Gastroenterology Flashcards
(21 cards)
Test of choice for:
1) Oropharyngeal dysphagia
2) Esophageal dysphagia
3) Odynophagia
1) Videofluoroscopy / modified barium swallow
2) Upper endoscopy
3) Upper endoscopy
Quadruple Therapy (the preferred treatment) for H. Pylori consists of:
1) Bismuth QID
2) Metronidazole QID
3) Tetracycline (or doxycycline 100mg BID)
4) PPI BID
Treat for 14 days.
Imatinib is sometimes used to treat what type of GI malignancy?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (c-kit positive).
Describe Trousseau syndrome and Courvoisier sign:
Trousseau syndrome = migratory thrombophlebitis
Courvoisier sign = palpable gallbladder
Antibody associated with autoimmune pancreatitis:
IgG4
4 kinds of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors:
1) Gastrinoma -> Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
2) Insulinoma
3) VIPoma -> Verner-Morrison syndrome
4) Glucagonoma
Colorectal cancer surveillance intervals for IBD:
1) UC, pancolitis or distal colitis
2) UC, proctitis only
3) Chron disease, >1/3 of colon involved
1) IBD duration >8 years, 1-2 year interval
2) IBD duration >8 years, 10 year interval
3) IBD duration >8 years, 1-2 year interval
Amsterdam Criteria II for HNPCC / Lynch syndrome:
1) 3 or more relatives with an HNPCC-associated cancer
2) 2 or more generations affected
3) 1 more more cancer diagnosed before age 50
“3 relatives, 2 generations, 1 person younger than 50”.
Colorectal cancer surveillance interval for Lynch syndrome:
Start at age 20-25, repeat every 1-2 years.
Also remember: transvaginal ultrasound annually for women, urine cytology annually
Colorectal cancer surveillance interval for FAP:
Start at age 10-12, repeat every year.
(Also remember: upper endoscopy every 1-3 years [increased risk of duodenal adenomas/cancer], palpation of thyroid annually [increased risk of papillary thyroid cancer])
All patients with IBS-D and IBS-M should be tested for:
Celiac disease (anti-tTG IgA)
Surveillance colonoscopy intervals after definitive treatment of colorectal cancer:
1 year, 3 years, and 5 years
Two extrahepatic manifestations of HBV:
1) Polyarteritis nodosa
2) Membranous glomerulonephritis
Three extrahepatic manifestations of HCV:
[Hint: blood, kidneys, skin]
1) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
2) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
3) Porphyria cutanea tarda
(Others: NHL, MGUS)
What goes into the MELD score?
1) Creatinine
2) Bilirubin
3) INR
What goes into the Child-Pugh score?
1) Bilirubin
2) Albumin
3) PT/INR
4) Ascites (none, controlled, refractory)
5) Encephalopathy (none, grade I-II, grade III-IV)
What pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor will generally not be seen w/ octreotide scanning due to lack of adequate numbers of somatostatin receptors?
Insulinoma.
EUS is the best study if no tumor seen on CT
Antibodies associated with:
1) Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)
2) Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
1) Antimitochondrial antibody
2) ANA and anti-smooth muscle antibody
Treatment of acute variceal hemorrhage:
1) Octreotide (50 ug bolus followed by infusion of 50 ug /h for 2-5 days)
2) Ceftriaxone 1g/day (or a fluoroquinolone)
3) Endoscopic therapy (ligation preferred over sclerotherapy)
PMN count that defines SBP:
> 250 cells/microliter
[and/or positive culture]
Interpretations of serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG):
Serum albumin minus ascites albumin
1.1 or greater with total ascites protein <2.5 g/dL = portal hypertension
1.1 or greater with total ascites protein >2.5 g/dL = cardiac ascites
< 1.1 = not portal hypertension