GDL - Core principles of criminal liability Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

Examples of indictable-only offences

A

murder, manslaughter, causing grievous bodily harm with intent and robbery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does the prosecution succeed in proving the defendant’s guilt?

A

by making the jury sure of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acts of a third party can break the chain of causation when

A

free, deliberate and informed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To break the chain of causation, the medical malpractice must be

A

so independent from the defendant’s actions and potent in causing the death to equal a break in the chain of causation (NAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

medical negligence will not break the chain of causation if the original wound is

A

still an operating and substantial cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the victim’s fight or flight reaction only breaks the causation if it were an act that was

A

‘so daft’ that no reasonable person could have foreseen it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Does the victim’s refusal to accept medical treatment break the chain of causation?

A

No, because the defendant must take the victim as they find them (thin skull rule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When would a victim’s suicide break the chain of causation?

A
  1. the injuries inflicted by the defendant have healed before the victim goes on to die by suicide
    OR
  2. it was a voluntary and informed decision of the victim to act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Natural events will only break the chain of causation if they are

A

‘extraordinary’ and not reasonably foreseeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can a defendant be criminally liable for a failure to act?

A

No, there is no general duty to act to prevent harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which “special relationships” may a duty of care arise?

A

doctors/patients
parents/children
Spouses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why was Pittwood liable for an omission?

A

He was a gatekeeper and had a contractual duty to close the level-crossing, which he failed to do. A man was killed as a result of his failure to meet his contractual duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if a defendant creates a dangerous situation, they have a duty to

A

take reasonable steps to counteract the dangerous situation created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

direct intention

A

the aim or purpose of the defendant’s act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

oblique intent

A

where the consequence is not the defendant’s purpose but rather a side effect that D accepts as an inevitable or certain accompaniment to D’s direct intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

who decides whether the accused acted with necessary intent?

17
Q

factual causation test

A

‘But for’ the acts or omissions of the defendant, the relevant consequence would not have occurred in the way that it did

18
Q

test for oblique intention (R v Woollin)

A

the jury are not entitled to find the necessary intention unless they feel sure that the death or serious bodily harm was a virtual certainty as a result of the defendant’s action and that the defendant appreciated that such was the case

19
Q

Oblique intent is only to be used in rare circumstances, such as

A

when the facts require it and when intention is the only form of mens rea for the offence e.g. murder, s.18

20
Q

When should you NOT refer to oblique intent?

A

if the rules of the offence allows mens rea in the form of intention or recklessness (eg s.20)

21
Q

When is motive relevant?

A

motive can be used as evidence of intention

22
Q

Test for recklessness (R v G)

A
  • D foresaw a risk of harm and went ahead anyway; and
  • in the circumstances known to the defendant, it was an unreasonable risk to take
23
Q

the continuing act theory

A

a defendant can be guilty of an offence using the continuing act theory if they form the mens rea for the offence during the actus reus continuing.

24
Q

The doctrine of transferred malice operates to allow the mens rea against X

A

to be transferred and joined with the actus reus that causes the prohibited harm to Y (eg if you go to hit X, X ducks, and you hit Y)

25
transferred malice will not assist where the defendant has
the mens rea for one crime and the actus reus for another
26
Can the D avoid liability if they did not know they were breaking the law?
ignorance of the law is no excuse
27
How can mistake negate the mens rea?
while ignorance of the law will not prevent criminal liability (Bailey), the defendant may make a mistake which can mean that the mens rea of the offence is not fulfilled and will escape criminal liability as a result (R v Smith).
28
Key q for intoxication defence
did the defendant form the mens rea even though intoxicated?
29
With less serious crimes of basic intent, the intoxicated defendant will be deemed reckless if they would have
foreseen the risk of harm if sober
30
When is consent available as a defence for assault or battery?
if the victim consented or the defendant honestly believed that they were consenting
31
When is consent not available as a defence?
If the defendant intended to cause the offence of ABH or above
32
Which question will the court ask to establish whether an involuntarily intoxicated defendant can avoid criminal liability?
Did D form the mens rea even though intoxicated?
33
What kind of intent is not available if recklessness is in the mens rea?
oblique intent