Gastrointestinal Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What is the starting point of digestion?

A

Mouth

Digestion starts in the mouth with mechanical and chemical processes.

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2
Q

What is the role of salivary amylase in digestion?

A

Breakdown starches to maltose

Salivary amylase (ptyalin) initiates chemical digestion in the mouth.

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3
Q

What is deglutition?

A

Swallowing

Deglutition occurs once food is formed into a bolus and mixed with saliva.

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4
Q

What is the function of the esophagus?

A

Passage for food bolus from mouth to stomach by peristalsis

The esophagus transports food using coordinated muscle contractions.

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5
Q

What prevents gastric reflux?

A

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

Also known as the cardiac sphincter, it guards the distal end of the esophagus.

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6
Q

What is the capacity of the stomach?

A

Approximately 1,500 mls

The stomach is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

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7
Q

List the regions of the stomach.

A
  • Cardiac region
  • Fundus
  • Body
  • Antrum (pyloric region)

These regions serve different functions in digestion.

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8
Q

What is the primary function of gastric juice?

A

Digestion of proteins and protection against bacteria

Gastric juice is composed of mucus, HCl, pepsinogen, and water.

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9
Q

What is pepsinogen?

A

Inactive enzyme converted to pepsin in the presence of HCl

Pepsin begins protein digestion in the stomach.

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10
Q

What happens to carbohydrates in the stomach?

A

Digestion stops due to inactivation of amylase by acidity

The acidic environment halts carbohydrate digestion initiated in the mouth.

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11
Q

What is the length of the small intestine?

A

About 6 meters (20-22 ft)

It extends from the pyloric sphincter to the ileocecal valve.

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12
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum

The majority of digestion occurs in the duodenum.

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13
Q

What hormones do endocrine cells in the small intestine secrete?

A
  • Cholecystokinin
  • Secretin
  • Enterogastrone

These hormones regulate bile and pancreatic juice secretion.

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14
Q

What is the main function of bile?

A

Emulsifies fats

Bile facilitates the action of pancreatic lipase on dietary fats.

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15
Q

What are the primary functions of the large intestine?

A
  • Absorption of water, Na, and Cl
  • Vitamin synthesis
  • Formation of feces
  • Defecation

Approximately 800-1000 mls of water is absorbed here.

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16
Q

What is the normal range for Body Mass Index (BMI)?

A

18.5 – 24.9

BMI is a measure of body fat based on height and weight.

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17
Q

What does a (+) CEA indicate?

A

Colorectal cancer

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker used in diagnosis.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the D-Xylose Absorption Test?

A

Diagnosis of malabsorption

It measures the absorption of D-Xylose in blood and urine.

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19
Q

What dietary restrictions are required before a fecal occult blood test?

A
  • No red meats
  • No poultry
  • No fish
  • No turnips, horseradish, cauliflower, broccoli, melon

These foods may cause false positives in the test results.

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20
Q

What is the Bernstein Test used for?

A

To assess if chest pain is related to gastro-esophageal reflux

It involves instilling normal saline and HCl into the esophagus.

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21
Q

What imaging technique uses a contrast medium to visualize the upper GI tract?

A

Upper GI Series (Barium Swallow)

Barium sulfate is administered to visualize esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of endoscopy?

A

Direct visualization of the upper GI tract

It includes examination of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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23
Q

What is the significance of the vermiform appendix?

A

Attached to the cecum

It is part of the large intestine, but its exact function is still debated.

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24
Q

What is Computed Tomography?

A

Uses beam of radiation to assess cross sections of the body

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25
What dietary preparation is required in the morning before a CT scan?
Clear liquid diet
26
What does NPO stand for in medical terms?
Nothing by mouth
27
How long should a patient be NPO before a procedure with contrast medium?
2-4 hours
28
What allergy history should be assessed before a CT scan?
Allergy to seafoods and iodine
29
True or False: The CT scan procedure is painful.
False
30
What should be assessed regarding the patient's mental state before a CT scan?
Claustrophobia
31
What is the instruction for the patient during a CT scan?
Remain still during the entire procedure
32
What is the purpose of Upper GI Endoscopy?
Direct visualization of esophagus, stomach, and duodenum
33
What is the NPO requirement before an Upper GI Endoscopy?
6-8 hours
34
What medication may be administered before an Upper GI Endoscopy?
Anticholinergic (e.g., AtSO4)
35
What is the role of sedatives in an Upper GI Endoscopy?
To relax the client
36
What local anesthetic is used during an Upper GI Endoscopy?
Lidocaine
37
What position should the client be placed in after an Upper GI Endoscopy?
Side lying position
38
When can a patient resume oral intake after an Upper GI Endoscopy?
Once gag reflex returns (2-4 hours)
39
What dietary preparation is required before a Lower GI Endoscopy?
Clear liquid diet 24 hours before the procedure
40
What type of position should the patient be in during a Lower GI Endoscopy?
Knee chest / lateral position
41
What is a common sign to assess for after a Lower GI Endoscopy?
Signs of perforation (bleeding, pain, fever)
42
What position should a patient be in after a Colonoscopy?
Supine position for a few minutes
43
What is the NPO requirement before an MRI?
6-8 hours
44
What is a contraindication for MRI?
Pacemakers
45
Define malnutrition.
Occurs when nutrient availability is inadequate or excessive over an extended period
46
What are the two types of starvation?
* Primary malnutrition * Secondary malnutrition
47
What characterizes Kwashiorkor?
Inadequate protein intake with adequate calorie intake
48
What characterizes Marasmus?
Inadequate calorie and protein intake
49
What are the clinical manifestations of Pellagra?
* Dermatitis * Diarrhea * Dementia * Dilated cardiomyopathy
50
What is the treatment for Pellagra?
Niacin/Niacinamide
51
What is Obesity characterized by?
Excess accumulation of fats
52
What are the components of Metabolic Syndrome?
* Increased BP * Insulin resistance * Central obesity * Elevated triglycerides * Low HDL levels
53
What is Anorexia Nervosa?
Intentional severe dietary restrictions leading to weight loss and distorted body image
54
What characterizes Bulimia Nervosa?
Frequent binge eating and purging
55
What is the nursing diagnosis for altered nutrition in Anorexia Nervosa?
Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements
56
What is Dental Plaque?
Soft mass of proliferating bacteria in a sticky polysaccharide protein matrix
57
What is the primary cause of Dental Caries?
Acid production from bacteria and carbohydrates
58
What is Gingivitis?
Inflammation of the gums with gum bleeding, reddening, swelling
59
What is Periodontitis?
Inflammation extending from the gums into the alveolar bone
60
What is the management for impacted third molars?
Requires surgical removal