Gastrointestinal diseases SBAs

Question 1

Scenario: A dairy cow presents with a history of anorexia and decreased milk production over the past 24 hours. On physical examination, the cow has a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 bpm, and a rectal temperature of 39.5°C. Abdominal auscultation reveals a “ping” sound on the left side between the 9th and 13th ribs.

Lead-in: What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Right displaced abomasum (RDA)
b) Left displaced abomasum (LDA)
c) Vagal indigestion
d) Ruminal tympany (bloat)
e) Abomasal volvulus

Answer 1

Answer: b) Left displaced abomasum (LDA)

Explanation: A “ping” sound on the left side between the 9th and 13th ribs is a classic finding for a left displaced abomasum (LDA) in cattle. The gas accumulation in the displaced abomasum creates this tympanic sound upon percussion and auscultation.

Question 2

Scenario: A 3-week-old calf is presented with profuse watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 3 days. The calf is depressed, has sunken eyes, and is reluctant to stand.

Lead-in: What is the most immediate concern for this calf?

Options:

a) Hypoglycaemia
b) Hypothermia
c) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
d) Septicaemia
e) Ruminal acidosis

Answer 2

Answer: c) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

Explanation: Profuse watery diarrhoea in young calves leads to significant fluid and electrolyte losses, resulting in dehydration and metabolic acidosis. This is the most immediate life-threatening concern.

Question 3

Scenario: A pig farmer reports that several weaned pigs are experiencing sudden death. On post-mortem examination of one pig, there is evidence of haemorrhagic enteritis.

Lead-in: Which of the following is a potential cause of haemorrhagic enteritis and sudden death in weaned pigs?

Options:

a) Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2)
b) Lawsonia intracellularis (proliferative enteritis)
c) Clostridium perfringens type C
d) Transmissible gastroenteritis virus (TGEV)
e) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)

Answer 3

Answer: c) Clostridium perfringens type C

Explanation: Clostridium perfringens type C can cause a severe, often fatal, haemorrhagic enteritis in piglets, particularly around weaning.

Question 4

Scenario: A chicken flock is experiencing a drop in egg production and some birds have diarrhoea. Post-mortem examination reveals thickening of the intestinal walls.

Lead-in: Which of the following is a potential cause of these signs in poultry?

Options:

a) Avian influenza
b) Newcastle disease
c) Coccidiosis
d) Infectious bronchitis
e) Marek’s disease

Answer 4

Answer: c) Coccidiosis

Explanation: Coccidiosis, a parasitic disease caused by Eimeria species, can lead to diarrhoea, reduced egg production, and thickened intestinal walls in chickens.

Question 5

Scenario: A sheep presents with subcutaneous oedema and anaemia, particularly under the jaw.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this oedema?

Options:

a) Liver fluke infestation
b) Haemonchus contortus infection
c) Fascioloides magna infection
d) Teladorsagia circumcincta infection
e) Dictyocaulus filaria infection

Answer 5

Answer: b) Haemonchus contortus infection

Explanation: Haemonchus contortus, a blood-sucking nematode parasite in sheep, can cause anaemia and hypoproteinaemia, leading to subcutaneous oedema, including “bottle jaw”.

Question 6

Scenario: A veterinary surgeon is performing a digit amputation in a cow. They decide to use intravenous regional anaesthesia (IVRA).

Lead-in: Which local anaesthetic agent is typically used for IVRA in cattle?

Options:

a) Procaine with adrenaline
b) Bupivacaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Mepivacaine
e) Procaine

Answer 6

Answer: c) Lidocaine

Explanation: Lidocaine is commonly used for intravenous regional anaesthesia (IVRA) in cattle for procedures like digit amputation.

Question 7

Scenario: A veterinary surgeon is about to perform a line block for an umbilical hernia repair in a calf.

Lead-in: What is a potential disadvantage of using a line block compared to a paravertebral block for flank anaesthesia?

Options:

a) It requires a longer needle.
b) It provides superior muscle relaxation.
c) It may interfere with wound healing.
d) It desensitises a larger area.
e) It is more technically demanding to administer.

Answer 7

Answer: c) It may interfere with wound healing

Explanation: Line blocks involve injecting local anaesthetic directly into the surgical site, which can potentially interfere with wound healing due to tissue distension and reduced blood flow.

Question 8

Scenario: A farmer is dealing with an outbreak of salmonellosis in his adult cattle herd.

Lead-in: What is a key characteristic of Salmonella infection in cattle from a public health perspective?

Options:

a) It primarily affects young calves.
b) It is notifiable and zoonotic.
c) It is reportable and zoonotic.
d) It is easily treated with antibiotics.
e) It only causes mild diarrhoea.

Answer 8

Answer: c) It is reportable and zoonotic

Explanation: Salmonella infection in cattle is reportable to the relevant authorities and is zoonotic, meaning it can be transmitted to humans.

Question 9

Scenario: A veterinary surgeon is performing a proximal paravertebral nerve block in a cow.

Lead-in: Which spinal nerves are targeted with this technique?

Options:

a) T10, T11, T12,
b) L1, L2, L3,
c) T13, L1, L2,
d) S1, S2, S3,
e) C6, C7, C8.

Answer 9

Answer: c) T13, L1, and L2.

Question 10

Scenario: A pig farmer is concerned about proliferative enteritis in his growing pigs.

Lead-in: What is the causative agent of proliferative enteritis in pigs?

Options:
a) Escherichia coli,
b) Lawsonia intracellularis,
c) Salmonella typhimurium,
d) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae,
e) Clostridium difficile.

Answer 10

Answer: b) Lawsonia intracellularis.

Question 11

Scenario: A cow with a history of chronic diarrhoea and weight loss is suspected of having Johne’s disease.

Lead-in: Which diagnostic test is most commonly used to confirm Johne’s disease in live cattle?

Options:
a) Faecal culture,
b) Blood culture,
c) Blood PCR,
d) Skin test (Johnin test),
e) Faecal PCR.

Answer 11

Answer: e) Faecal PCR

Or can do milk or blood serology

Question 12

Scenario: A sheep is undergoing a laparotomy via a right flank incision. Lead-in: Which of the following organs is most likely to be encountered first upon entering the abdominal cavity on the right side of a sheep?

Options:

a) Rumen,
b) Spleen,
c) Liver,
d) Small intestine,
e) Left kidney.

Answer 12

Answer: d) Small intestine.

a) Rumen – Located on the left side, not encountered first on the right.
b) Spleen – Also left-sided, attached to the rumen.
c) Liver – Although present on the right, it is cranial and often not the first structure seen.
e) Left Kidney – Not accessible from the right, as it is retroperitoneal and left-sided.

Question 13

Scenario: A poultry farmer reports that some of his chickens have developed swollen snoods and infraorbital sinuses. Lead-in: Which bacterial disease is a common cause of these clinical signs in turkeys?

Options:

a) Mycoplasma gallisepticum,
b) Avibacterium paragallinarum,
c) Escherichia coli,
d) Salmonella pullorum,
e) Pasteurella multocida.

Answer 13

Answer: b) Avibacterium paragallinarum (Infectious Coryza).

If it was a turkery = Pasteurella multocida
Swollen snoods is a more turkey-specific sign.

Question 14

Scenario: A group of weaned pigs are showing signs of diarrhoea with mucus and blood. Some pigs also have a hunched posture. Lead-in: What is a likely cause of these signs in pigs of this age?

Options:
a) Streptococcus suis infection,
b) Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae,
c) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae),
d) Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus,
e) Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae.

Answer 14

Answer: c) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae).

Question 15

Scenario: A poultry flock is experiencing a sudden increase in mortality. Post-mortem examination reveals haemorrhages in various organs and a drop in egg production in laying hens.

What is the most likely cause?

Options:
a) Avian influenza,
b) Newcastle disease,
c) Avian encephalomyelitis,
d) Fowl pox,
e) Infectious laryngotracheitis.

Answer 15

Answer: a) Avian Infuenza

Key signs of highly pathogenic avian influenza include:
- Haemorrhages in various organs (e.g., heart, liver, intestines)
- Sudden death
- Drop in egg production, especially in laying hens.
- Severe respiratory and digestive symptoms, including swelling of the head, neck, and eyes.

Newcastle Disease can present with similar signs (typically neurlogical and there is less harmorrhages in organs compared to avian influemza)

Question 16

Scenario: A sheep farmer is concerned about nematodirus infection in his lambs.

Lead-in: What is a key epidemiological feature of Nematodirus battus infection in lambs?

Options:
a) Larval development is rapid and direct,
b) Infection typically occurs in older ewes,
c) Larvae undergo a prolonged period of arrested development in the host,
d) There is a mass hatching of infective larvae in the spring triggered by temperature,
e) Adult worms primarily reside in the abomasum.

Answer 16

Answer: d) There is a mass hatching of infective larvae in the spring triggered by temperature.

Question 17

Scenario: A poultry farmer notices that some of his broilers have swollen abdomens and are reluctant to move. On post-mortem examination, there is straw-coloured fluid in the abdominal cavity. Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this condition in broiler chickens?

Options:
a) Ascites syndrome (water belly),
b) Necrotic enteritis,
c) Gumboro disease,
d) Marek’s disease,
e) Avian leucosis.

Answer 17

Answer: a) Ascites syndrome (water belly).

Question 18

Scenario: A litter of piglets is experiencing severe diarrhoea shortly after birth. Lead-in: Which bacterial pathogen is a common cause of neonatal diarrhoea in piglets?

Options:
a) Clostridium perfringens type A,
b) Streptococcus suis,
c) Escherichia coli,
d) Salmonella choleraesuis,
e) Actinobacillus suis.

Answer 18

Answer: c) Escherichia coli.

Question 19

Scenario: A poultry flock is showing signs of respiratory distress, including coughing and sneezing. Egg production has also dropped.

Lead-in: Which viral disease is a common cause of these signs in laying hens?

Options:
a) Marek’s disease,
b) Avian influenza,
c) Infectious bronchitis,
d) Fowl pox,
e) Avian encephalomyelitis.

Answer 19

c) Infectious bronchitis,

Resp signs and decrease egg producion, differentials are:
- Avian infuenza (mortality)
- Newcastle disease (mortality)
- Infectious bronchitis
- Avian rhinotracheatits

Question 20

Scenario: A group of lambs are grazing pasture that was heavily contaminated the previous year.

Lead-in: Which gastrointestinal nematode is most likely to cause disease in these lambs early in the grazing season?

Options:
a) Teladorsagia circumcincta,
b) Trichostrongylus axei,
c) Haemonchus contortus,
d) Nematodirus battus,
e) Cooperia curticei.

Answer 20

Answer: d) Nematodirus battus.

Question 21

Scenario: A poultry flock has a high incidence of birds with enlarged livers and spleens. Some birds are also anaemic.

What is the most likely cause of these findings?

Options:
a) Marek’s disease,
b) Infectious bursal disease (Gumboro disease),
c) Avian leucosis,
d) Fowl cholera,
e) Infectious laryngotracheitis.

Answer 21

Answer: c) Avian leucosis.

Question 22

Scenario: A veterinary surgeon is performing a distal paravertebral nerve block in a cow. Lead-in: Which spinal nerves are typically desensitised with this technique?

Options:
a) T10, T11, T12,
b) L1, L2, L4,
c) L3, L4, L5,
d) S1, S2, S3,
e) C6, C7, C8.

Answer 22

Answer: b) L1, L2, L4

Question 23

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region.

Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a) LDA
b) Rumen tympany
c) Penumoperitoneum
d) Caecal dilation
e) Rumen void

Answer 23

B - Rumen Tympany

Gassy bloat - often caused by cow not eating

Question 24

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region.

Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a) LDA
b) Rumen tympany
c) Penumoperitoneum
d) Caecal dilation
e) Rumen void

Answer 24

E - Rumen void

Rare condition - rectal palpation to feel collapsed sac of rumen and L kidney moved ventrally to mid abdomen.

Not surgial - only treatment of hge underlying inflammatory condition.

Question 25

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) LDA b) Rumen void c) Penumoperitoneum d) Peritonitis e) Rumen tympany

Answer 25

A - LDA

Question 26

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) LDA b) Rumen void c) Penumoperitoneum d) Peritonitis e) Spiral colon and small intestines

Answer 26

D - Peritonitis Can be diffuse or localised (walled off) ping

Question 27

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) Ceacal dillatation b) Rumen void c) Penumoperitoneum d) Rectal gas e) Uteral gas

Answer 27

c) Penumoperitoneum

Question 28

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region. The heart rate is 90bpm and a lactate reading of 7 mmol/L. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) RDA b) Caecal dilation c) RAV d) Pneumorectum e) Pneumouterus

Answer 28

C - RAV (tachycardia and high lactate) Cannot differentiate between RAV/RDA on a ping. RAV has more systemic signs. All RDAs are emergencies as can progress to RAV Treatment: surgey or euthanasia

Question 29

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the following region. The heart rate is 48bpm and a lactate reading of 3 mmol/L. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) RDA b) Caecal dilation c) RAV d) Pneumorectum e) Pneumouterus

Answer 29

A - RDA Cannot differentiate between RDA and RAV on ping alone but often RDA has less severe clinical signs.

Question 30

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the right paralumbar fossa (image). Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) RDA b) Caecal dilation c) RAV d) Pneumoduodeum e) Spiral colon

Answer 30

E) Spiral colon Leave for 10 minutes - ping should cease or moved along the GIT

Question 31

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping in the location shown in the images. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most appropriate next step? a) Perform a rectal examination. b) Re-auscultate in 10-minutes. c) Begin treatment with Penicillin G and Ketoprofen IV for 3 days. d) Perform a para-vertebral block using procaine in preparation for surgery. e) Begin treatment with ketoprofen IV for 3 days.

Answer 31

b) Re-auscultate in 10-minutes. This will confirm spiral colon and the ping will have disappeared or moved.

Question 32

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping as shown in the image. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most appropriate next step? a) Perform a rectal examination. b) Re-auscultate in 10-minutes. c) Do nothing. d) Perform a para-vertebral block using procaine in preparation for surgery. e) Begin treatment with ketoprofen IV for 3 days.

Answer 32

C - do nothing = ascultating duedenum Same location as abomasal ping but smaller area, if unsure, can leaave for 30-60mins and it should have moved.

Question 33

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping as shown in the image. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most appropriate diagnosis? a) RDA b) RVA c) Pneoumduodenum d) Spiral colon e) Caecal torsion

Answer 33

C

Question 34

During a clinical examination of a HF dairy cow, you auscultate a ping as shown in the image. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most appropriate next step? a) Perform a rectal examination. b) Re-auscultate in 10-minutes. c) Do nothing. d) Perform a para-vertebral block using procaine in preparation for surgery. e) Begin treatment with inter-uterine cefapirin and SC Carprofen.

Answer 34

e) Begin treatment with inter-uterine cefapirin and SC Carprofen. It is rare for the uterus to create a ping. Can sometimes be heard from both sides. Either recently been distended due to rectal exam or there is bacteria producing gas in the uterus.

Question 35

Based on the location of the ping, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Pneumorectum B) Metritis C) Endometritis D) Spiral Colon E) Caecal torsion

Answer 35

B - ping is over the uterus which can indicate metritis (infection <21d post calving)

Question 36

Scenario: A lowland sheep and beef farm has 400 ewes that lamb indoors in February and 50 suckler cows that calve in the autumn and are housed over winter. They graze 200 acres of permanent pasture and reseeded grass leys.   Lead-in: Compared to an upland sheep farm with outdoor lambing in March-April (Case 1), what is the most significant difference in parasite risk profile for the lambs on this lowland farm? Options: a) Lower risk of Nematodirus battus due to indoor lambing b) Higher risk of Fasciola hepatica due to the lowland permanent pasture c) Increased risk of gastrointestinal nematodes in adult ewes due to permanent pasture d) Higher risk of coccidiosis and cryptosporidium in lambs due to indoor lambing e) Lower overall parasite burden due to mixed grazing with cattle

Answer 36

Answer: d) Higher risk of coccidiosis and cryptosporidium in lambs due to indoor lambing   Explanation: Indoor lambing increases the risk of coccidiosis and cryptosporidium in young lambs due to potential build-up of oocysts in the housing environment.

Question 37

You wish to sample abomasal fluid, which is the most appropriate site for abomasocentesis? a) 8th ICS b) 9th ICS c) 10th ICS d) 2-10cm caudal to last rib e) 12th ICS

Answer 37

C = Abomasocentesis is 10th/11th ICS, expect a pH of 2-3 with NO protazoa. RDA collect large volume, LDA collect small colume. 2-10cm caudal to the last rib is smapling the rumen. Here you would expect a pH of 5.8-6.2 with lots of protozoa present.

Question 38

Scenario: A beef rearing unit buys weaned beef-dairy calves to rear and sell as store cattle. In February, five out of a group of 15 yearling heifers, born the previous spring and housed after summer grazing, develop profuse diarrhoea. One heifer has died, and the others are rapidly losing weight.   Lead-in: Considering the age of the cattle and the time of year, which parasitic differential diagnosis should be prioritised? Options: a) Type 1 Ostertagiosis b) Type 2 Ostertagiosis c) Coccidiosis d) Cryptosporidium e) Johne's disease,

Answer 38

Answer: b) Type 2 Ostertagiosis due to hypobiosed larvae from the previous grazing season   Explanation: The sudden onset of profuse diarrhoea and weight loss in housed yearling cattle in February, which grazed the previous summer, is highly suggestive of Type 2 Ostertagiosis, caused by the reactivation of hypobiosed larvae.

Question 39

Lead-in: What is the most significant limitation of relying solely on FWECs for parasite management in lambs during the early grazing season (March-April) in this system? Options: a) FWECs are unreliable in cold weather conditions. b) FWECs do not detect immature parasite stages that can be pathogenic. c) FWECs are only accurate for detecting nematode eggs, not coccidia. d) The cost of regular FWECs for a large flock is prohibitive. e) The results of FWECs take several days to become available, delaying treatment.

Answer 39

Answer: b) FWECs do not detect immature parasite stages that can be pathogenic.   Explanation: During the early grazing season, parasites like Nematodirus battus can cause significant disease due to the presence of large numbers of immature larvae (L4) before they mature into egg-laying adults that would be detected on FWEC.  

Question 40

Scenario: A group of lambs, 6-8 weeks old and grazing lush pasture, suddenly develop profuse watery diarrhoea. Some lambs are collapsed and dehydrated. Faecal samples reveal very few nematode eggs, but coccidial oocysts are present at a moderate level. Lead-in: What is the most likely primary cause of the severe clinical signs observed in these lambs? Options: a) Subacute ruminal acidosis. b) Nematodirus battus. c) Enterotoxigenic E. coli infection ("watery mouth"). d) A mixed infection of coccidiosis and early-stage parasitic gastroenteritis (PGE) with Teladorsagia. e) Systemic salmonellosis.

Answer 40

Answer: b) Overwhelming infection with Nematodirus battus despite low egg counts due to pre-patent period. Explanation: Nematodirus battus can cause severe, acute diarrhoea in young lambs around this age. The pre-patent period (time from infection to egg shedding) is relatively long (around 15 days), so high larval burdens can cause significant clinical signs before high egg counts are evident.

Question 41

Scenario: You are advising a new sheep farmer on sustainable parasite control strategies. He is keen to reduce his reliance on anthelmintics. Lead-in: Which of the following management practices would have the greatest long-term impact on reducing the need for anthelmintic treatments in his flock? Options: a) Regularly switching between different anthelmintic groups (rotation). b) Treating all lambs with a broad-spectrum anthelmintic at weaning. c) Implementing a strict "treat and move" grazing system with short grazing periods. d) Selecting for parasite-resistant breeds of sheep and using targeted selective treatment (TST). e) Using a very low dose of anthelmintics regularly to suppress parasite burdens.

Answer 41

Answer: d) Selecting for parasite-resistant breeds of sheep and using targeted selective treatment (TST). Explanation: Selecting for resistant breeds reduces the overall susceptibility of the flock, and TST ensures that only animals showing signs of infection or high parasite burdens are treated, preserving susceptible parasites in the population (refugia) and slowing down resistance development.

Question 42

Scenario: A lamb that has been scouring is presented for post-mortem examination. The abomasal mucosa is thickened and has a "morocco leather" appearance. Lead-in: Which parasite is most likely responsible for these pathological findings? Options: a) Haemonchus contortus b) Trichostrongylus axei c) Teladorsagia circumcincta d) Nematodirus battus e) Cooperia curticei

Answer 42

Answer: c) Teladorsagia circumcincta Explanation: The "morocco leather" appearance of the abomasal mucosa is a classic pathological finding associated with a heavy infection of Teladorsagia circumcincta.

Question 43

Scenario: You are asked to advise on the control of Nematodirus battus in lambs. Lead-in: What is the most critical period for implementing preventative measures against Nematodirus infection in lambs? Options: a) During the winter housing period to reduce overwintering larvae on pasture. b) In the late summer/early autumn to target adult worms before they produce eggs. c) Around lambing time to reduce the parasite burden in ewes and subsequent shedding onto pasture. d) In the spring, coinciding with the mass hatching of overwintered larvae and the start of grazing by young lambs. e) Throughout the entire grazing season with regular anthelmintic treatments every 3-4 weeks.

Answer 43

Answer: d) In the spring, coinciding with the mass hatching of overwintered larvae and the start of grazing by young lambs. Explanation: Nematodirus battus has a unique epidemiology with a mass hatching of larvae in the spring. Targeting preventative measures, such as strategic anthelmintic treatment, to coincide with this period is crucial for effective control.

Question 44

Scenario: A farmer is concerned about the environmental impact of anthelmintic use on his farm. Lead-in: Which of the following anthelmintic drugs is known to have the most prolonged and significant impact on dung beetle populations in pasture? Options: a) Fenbendazole b) Levamisole c) Ivermectin d) Moxidectin e) Albendazole

Answer 44

Answer: d) Moxidectin Explanation: Moxidectin, a macrocyclic lactone, is known to have a longer persistence in faeces compared to ivermectin and can therefore have a more prolonged negative impact on dung beetle populations.

Question 45

Scenario: A dairy farmer has been participating in a voluntary BVD eradication scheme for the past three years. He has been regularly testing his herd and has culled all persistently infected (PI) animals identified. This year, a newly purchased in-calf heifer, which tested negative for BVD virus on arrival, gives birth to a calf that tests positive for BVD virus and is persistently infected. Lead-in: What is the most likely explanation for the birth of a PI calf in this situation? Options: a) The heifer was vaccinated against BVD with a modified live vaccine during pregnancy. b) The heifer was transiently infected with BVD virus between her negative pre-purchase test and calving, around the critical window of susceptibility for PI calf development. c) The calf acquired the BVD virus post-natally through colostrum from an infected dam. d) The initial negative test on the heifer was a false negative due to low viral load. e) The BVD virus on the farm has mutated, leading to a new strain that is not detected by the standard tests.

Answer 45

Answer: b) The heifer was transiently infected with BVD virus between her negative pre-purchase test and calving, around the critical window of susceptibility for PI calf development. Explanation: PI calves are typically created when a naive pregnant dam is infected with non-cytopathic BVD virus between approximately 40 and 125 days of gestation. The negative pre-purchase test indicates the heifer was not PI at that time, but a subsequent infection during the critical period could lead to a PI calf despite the dam clearing the infection.

Question 46

Lead-in: Which diagnostic test would be most appropriate to initially investigate BVD as a potential cause of issues at a herd level? Options: a) Individual blood samples from all cows to test for BVD virus antigen. b) Bulk milk antibody testing on the milking herd. c) Vaginal swabs from cows that have aborted to culture for BVD virus. d) Testing aborted foetuses for BVD virus antigen using PCR. e) Whole-herd antibody testing using ELISA on blood samples from all animals over 6 months of age.

Answer 46

Answer: b) Bulk milk antibody testing on the milking herd. Explanation: Bulk milk antibody testing is a cost-effective initial screening tool to assess the herd's exposure to BVD virus. The presence of antibodies in the bulk milk indicates that some or all of the milking cows have been exposed to the virus at some point. Further individual testing may be required based on the results.

Question 47

Scenario: A beef farmer is considering implementing a BVD vaccination programme in his naive herd. He wants to use a killed vaccine because he is concerned about the potential for abortion storms associated with modified live vaccines in pregnant cattle. Lead-in: What is a key limitation of using a killed BVD vaccine compared to a modified live vaccine in achieving robust herd immunity and preventing PI calves? Options: a) Killed vaccines are less effective at inducing cell-mediated immunity, which is crucial for clearing transient BVDV infections. b) Killed vaccines typically require more frequent booster vaccinations to maintain adequate antibody titres for foetal protection. c) Killed vaccines do not provide sufficient cross-protection against heterologous strains of BVD virus. d) Killed vaccines are more likely to interfere with diagnostic tests used to detect PI animals. e) Killed vaccines cannot be used safely in pregnant cattle, negating the farmer's primary concern.

Answer 47

Answer: b) Killed vaccines typically require more frequent booster vaccinations to maintain adequate antibody titres for foetal protection. Explanation: While killed vaccines are generally considered safer for use in pregnant animals, they typically induce a shorter duration of immunity and may require more frequent boosters to ensure that breeding females have sufficient antibody levels throughout pregnancy to protect the developing foetus during the critical window of susceptibility for PI creation. Modified live vaccines generally offer a longer duration of immunity with a single annual booster.

Question 48

Scenario: A dairy cow, 5 days post-calving, presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, kicking at her abdomen, and a complete absence of appetite. On rectal examination, the uterus feels normal, but there is a palpable mass in the right flank region. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this acute abdominal crisis? Options: a) Left displaced abomasum b) Right displaced abomasum with volvulus c) Metritis with secondary peritonitis d) Caecal dilatation and torsion e) Intussusception of the small intestine

Answer 48

Answer: b) Right displaced abomasum with volvulus Explanation: Right displaced abomasum with volvulus typically presents with more severe pain and systemic signs than a left displacement. The palpable mass in the right flank is characteristic of a volvulus, and the normal uterus rules out severe metritis as the primary cause. Caecal dilatation and torsion: Also causes right-sided ping and can be painful, but the onset is often more gradual, and the caecum has a different rectal feel.

Question 49

Scenario: A beef steer, approximately 18 months old, presents with chronic weight loss despite a good appetite. Faecal examination reveals occasional acid-fast positive organisms. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Options: a) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD) b) Johne's disease c) Parasitic gastroenteritis due to Ostertagia ostertagi d) Chronic bloat due to vagal indigestion e) Liver fluke infection (Fasciola hepatica)

Answer 49

Answer: b) Johne's disease Explanation: Chronic weight loss despite a good appetite and the presence of acid-fast positive organisms in faeces are highly suggestive of Johne's disease, caused by Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis.

Question 50

Scenario: A pig farmer reports that several of his weaned piglets have developed diarrhoea, are losing weight, and some have a characteristic "thumping" respiratory pattern. Post-mortem examination of one piglet reveals thickened intestinal walls and enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Options: a) Swine dysentery b) Porcine proliferative enteropathy (ileitis) c) Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) d) Porcine circovirus associated disease (PCVAD) e) Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis

Answer 50

Answer: b) Porcine proliferative enteropathy (ileitis) Explanation: The clinical signs of diarrhoea, weight loss, "thumping" respiration, and the post-mortem findings of thickened intestinal walls and enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes are characteristic of porcine proliferative enteropathy (ileitis), caused by Lawsonia intracellularis.

Question 51

Scenario: A sheep presents with a severely distended abdomen, particularly on the left side. The animal is dyspnoeic and appears uncomfortable. There is no ping audible on percussion. Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this abdominal distension? Options: a) Free gas bloat (ruminal tympany) b) Frothy bloat (primary ruminal tympany) c) Vagal indigestion with fluid accumulation in the rumen d) Uterine torsion in a pregnant ewe e) Peritonitis with fluid accumulation

Answer 51

Answer: b) Frothy bloat (primary ruminal tympany) Explanation: Severe distension of the left flank with respiratory distress, and the absence of a ping, are typical signs of frothy bloat, where gas is trapped in a stable foam within the rumen. Free gas bloat usually produces a distinct ping.

Question 52

Scenario: A calf, 10 days old, housed indoors, develops a profuse, watery, yellow diarrhoea. Despite oral electrolyte therapy, the calf remains dehydrated and weak. Lead-in: Which of the following infectious agents is the most likely cause of this scour in this age group? Options: a) Escherichia coli (K99 positive) b) Rotavirus c) Coronavirus d) Cryptosporidium parvum e) Salmonella

Answer 52

Answer: b) Rotavirus Explanation: Rotavirus is a common cause of watery, yellow diarrhoea in calves aged 5-15 days. While other agents can cause scour in this age group, the profuse and watery nature is typical of rotavirus.

Question 53

Scenario: A group of finishing lambs, recently introduced to lush pasture, suddenly develop diarrhoea and some have died. On post-mortem examination, the small intestinal contents are dark red and haemorrhagic. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Options: a) Coccidiosis b) Haemorrhagic enteritis (jejunal haemorrhagic syndrome) c) Nematodirus infection d) Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxaemia ("overeating disease") e) Acute copper poisoning

Answer 53

Answer: b) Haemorrhagic enteritis (jejunal haemorrhagic syndrome) Explanation: The sudden onset of diarrhoea and death in finishing lambs on lush pasture, along with the haemorrhagic intestinal contents on post-mortem, are characteristic of haemorrhagic enteritis.

Question 54

Scenario: A dairy cow develops severe abdominal distension and is frequently lying down. She has a slow heart rate and weak peripheral pulses. On rectal examination, the rumen feels very firm and doughy. Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of these signs? Options: a) Acute bloat b) Vagal indigestion with rumen impaction c) Left displaced abomasum d) Right displaced abomasum with volvulus e) Peritonitis

Answer 54

Answer: b) Vagal indigestion with rumen impaction Explanation: The slow heart rate, weak pulses, firm rumen, and severe abdominal distension suggest vagal indigestion, leading to impaired rumen emptying and impaction.

Question 55

Scenario: A sheep farmer notices that several adult sheep in his flock have developed a chronic, intermittent diarrhoea and are losing weight. Some have submandibular oedema ("bottle jaw"). Faecal worm egg counts are low. Lead-in: Which of the following should be considered as a differential diagnosis? Options: a) Acute parasitic gastroenteritis b) Johne's disease c) Copper deficiency d) Chronic fluke infection e) Selenium deficiency

Answer 55

Answer: b) Johne's disease Explanation: Chronic, intermittent diarrhoea, weight loss, and "bottle jaw" in adult sheep with low faecal worm egg counts can be indicative of Johne's disease.

Question 56

Scenario: A dairy cow, immediately after calving, is dull, anorexic, and has a distended abdomen. On vaginal examination, there is a foul-smelling uterine discharge. Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of the abdominal distension in this case? Options: a) Left displaced abomasum b) Right displaced abomasum c) Uterine torsion d) Peritonitis secondary to metritis e) Caecal dilatation

Answer 56

Answer: d) Peritonitis secondary to metritis Explanation: The combination of post-parturient dullness, anorexia, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling uterine discharge strongly suggests metritis that has progressed to cause secondary peritonitis.

Question 57

Scenario: A dairy cow with a left displaced abomasum is treated surgically. In the immediate post-operative period, she appears bloated and uncomfortable. Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this post-operative abdominal distension? Options: a) Recurrence of the abomasal displacement b) Post-operative ileus leading to gas accumulation in the rumen c) Haemorrhage into the abdominal cavity d) Surgical site infection and abscess formation e) Excessive fluid therapy during surgery

Answer 57

Answer: b) Post-operative ileus leading to gas accumulation in the rumen Explanation: Post-operative ileus, or temporary paralysis of the intestines, can occur after abdominal surgery, leading to a build-up of gas in the rumen and intestines, causing bloat and discomfort.

Question 58

Scenario: A housed dairy calf, 3 weeks old, has diarrhoea containing blood and mucus. The calf is pyrexic and depressed. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation? Options: a) Rotavirus infection b) Coronavirus infection c) Cryptosporidium parvum infection d) Salmonella infection e) Nutritional scour

Answer 58

Answer: d) Salmonella infection Explanation: Diarrhoea with blood and mucus, accompanied by fever and depression in a young calf, is highly suggestive of a Salmonella infection.

Question 59

Scenario: A sheep farmer is concerned about the risk of "watery mouth" (E. coli infection) in his newborn lambs. Lead-in: Which of the following management practices is most important for preventing this condition? Options: a) Routine antibiotic treatment of all newborn lambs. b) Ensuring adequate colostrum intake by all newborn lambs within the first few hours of life. c) Disinfection of lambing pens with a strong disinfectant. d) Vaccination of ewes against E. coli before lambing. e) Providing supplementary heat to newborn lambs.

Answer 59

Answer: b) Ensuring adequate colostrum intake by all newborn lambs within the first few hours of life. Explanation: Adequate colostrum intake is crucial for providing passive immunity to newborn lambs, protecting them against infections like "watery mouth" caused by E. coli.

Question 60

Scenario: A calf with severe, watery diarrhoea is being treated with intravenous fluids. After several hours of treatment, the calf remains weak and is now showing muscle twitching and an irregular heartbeat. Lead-in: Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is the most likely cause of these new clinical signs? Options: a) Hypernatraemia b) Hypokalaemia c) Hypercalcaemia d) Hypomagnesaemia e) Hyperchloraemia

Answer 60

Answer: b) Hypokalaemia Explanation: Potassium is lost in diarrhoeic faeces, and prolonged fluid therapy without adequate potassium supplementation can lead to hypokalaemia. Clinical signs of hypokalaemia include muscle weakness, twitching, and cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 61

Piglets less than 5 days old are exhibiting profuse watery diarrhoea and lethargy. Post-mortem examination might reveal haemorrhagic enteritis. Lead-in: Which of the following bacterial agents is the most likely cause? Options: a) Escherichia coli b) Clostridium perfringens type A c) Clostridium perfringens type C d) Salmonella Typhimurium e) Lawsonia intracellularis

Answer 61

Answer: c) E.Coli

Question 62

Weaned pigs (4-12 weeks old) are showing signs of diarrhoea, reduced growth rate, and some may have a "thumping" respiratory pattern. Post-mortem examination often reveals thickened intestinal walls. Lead-in: Which bacterial agent is the most likely cause of these signs in this age group? Options: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella Choleraesuis c) Lawsonia intracellularis d) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae e) Streptococcus suis

Answer 62

Answer: c) Lawsonia intracellularis

Question 63

A pig of approximately 6 weeks old is presented with diarrhoea. Which of the following causes of scour is least likely in this age group? Options: a) Escherichia coli b) Rotavirus c) Clostridium perfringens type C d) Salmonella e) Lawsonia intracellularis

Answer 63

Answer: c) Clostridium perfringens type C Explanation: Clostridium perfringens type C is most commonly seen in piglets less than 5 days old.

Question 64

A farmer calls you about a group of piglets around 1 week old with watery, yellow diarrhoea. The sows are healthy. You perform faecal PCR, which is positive for Rotavirus. While discussing supportive care, the farmer is insistent on using antibiotics. Based on the information given above, and acknowledging the primary diagnosis, which antibiotic might be considered if secondary bacterial complications are suspected, even though Rotavirus is the primary cause?

Answer 64

Amoxicillin

Question 65

A group of nursery pigs (around 5 weeks old) is showing signs of diarrhoea and reduced growth. Some pigs have a "thumping" respiratory pattern. Post-mortem examination of a pig reveals thickened intestinal mucosa, particularly in the ileum. PCR testing of intestinal scrapings is positive for Lawsonia intracellularis. Based on the information given above, you establish your most likely diagnosis. What antibiotic would be most appropriate?

Answer 65

Answer: Tylosin, lincomycin, or tetracyclines (oxy or Doxy) are commonly used to treat Ileitis caused by Lawsonia intracellularis.

Question 66

A batch of grower pigs (approximately 10 weeks old) is experiencing diarrhoea with mucus and some blood. The pigs are losing weight despite a reasonable appetite. Some pigs show tenesmus. You suspect Swine Dysentery. Based on the information given above, you establish your most likely diagnosis. What in-feed antibiotic is commonly used for the treatment of this condition?

Answer 66

Tiamulin

Question 67

Your client has a group of weaned piglets (around 6 weeks old) that are showing signs of diarrhoea, fever, and some have blood and mucus in their faeces. Some piglets appear dull and are off their feed. Faecal culture reveals the presence of Salmonella Typhimurium. Based on the information given above, you establish your most likely diagnosis. What antibiotic would be most appropriate?

Answer 67

Spectinomycin– Streptomycin– Neomycin– Apramycin– Paromomycin Tetracyclines– Doxycycline –

Question 68

In cattle, the use of the NSAID __________ at parturition has been associated with an increased risk of stillbirth and retained foetal membranes.

Answer 68

Flunixin

Question 69

The __________ nerve block is commonly used in cattle for procedures involving the horn.

Answer 69

Corneal

Question 70

Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial enteritis in young broiler chicks, often presenting with mucoid diarrhoea and poor growth? a) Eimeria species b) Salmonella species c) Campylobacter species d) Escherichia coli e) Clostridium perfringens

Answer 70

D

Question 71

Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD) in poultry is caused by a virus that primarily targets which of the following? a) T-lymphocytes in the thymus b) B-lymphocytes in the Bursa of Fabricius c) Epithelial cells of the intestinal villi d) Neurons of the enteric nervous system e) Hepatocytes in the liver

Answer 71

B

Question 72

Which of the following clinical signs is most characteristic of Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD) in young chickens? a) Respiratory distress and coughing b) Neurological signs such as tremors and paralysis c) Hunched posture, pale appearance, depression, and diarrhoea d) Swollen joints and lameness e) Skin lesions and feather loss

Answer 72

C

Question 73

Control of Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD) in poultry primarily relies on: a) Strict biosecurity measures and hygiene b) Administration of antibiotics to prevent secondary infections c) Vaccination with live attenuated or vector vaccines d) Treatment with antiviral medications e) Genetic selection for resistance

Answer 73

C

Question 74

Wet litter in poultry houses can be a significant predisposing factor for several diseases. Which of the following is the most likely direct consequence of poor drinker management leading to wet litter? a) Increased risk of viral respiratory infections b) Higher incidence of coccidiosis c) Decreased feed intake and poor growth d) Development of nutritional deficiencies e) Increased susceptibility to external parasites

Answer 74

B

Question 75

Which of the following is a common cause of watery scour in pre-weaning piglets (0-4 weeks old)? a) Lawsonia intracellularis b) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae c) Rotavirus d) Salmonella typhimurium e) Porcine Circovirus type 2 (PCV-2)

Answer 75

C

Question 76

Clostridium perfringens types C and A are known to cause enteric disease in young piglets. Which of the following is a typical clinical sign associated with Clostridium perfringens type C infection? a) Mild, transient diarrhoea b) Severe, haemorrhagic enteritis with high mortality c) Chronic weight loss and ill-thrift d) Vomiting and dehydration e) Rectal prolapse

Answer 76

B

Question 77

Ileitis in pigs, a common cause of diarrhoea and reduced growth in nursery and finisher pigs, is caused by which bacterial pathogen? a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella enterica c) Lawsonia intracellularis d) Brachyspira pilisicoli e) Clostridium difficile

Answer 77

C

Question 78

Swine dysentery is a severe diarrhoeal disease in pigs characterised by mucohaemorrhagic faeces. The primary causative agent is: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella choleraesuis c) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae d) Lawsonia intracellularis e) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)

Answer 78

C

Question 79

Which of the following diagnostic methods is most likely to be used to confirm a diagnosis of swine dysentery in a pig herd? a) Faecal culture for Salmonella species b) Histopathological examination of colonic tissues with silver staining c) Blood PCR for Porcine Circovirus type 2 d) Serological testing for antibodies against Lawsonia intracellularis e) Nasal swab for influenza virus detection

Answer 79

B

Question 80

Maintaining an "all-in, all-out" (AIAO) system is crucial for controlling certain gastrointestinal diseases in pigs because: a) It reduces the need for antibiotic usage. b) It allows for thorough cleaning and disinfection of facilities between batches of pigs. c) It improves the overall air quality within the piggery. d) It simplifies the process of vaccination. e) It enhances the natural immunity of the pigs.

Answer 80

B

Question 81

Which of the following clinical signs is often associated with rotavirus infection in young piglets? a) Bloody diarrhoea b) Yellow, watery scour and fading c) Rectal strictures d) Vomiting and abdominal pain e) Tenesmus and straining to defecate

Answer 81

B

Question 82

Coccidiosis in piglets is typically caused by parasites belonging to the genus: a) Cryptosporidium b) Giardia c) Eimeria d) Isospora e) Strongyloides

Answer 82

D

Question 83

Which of the following age groups of pigs is most susceptible to the enteric form of Porcine Circovirus type 2 (PCV-2) infection? a) Neonatal piglets b) Weaning piglets c) Nursery pigs d) Finishing pigs e) Adult sows

Answer 83

B

Question 84

The presence of a "sickly-sweet" smell associated with watery scour in piglets is often indicative of infection with: a) Escherichia coli b) Rotavirus c) Clostridium perfringens d) Salmonella species e) Coccidia

Answer 84

A

Question 85

Scenario: A flock of 3-week-old broiler chickens presents with increased mortality (5% in the last 24 hours), lethargy, ruffled feathers, and watery, pale diarrhoea. Post-mortem examination reveals enlarged, pale kidneys and urate deposits in the ureters. The Bursa of Fabricius is also mildly enlarged. Lead-in: Based on these findings, which of the following is the most likely primary cause of this disease outbreak? Options: a) Infectious Bronchitis virus (nephropathogenic strain) b) Avian Influenza virus (highly pathogenic strain) c) Newcastle Disease virus (viscerotropic velogenic strain) d) Infectious Bursal Disease virus (very virulent strain) e) Chicken Astrovirus

Answer 85

Answer: a) Infectious Bronchitis virus (nephropathogenic strain) Explanation: The clinical signs and post-mortem findings of enlarged, pale kidneys with urate deposits are highly characteristic of the nephropathogenic strain of Infectious Bronchitis virus (IBV). While Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD) can cause immunosuppression and diarrhoea, the prominent kidney lesions and urate deposits are more specific to nephropathogenic IBV. Avian Influenza and Newcastle Disease typically present with more severe systemic signs, including respiratory and neurological involvement, which are not the primary findings here. Chicken Astrovirus can cause kidney disease, but is less commonly associated with the described severity of lesions and mortality in broiler chickens.

Question 86

Scenario: A group of 8-week-old weaned pigs in a large indoor unit are exhibiting loose, mucoid faeces, some with fresh blood. Affected pigs appear gaunt despite a good appetite. On investigation, several pigs have palpable thickening of the intestinal wall in the ileocaecal region. Lead-in: Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line antimicrobial treatment for this condition in the UK, considering responsible antimicrobial use guidelines? Options: a) Tylosin via oral administration in drinking water. b) Amoxicillin via IM injection. c) Lincomycin via oral administration in drinking water. d) Enrofloxacin via IM injection. e) Doxycycline oral administration via feed.

Answer 86

The correct answer is a) Tylosin via oral administration in drinking water. Here's why: Likely Diagnosis: The clinical signs (loose, mucoid faeces with blood, gaunt appearance despite good appetite, palpable thickening in the ileocaecal region in 8-week-old weaned pigs) strongly suggest proliferative enteropathy (ileitis), caused by the bacterium Lawsonia intracellularis. This is a common condition in pigs of this age.