regenerate to become two fully functioning organs

117
Q

define split donation

A

split the organ of a deceased person into two and transplant it into two patients and have them regenerate to their normal size in each recipient

118
Q

what are the indications for liver transplant?

A

acute liver failure - immediate, top of list - acute viral hepatitis, paracetamol overdose
chronic liver failure - around 5 months

119
Q

what are the factors suggesting unsuitability for liver transplantation?

A

Significant co-morbidities (e.g. severe kidney or heart disease)
Excessive weight loss and malnutrition
Active hepatitis B, hepatitis C or other infection
End-stage HIV
Active alcohol use (generally 6 months of abstinence is required)

120
Q

what incision is required for liver transplant surgery?

A

rooftop

121
Q

what is involved in post transplantation care?

A

lifelong immunosuppression - steroids, azathioprine, tacrolismus
avoid alcohol and smoke
treat any infection
monitor for recurrence
monitor for cancer

122
Q

how do you monitor for transplant rejection?

A

Abnormal LFTs
Fatigue
Fever
Jaundice

123
Q

what are the sx of GORD?

A

dyspepsia
heartburn
Acid regurgitation
Retrosternal or epigastric pain
Bloating
Nocturnal cough
Hoarse voice

124
Q

when does GORD require an endoscopy referral?

A

concerning features
GI bleed - malaena

125
Q

what are the NICE guidlines for a 2 week referral for endoscopy?

A

Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) at any age gets a two week wait referral
Aged over 55 (this is generally the cut off for urgent versus routine referrals)
Weight loss
Upper abdominal pain / reflux
Treatment resistant dyspepsia
Nausea and vomiting
Low haemoglobin
Raised platelet count

126
Q

how is GORD managed?

A

lifestyle - reduced caffeine, alcohol, weight loss, small meals, avoid heavy meals before bed, stay upright after meals, gaviscon/rennie, PPI, ranitidine (H2 receptor antagonist)
surgery - laprascopic fundoplication

127
Q

what is H.pylori?

A

causes damage to epithelial lining of stomach…forces its way into gastric mucosa breaking it so epithelial cells are exposed to the acid
also produces ammonia to neutralise the stomach acid and damages the epithelial cells directly

128
Q

when is an H.pylori test used?

A

anyone with dyspepsia - Urea breath test using radiolabelled carbon 13, Stool antigen test, Rapid urease test can be performed during endoscopy.

129
Q

how does a rapid urease work?

A

performed during endoscopy and involves taking a small biopsy of the stomach mucosa. Urea is added to this sample. If H. pylori are present, they produce urease enzymes that converts the urea to ammonia. The ammonia makes the solution more alkali giving a positive result on when the pH is tested.

130
Q

how is H pylori eradicated?

A

PPI, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days

131
Q

define barretts oesophagus

A

metaplasia from squamous to columnar epithelium
premalignant changes - risk factor for adenocarcinoma
require regular endoscopy
treated with PPI and possibly ablation tx during endoscopy

132
Q

what are peptic ulcers caused by?

A

medications - steroids, NSAIDS
H.pylori
increased acid - stress, caffeine, alcohol, smoking, spicy foods

133
Q

how does peptic ulcer present?

A

Epigastric discomfort or pain
Nausea and vomiting
Dyspepsia
Bleeding causing haematemesis, “coffee ground” vomiting and melaena
Iron deficiency anaemia (due to constant bleeding)

134
Q

how can you differentiate between the presenting fx of gastric and duodenal ulcers?

A

eating worsens pain of gastric ulcers and improves duodenal ulcers

135
Q

how are peptic ulcers managed?

A

diagnosed by endoscopy and raised urease test to check h pylori + biopsy to exclude malignancy
treated with PPI

136
Q

what are the complications of peptic ulcer?

A

bleeding from ulcer
perforation -> peritonitis
scarring and strictures of muscle and mucosa…narrowing of pylorus so hard to empty contents…pyloric stenosis

137
Q

what are the causes of upper GI bleed?

A

Oesophageal varices
Mallory-Weiss tear, which is a tear of the oesophageal mucous membrane
Ulcers of the stomach or duodenum
Cancers of the stomach or duodenum

138
Q

how does upper GI bleed present?

A

haematemesis
coffee ground vomit
malaena
haemodynamic unstability - low BP, tachycardic, other signs of shock
epigastric pain and dyspepsia - peptic ulcer
jaundice - ascites in liver disease with varices

139
Q

what is the scoring system in suspected upper GI bleed?

A

glasgow-blatchford score
>0 = high risk
Drop in Hb
Rise in urea (blood broken down by acid and enzymes)
Blood pressure
Heart rate
Melaena
Syncopy

140
Q

how is the risk of rebleeding and mortality scored in an upper GI bleed?

A

rockall score
Age
Features of shock (e.g. tachycardia or hypotension)
Co-morbidities
Cause of bleeding (e.g. Mallory-Weiss tear or malignancy)
Endoscopic stigmata of recent haemorrhage such as clots or visible bleeding vessels

141
Q

how is an upper GI bleed managed?

A

A – ABCDE approach to immediate resuscitation
B – Bloods
A – Access (ideally 2 large bore cannula)
T – Transfuse
E – Endoscopy (arrange urgent endoscopy within 24 hours)
D – Drugs (stop anticoagulants and NSAIDs)
send bloods - FBC, UE, coag, LFT, crossmatch

142
Q

in which circumstances is a tranfusion required?

A

transfuse fresh frozen plasma to patients with massive haemorrhage
not too much blood
platelets in active bleeding and thrombocytopenia
prothrombin complex concentrate for patients with warfarin that are actively bleeding

143
Q

what is required in addition if varices are caused by chronic liver disease?

A

terlipressin
prophylactix abx
band varices with OGD or cauterisation

144
Q

what are the clinical fx of crohns?

A

N – No blood or mucus (less common)

E – Entire GI tract

S – “Skip lesions” on endoscopy

T – Terminal ileum most affected and Transmural (full thickness) inflammation

S – Smoking is a risk factor (don’t set the nest on fire)
- weight loss. strictures and fistulas

145
Q

what are the clinical fx of UC?

A

C – Continuous inflammation

L – Limited to colon and rectum

O – Only superficial mucosa affected

S – Smoking is protective

E – Excrete blood and mucus

U – Use aminosalicylates

P – Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

146
Q

what are the sx of IBD?

A

diarrhoea
abdo pain
passing blood
weight loss

147
Q

which investigations are required for IBD?

A

Bloods - anaemia, infection, thyroid, kidney, LFT
CRP
faecal calprotectin (> 90% sensitive and specific to IBD in adults)
OGD and colonoscopy with biopsy
USS, CT, MRI

148
Q

how is crohns managed?

A

steroids to induce remission - oral prednisolone
immunosuppressants such as azathioprine
maintain remission with azathioprine
surgery - resect terminal ileum or treat fistulas and strictures

149
Q

how is UC managed?

A

induce remission with aminosalicylate - mesalazine or corticosteroids, if severe - IV corticosteroids
to maintain remission - mesalazine, azathioprine
surgery - panprotocolectomy and left with permanent ileostomyx or ileo-anal anastomosis - J pouch

150
Q

what are the sx of IBS?

A

Diarrhoea
Constipation
Fluctuating bowel habit
Abdominal pain
Bloating
Worse after eating
Improved by opening bowels

151
Q

what is the criteria for diagnosing IBS?

A

FBC, ESR, CRP
faecal calprotectin neg to exclude IBD
negative coeliac diseae serology (anti-TTG antibodies)
cancer is not suspected
and sxz should suggest IBS -
Abdominal pain / discomfort:
Relieved on opening bowels, or
Associated with a change in bowel habit
AND 2 of:
Abnormal stool passage
Bloating
Worse symptoms after eating
PR mucus

152
Q

how is IBS managed?

A

Adequate fluid intake
Regular small meals
Reduced processed foods
Limit caffeine and alcohol
Low “FODMAP” diet (ideally with dietician guidance)
Trial of probiotic supplements for 4 weeks
1st line medications - loperamide for diarrhoea, laxative for constipation - linaclotide, antispasmodic for cramps - hyoscine butylbromide (buscopan), then try TCA, then SSRI
CBT for psychological

153
Q

define coeliac disease

A

autoantibodies are created in response to exposure to gluten that target epithelial cells of the intestine…inflammation
- anti-TTG
- anti-EMA
affects jerjenum and causes atrophy of villi so malabsoprtion of nutrients

154
Q

how does coeliac disease present?

A

asx
Failure to thrive in young children
Diarrhoea
Fatigue
Weight loss
Mouth ulcers
Anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency
Dermatitis herpetiformis (an itchy blistering skin rash typically on the abdomen)
neurological sx - peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia, epilepsy

155
Q

what condition is coeliac disease linked to?

A

type 1 DM (mainly)
Thyroid disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis

156
Q

what are the genetic associations of coeliac disease?

A

HLA-DQ2 gene (90%)
HLA-DQ8 gene

157
Q

what is important about testing the autoantibodies linked with coeliac disease?

A

Anti-TTG and anti-EMA antibodies are IgA. Some patients have an IgA deficiency. When you test for these antibodies, it is important to test for total Immunoglobulin A levels because if total IgA is low because they have an IgA deficiency then the coeliac test will be negative even when they have coeliacs. In this circumstance, you can test for the IgG version of anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies or simply do an endoscopy with biopsies.

158
Q

how is coelic disease diagnosed?

A

investigations carried out while reamining on diet containing gluten -
total IgA levels to exclude IgA defiency
then check autoantibodies - anti TTG is first line
endosocpy and biopsy - crypt hypertrophy, villous atrophy

159
Q

what are the complications of untreated coeliac disease?

A

Vitamin deficiency
Anaemia
Osteoporosis
Ulcerative jejunitis
Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL) of the intestine
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Small bowel adenocarcinoma (rare)

160
Q

how is coeliac disease treated?

A

lifelong gluten free diet

161
Q

when should non alcoholic fatty liver disease be suspected

A

T2DM with abnormal LFTs - ? non-alcoholic fatty liver diseas

162
Q

what abx is related to c diff

A

Cephalosporins, not just clindamycin, are strongly linked to C.difficile

163
Q

what is used for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose and rifaximin are used for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

164
Q

what is the abx of choice for c diff

A

Oral vancomycin is the first line antibiotic for use in patients with C. difficile infection. ADD iv metronidazole if severe infection

165
Q

how is ibs and ibd diagnosed as differentials

A

faecal calprotectin - A positive result does not indicate definite IBD but patients should be referred on to secondary care for further investigation.

166
Q

how is a pt with crohns and perianal fistal investigated

A

MRI is the investigation of choice for suspected perianal fistulae in patients with Crohn’s

167
Q

upper Gi bleed v lower GI bleed

A

The isolated urea rise is more suggestive of an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed rather than a lower gastrointestinal bleed. Therefore, a colonoscopy within 24 hours is not necessary at this stage.

168
Q

vit b12 how investigated

A

Intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies when investigating vitamin B12 deficiency

169
Q

what is a cause of a choletasis?

A

Co-amoxiclav is a well recognised cause of cholestasis

170
Q

alcoholic hepatitis investigations

A

he AST/ALT ratio in alcoholic hepatitis is 2:1

171
Q

ischaemic colitis

A

Ischaemic colitis is the most likely diagnosis given this man’s classic presentation (after a meal, intermittent and severe pain, pain out of proportion to clinical findings) and given his predisposing factors (prev. myocardial infarction, atrial fibrillation, hypertension).

172
Q

ascities

A

causes of ascites can be grouped into those with a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) <11 g/L or a gradient >11g/

173
Q

SAAG >11

A

Liver disorders are the most common cause
cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease
acute liver failure
liver metastases

Cardiac
right heart failure
constrictive pericarditis

Other causes
Budd-Chiari syndrome
portal vein thrombosis
veno-occlusive disease
myxoedema

174
Q

SAAG <11

A

Hypoalbuminaemia
nephrotic syndrome
severe malnutrition (e.g. Kwashiorkor)

Malignancy
peritoneal carcinomatosis

Infections
tuberculous peritonitis

Other causes
pancreatitisis
bowel obstruction
biliary ascites
postoperative lymphatic leak
serositis in connective tissue diseases

175
Q

what lab finding would indicate cirrhosis in someone with chronic liver disease?

A

Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150,000 mm^3) is the most sensitive and specific lab finding for diagnosis of liver cirrhosis in those with chronic liver disease

176
Q

what are the associated cancers of HNPCC?

A

Endometrial cancer is the second most common association of HNPCC after colorectal cancer

177
Q

what are people with coeliac at risk of?

A

People with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine due to hyposplenism

178
Q

buddai charri syndrom

A

Budd–Chiari syndrome - ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

179
Q

gilbert’s syndrome

A

An isolated hyperbilirubinaemia in a 22-year-old male is likely to be secondary to Gilbert’s syndrome. The normal dipstix urinalysis excludes Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome as these both produce a conjugated bilirubinaemia. Viral infections are common triggers for a rise in the bilirubin in patients with Gilbert’s

180
Q

how is severe alcoholic hepatitis managed?

A

Corticosteroids are used in the management of severe alcoholic hepatitis

181
Q

primary billiary cholangitis

A

Primary biliary cholangitis - the M rule
IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females

182
Q

dysplasia on barretts oesophagus tx

A

Dysplasia on biopsy in Barrett’s oesophagus requires an endoscopic intervention

183
Q

UC falre up

A

In a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis extending past the left-sided colon, oral aminosalicylates should be added to rectal aminosalicylates, as enemas only reach so far

184
Q

gilberts

A

An isolated rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress is typical of Gilbert’s syndrome

185
Q

pancreatitis

A

Mesalazine > sulfasalazine in terms of pancreatitis risk

186
Q

ALT >1000

A

drug induced
autoimmune - igG and liver biopsy then azathioprine and steroids, monitor myelosuppression and LFT
viral - hepatitis, CMV, EBV

187
Q

lot in portal vein

A

portal HTN occurs - collateral circ - splenomegaly - ischaemic changes to liver
tx with propranolol and varices banding

188
Q

r sided HF hepatmegaly

A

Right heart failure is associated with a firm, smooth, tender and pulsatile liver edge

189
Q

enteric fever

A

Rose spots appear in Salmonella typhi infections. They also appear in C.psittaci infections although it is more associated with typhoid than psittacosis.

190
Q

barretts tx

A

Endoscopic intervention is the single most appropriate management option at this stage. High-grade dysplasia is treated with endoscopic therapy and is preferred over oesophagectomy or surveillance.

191
Q

giardiasis

A

longest incubation period

192
Q

recurrent c.diff tx

A

A recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution should be treated with oral fidaxomicin

193
Q

ischaemic colitis most likely to be affected

A

The splenic flexure is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis

194
Q

high urea levels

A

High urea levels can indicate an upper GI bleed versus lower GI bleed

195
Q

iron defieciency anaemia v anaemia of chronic disease

A

Iron defiency anaemia vs. anaemia of chronic disease: TIBC is high in IDA, and low/normal in anaemia of chronic disease

196
Q

addisons electrolyte distubrance

A

Addison’s disease/adrenal insufficiency can cause hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis

197
Q

scurvy deficient

A

This patient with a low body mass index and bleeding gums likely has scurvy due to ascorbic acid deficiency, which is the correct answer. It is also known as vitamin C.

198
Q

zollinger elisson syndrom

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: epigastric pain and diarrhoea

199
Q

moderate UC flare up

A

If a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical (rectal) aminosalicylates then oral aminosalicylates should be added

200
Q

scleroderma

A

a is a risk factor for this condition, which makes it the correct answer. This patient’s clinical features and positive hydrogen breath test are consistent with small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome, a condition in which excessive bacteria accumulate in the small intestine, leading to symptoms such as abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and malnutrition.

201
Q

clinical fx of enteric fever - typhoid

A

initially systemic upset as above
relative bradycardia
abdominal pain, distension
constipation: although Salmonella is a recognised cause of diarrhoea, constipation is more common in typhoid
rose spots: present on the trunk in 40% of patients, and are more common in paratyphoid

202
Q

recurrent c.diff treatment

A

A recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution should be treated with oral fidaxomicin

203
Q

pts must eat gluten for how many weeks before coeliac test

A

6 weeks

204
Q

chronic mesenteric ischameia triad

A

classically characterised by a triad of severe, colicky post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and an abdominal brui

205
Q

most common inheritable form of colorectal cancer

A

HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is the most common inheritable form of colorectal cancer

206
Q

iron defiency anaemia v anaemia of chronic disease

A

Iron defiency anaemia vs. anaemia of chronic disease: TIBC is high in IDA, and low/normal in anaemia of chronic disease

207
Q

type 1 v type 2 hepatorenal syndrome

A

Hepatorenal syndrome is split into type 1 and 2. Type 1 is a rapid onset hepatorenal syndrome (less than two weeks). This typically occurs following an acute event such as an upper GI bleed. Type 2 is a more gradual decline in renal function and is generally associated with refractory ascites.

208
Q

coeliac disease

A

low total IgA and TTG

209
Q

AMA negative

A

Negative antimitochondrial antibodies make the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis less likely.

210
Q

clindamyclin is reisk factor

A

c.diff

211
Q

gastric carcinoma sign

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule – sign of metastasis to periumbilical lymph nodes, classically from gastric cancer primary

212
Q

carcinoid syndrome triad

A

This patient has abdominal pain, diarrhoea and flushing which are the classical features of carcinoid syndrome

213
Q

definition of upper GI bleed

A

The definition of an Upper GI Bleed is a haemorrhage with an origin proximal to the ligament of Treitz

214
Q

double duct sign

A

Double duct sign - not seen in all cases of pancreatic cancer but if it is present is either pancreatic or ampulla vater cancer. It is a dilated common bile duct and dilated pancreatic duct.

215
Q

Wilson’s disease T’s

A

Pencillamine

216
Q

IBS

A

This is a clinical diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome, supported by relief on defaecation as well as a panel of normal blood tests. The first-line anti-motility agent for this presentation of diarrhoea would be loperamide, as recommended by NICE guidelines.

217
Q

Clindamycin side effect

A

Clindamycin treatment is associated with a high risk of C. difficile

218
Q

Long term PPI

A

Long term proton pump inhibitor therapy can cause hypomagnesaemia

219
Q

Double duct sign

A

Pancreatic cancer

220
Q

Severity of c.diff

A

WCC

221
Q

Crohns associated

A

Gallstones