GCSE paper 1… Flashcards

(134 cards)

1
Q

What is the definition of geography?

A

The study of the Earth’s landscapes, environments, and the relationships between people and their environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: Geography is only concerned with physical features of the Earth.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main branches of geography?

A

Physical geography and human geography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fill in the blank: The imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres is called the _______.

A

Equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a biome?

A

A large ecological area on Earth’s surface, with flora and fauna adapting to their environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which layer of the Earth is made up of solid rock?

A

The lithosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the main cause of tectonic plate movement?

A

Convection currents in the mantle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is urbanization?

A

The process by which rural areas become urbanized as a result of economic development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False: The population of the world is currently decreasing.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the term ‘sustainable development’ mean?

A

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between weather and climate?

A

Weather refers to short-term atmospheric conditions, while climate refers to long-term averages of weather patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of map shows the physical features of an area?

A

Topographic map.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fill in the blank: The process by which water vapor becomes liquid water is called _______.

A

Condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the significance of the Prime Meridian?

A

It is the line of 0 degrees longitude, dividing the Eastern and Western Hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a renewable resource?

A

A natural resource that can be replenished naturally over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Deserts receive less than 250 mm of rainfall per year.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a watershed?

A

An area of land that drains rainwater or snow into one location, such as a river or lake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the term for the movement of people from one place to another?

A

Migration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fill in the blank: The boundary where two tectonic plates meet is called a _______.

A

Plate boundary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the capital city of the United Kingdom?

A

London.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are fossil fuels?

A

Natural fuels formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals, such as coal, oil, and natural gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is deforestation?

A

The clearing or thinning of forests by humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: The Earth is closer to the sun in summer than in winter.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the greenhouse effect?

A

The trapping of the sun’s warmth in the planet’s lower atmosphere due to the presence of greenhouse gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is a demographic transition model?
A model that describes the transition of a country from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates.
26
Fill in the blank: The movement of water through the Earth's atmosphere and surface is known as the _______.
Water cycle.
27
What is an ecosystem?
A community of living organisms and their interactions with their environment.
28
What are the four main types of biomes?
Tundra, desert, forest, and grassland.
29
True or False: Latitude affects climate.
True
30
What is an urban heat island?
An urban area that is significantly warmer than its rural surroundings due to human activities.
31
Fill in the blank: The boundary line at 66.5 degrees North is known as the _______.
Arctic Circle.
32
What is the definition of globalization?
The process by which businesses or other organizations develop international influence or start operating on an international scale.
33
What are the main causes of air pollution?
Vehicle emissions, industrial discharges, and burning fossil fuels.
34
True or False: Soil erosion can lead to desertification.
True
35
What is a natural disaster?
A catastrophic event that occurs as a result of natural processes of the Earth.
36
Fill in the blank: The average number of children born to a woman over her lifetime is called the _______.
Total fertility rate.
37
What is the purpose of a population pyramid?
To illustrate the distribution of various age groups in a population.
38
What is the role of the World Health Organization (WHO)?
To direct and coordinate international health within the United Nations system.
39
True or False: The Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours.
True
40
What is a meander?
A winding curve or bend in a river.
41
What is the significance of biodiversity?
It enhances ecosystem productivity and stability.
42
Fill in the blank: The process by which organisms adapt to their environment over generations is called _______.
Natural selection.
43
What is a non-renewable resource?
A resource that cannot be replaced once it is used up, such as fossil fuels.
44
What is the main purpose of the Kyoto Protocol?
To reduce greenhouse gas emissions globally.
45
True or False: The Amazon Rainforest is considered a biome.
True
46
47
What is hydraulic action?
Hydraulic action is the process by which water exerts pressure on rocks and soil, causing them to break apart or erode.
48
True or False: Corrosion refers to the chemical breakdown of materials due to environmental factors.
True
49
Fill in the blank: _____ is the process of wearing away surfaces through friction and impact.
Abrasion
50
What is the main difference between attrition and abrasion?
Attrition involves the grinding down of particles against each other, while abrasion involves the wearing away of surfaces through contact with another material.
51
Multiple Choice: Which of the following processes involves the physical removal of material by flowing water? A) Corrosion B) Hydraulic Action C) Attrition D) Abrasion
B) Hydraulic Action
52
What is a volcano?
A volcano is an opening in the Earth's crust through which molten rock, ash, and gases are ejected.
53
True or False: Earthquakes are caused by the movement of tectonic plates.
True
54
Fill in the blank: The point on the Earth's surface directly above where an earthquake originates is called the __________.
epicenter
55
What are the two main types of volcanic eruptions?
Explosive and effusive eruptions.
56
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a type of seismic wave? A) P-waves B) R-waves C) T-waves D) S-waves
A) P-waves and D) S-waves
57
What is the primary cause of tectonic plate movement?
Convection currents in the mantle.
58
True or False: All volcanoes are located at tectonic plate boundaries.
False
59
Name one method used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake.
Richter scale.
60
What is the term for molten rock beneath the Earth's surface?
Magma
61
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the area where two tectonic plates meet.
plate boundary
62
What category was Hurricane Katrina when it made landfall in the United States?
Category 5
63
True or False: Hurricane Katrina occurred in August 2005.
True
64
Fill in the blank: The primary city affected by Hurricane Katrina was __________.
New Orleans
65
What was the main cause of the flooding in New Orleans during Hurricane Katrina?
Breach of levees
66
Which body of water did Hurricane Katrina primarily originate from?
Gulf of Mexico
67
Multiple Choice: What was the estimated cost of damages caused by Hurricane Katrina?
$125 billion
68
What were the geographical features that made New Orleans particularly vulnerable to flooding?
Low elevation and proximity to water bodies
69
True or False: Hurricane Katrina was the deadliest hurricane in U.S. history.
False
70
Short Answer: Name one major response challenge faced by emergency services during Hurricane Katrina.
Communication breakdown
71
Fill in the blank: The hurricane made landfall on __________, 2005.
August 29
72
What is Cyclone Aiyla?
Cyclone Aiyla was a tropical cyclone that affected parts of India and Bangladesh in May 2009.
73
True or False: Cyclone Aiyla primarily impacted the eastern coast of India.
True
74
Fill in the blank: Cyclone Aiyla formed over the __________ Bay of Bengal.
northern
75
What category of cyclone was Cyclone Aiyla classified as?
It was classified as a tropical storm.
76
What were the major impacts of Cyclone Aiyla?
Major impacts included heavy rainfall, flooding, and damage to infrastructure.
77
Multiple Choice: Which country experienced significant flooding due to Cyclone Aiyla? A) Nepal B) Bangladesh C) Sri Lanka
B) Bangladesh
78
What date did Cyclone Aiyla make landfall?
Cyclone Aiyla made landfall on May 25, 2009.
79
True or False: Cyclone Aiyla caused no fatalities.
False
80
Short Answer: Name one of the regions in India affected by Cyclone Aiyla.
West Bengal
81
What was the estimated economic damage caused by Cyclone Aiyla?
The estimated economic damage was around $1 billion.
82
What is a top-down approach in urban planning?
A top-down approach involves decisions made by authorities or government bodies without significant input from local communities.
83
True or False: Bottom-up approaches prioritize community involvement in the planning process.
True
84
Fill in the blank: In Mumbai, the top-down approach often leads to __________ decisions that may not reflect local needs.
centralized
85
What is one advantage of a bottom-up approach?
It encourages local participation and ensures that the needs of the community are addressed.
86
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a characteristic of the top-down approach? A) Community engagement B) Government-led initiatives C) Grassroots movements
B) Government-led initiatives
87
In the context of Mumbai, what is a common criticism of the top-down approach?
It often ignores the voices and needs of marginalized communities.
88
What is a key feature of bottom-up approaches in urban development?
They involve local stakeholders in decision-making processes.
89
True or False: Bottom-up approaches are generally quicker to implement than top-down approaches.
False
90
What is one example of a bottom-up initiative in Mumbai?
Community-led housing projects or local environmental initiatives.
91
What role does government play in bottom-up approaches?
The government acts as a facilitator rather than a decision-maker.
92
What is the primary focus of Frank's Dependency Theory?
It focuses on the economic dependence of developing countries on developed countries and how this relationship hinders development.
93
True or False: Rostow's Stages of Economic Growth includes five distinct stages.
True
94
Fill in the blank: According to Rostow, the first stage of economic growth is called _____ .
Traditional Society
95
Which stage in Rostow's model is characterized by rapid industrialization?
Take-off
96
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT one of Rostow's stages? A) Pre-conditions for take-off B) High mass consumption C) Economic dependency D) Drive to maturity
C) Economic dependency
97
What does Frank argue is a major barrier to development in Latin America?
The structure of the global economy that favors developed nations.
98
True or False: Rostow's theory suggests that all countries will follow the same path to economic development.
True
99
What is one critique of Rostow's Stages of Economic Growth?
It oversimplifies the complexities of economic development and ignores historical and cultural factors.
100
Fill in the blank: Frank's Dependency Theory emphasizes the relationship between _____ and _____ countries.
core; peripheral
101
Short Answer: What is the main outcome of the dependency relationship described by Frank?
It leads to the underdevelopment of peripheral countries while benefiting core countries.
102
What is the primary driver of global atmospheric circulation?
The uneven heating of the Earth's surface by the sun.
103
True or False: The Coriolis effect influences wind direction in the atmosphere.
True.
104
Fill in the blank: The global atmospheric circulation model is divided into three main cells: the Hadley cell, the ______ cell, and the Polar cell.
Ferrel
105
Which cell is located between the equator and approximately 30 degrees latitude?
Hadley cell.
106
Multiple Choice: Which of the following best describes the Ferrel cell?
It is located between 30 and 60 degrees latitude and is driven by the interactions between the Hadley and Polar cells.
107
What is a solar eruption?
A solar eruption is a release of energy in the form of solar flares or coronal mass ejections from the sun's surface.
108
True or False: Sunspots are cooler areas on the sun's surface caused by magnetic activity.
True
109
Fill in the blank: The __________ theory explains the movement of planets and other celestial bodies in space.
orbital
110
What is the main difference between asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are primarily made of rock and metal, while comets are composed of ice, dust, and rocky material.
111
Which of the following is a type of solar eruption? A) Asteroid B) Solar flare C) Planet
B) Solar flare
112
What causes sunspots to form?
Sunspots form due to the sun's magnetic field disrupting the flow of hot plasma.
113
True or False: The orbital theory states that all planets orbit the sun in perfect circles.
False
114
What is the approximate distance from the Earth to the nearest asteroid belt?
The nearest asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
115
Short Answer: Name one effect of solar eruptions on Earth.
Solar eruptions can cause geomagnetic storms that disrupt satellite communications and power grids.
116
What is a coronal mass ejection?
A coronal mass ejection is a significant release of plasma and magnetic field from the sun's corona.
117
What is one primary piece of evidence for climate change?
Rising global temperatures.
118
True or False: Glacial retreat is an indicator of climate change.
True.
119
Fill in the blank: The increase in _______ gas concentrations is a significant contributor to climate change.
greenhouse.
120
Which phenomenon is associated with climate change and leads to more extreme weather events?
Increased frequency and intensity of storms.
121
What scientific method is commonly used to analyze historical climate data?
Paleoclimate studies.
122
What year did the Nepal earthquake occur?
2015
123
True or False: The Nepal earthquake had a magnitude of 7.8.
True
124
Fill in the blank: The capital city of Nepal affected by the earthquake is _____.
Kathmandu
125
What tectonic plates are involved in the Nepal earthquake?
The Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
126
Multiple Choice: Which of the following was a primary cause of the earthquake's destruction? A) Flooding B) Landslides C) Infrastructure failure D) All of the above
C) Infrastructure failure
127
How many people were estimated to have died as a result of the Nepal earthquake?
Approximately 9,000.
128
What type of natural disaster is the Nepal earthquake classified as?
A seismic event.
129
True or False: Aftershocks are common following a major earthquake.
True
130
What was one major impact on the economy of Nepal due to the earthquake?
Significant damage to infrastructure and tourism decline.
131
Short Answer: Name one international response to the Nepal earthquake.
Emergency aid and relief efforts from various countries and organizations.
132
How big was the New Zealand earthquake
7.8
133
Why was New Zealand’s recovery better than nepal
They responded quicker and had better infrastructure
134
What time were Nepal and nz earthquakes
11.26 am and 12.02 pm