geas 1

Question 1

How many milliliters of 1.50 M Nitric acid (HNO₃) are required
to completely react with 100.0 g of cuprous oxide (Cu₂O)
according to the balanced equation:
14HNO3 + 3Cu2O → 6Cu NO3 2 + 2NO + 7H2O
A. 2174 mL B. 1250 mL C. 3040 mL D. 1895 mL

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 g. What is the root-
mean-square of molecular chlorine in m/s at 31°C?
A. 104 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 327 m/s D. 193 m/s

Answer 2

C

Question 3

What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in the mixture of
Argon, Hydrogen and Nitrogen with mass fraction of 0.44,
0.29 and 0.27 respectively in a 3m^3 vessel at 40°C, if the
total mass of the mixture is 3kg? the molecular weight of
nitrogen is 28g/mol, and the universal gas constant is
8.314J/mol.K.?
A. 377.3 kPa B. 297.4 kPa C. 56.4kPa D. 25.1 kPa

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The temperature in a 60 ft3 tank of gas at 100°F. The
molecular weight is 22 and the tank pressure is 25 psia. How
many moles of an ideal gas are in the tank? The universal
gas constant is 1544 (ft.lbf)/(lbmol.R).
A. 0.32 B. 0.25 C. 0.17 D. 0.36

Answer 4

B

Question 5

Acetic acid contains only C, H, and O. A 4.24-mg sample of
acetic acid is completely burned. It gives 6.21 mg of carbon
dioxide and 2.54 mg of water. What is the mass percentage
of hydrogen in acetic acid?
A. 39.9% B. 6.7% C. 53.4% D. 78.2%

Answer 5

B

Question 6

An unknown gas composed of homonuclear diatomic
molecules effuses at a rate that is only 0.355 times that of O2
at the same temperature. What is the identity (molar mass)
of the unknown gas?
A. 25.4 g/mol C. 254 g/mol B. 42.5 g/mol
D. 425 g/mol

Answer 6

C

Question 7

An element has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁴
. How
many electrons and protons does one atom of this element
have?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Ammonium sulfate has a chemical formula of (NH₄)₂SO₄.
Calculate how many atoms of sulfur are in 350 grams of this
compound.
A. 1.45 × 1024 atoms C. 1.60 × 1024 atoms B. 1.58 × 1024 atoms
D. 1.72 × 1024 atoms

Answer 8

C

Question 9

What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in the following
mixture in terms of mass fraction (argon: 0.44, hydrogen:
0.29, nitrogen: 0.27) in a 3 m³ vessel at 40 degrees Celsius, if
the total mass of the mixture is 3 kg?
A. 22.75 kPa B. 24.00 kPa
C. 25.09 kPa D. 26.30 kPa

Answer 9

C

Question 10

You have two containers of equal volume. One is full of
helium gas. The other holds an equal mass of nitrogen gas.
Both gases have the same pressure. How does the
temperature of the helium compare to the temperature of
the nitrogen?
A. Temp. helium > Temp. nitrogen
B. Temp. helium < Temp. nitrogen
C. Temp. helium = Temp. nitrogen
D. Cannot be determined

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Determine the angle of super elevation for a 200 m highway
curve so that there will be no side thrust at a speed of 90 kph.
A. 14.25 degrees B. 15.80 degrees
C. 17.67 degrees D. 18.10 degrees

Answer 11

C

Question 12

A ball is kicked such that it leaves the ground at an upwards
angle with an initial velocity of vi. The ball takes 3.1 s to hit the
ground 26 m from where it was kicked. What is the
magnitude of the final velocity of the ball?
A. 13.25 m/s B. 11.25 m/s
C. 17.35 m/s D. 15.35 m/s

Answer 12

C

Question 13

A marble of mass 0.1 kg falls off a bed with a height of 1.2 m.
What is the impulse on the marble as it hits the ground?
A. 0.49 N·s B. 0.84 N·s C. 2.04 N·s D. 1.74 N·s

Answer 13

A

Question 14

A box is projected up a long ramp (incline angle with the
horizontal = 37°) with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If the surface
of the ramp is very smooth (essentially frictionless), how high
up the ramp will the box go, and what distance along the
ramp will it slide?
A. h = 8.3 m, d = 5.0 m
C. h = 8.5 m, d = 8.3 m
B. h = 5.0 m, d = 8.3 m
D. h = 5.0 m, d = 8.5 m

Answer 14

B

Question 15

A car of mass 1000 kg is traveling around a circular track with
a radius of 50 meters at a speed of 20 m/s. What is the
centrifugal force acting on the car?
A. 9000 N B. 8000 N C. 7000 N D. 6000 N

Answer 15

B

Question 16

A block of mass m = 0.05 kg oscillates on a spring whose
force constant k = 500 N/m. The amplitude of the oscillations
is 4.0 cm. Calculate the maximum speed of the block.
A. 2 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 5 m/s

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Starting with zero initial angular velocity, a sphere begins to
spin with constant angular acceleration about an axis
through its center, achieving an angular velocity of 10 rad/s
when its angular displacement is 20 rad. What is the value of
the sphere’s angular acceleration?
A. 1.5 rad/s² B. 2.0 rad/s²
C. 2.5 rad/s² D. 3.0 rad/s²

Answer 17

C

Question 18

A wire has a length of 10 m and a cross-sectional area of 20
mm². When a 20 kg block of lead is attached to it, it stretches
by 2.5 cm. Find Young’s modulus for the wire.
A. 3.92 × 10⁹ Pa B. 3.75 × 10⁹ Pa
C. 4.10 × 10⁹ Pa D. 4.25 × 10⁹ Pa

Answer 18

A

Question 19

The total energy of a particle executing SHM of period 2π s is
0.256 J. The displacement of the particle at π/4 s is 8√2 cm.
Calculate the mass of the particle.
A. 18.5 kg B. 20.0 kg C. 21.5 kg D. 23.0 kg

Answer 19

B

Question 20

A piece of wood 1 ft square and 10 ft long, weighing 40 lb/ft3,
is submerged vertically in a body of water, its upper end
being flush with the water surface. What vertical force is
required to hold it in position?
A. 210 lb B. 250 lb C. 238 lb D. 224 lb

Answer 20

D

Question 21

Calculate the pressure in the hose whose absolute pressure
is 1.01 x 105 N.m-2 if the speed of the water in the hose
increases from 1.96 m.s-1 to 25.5 m.s-1. Assume that the flow
is frictionless and density 103 kg.m-3.
A. 3.85 × 10^5 N/m^2 B. 4.24 × 10^5 N/m^2
C. 4.68 × 10^5 N/m^2 D. 5.12 × 10^5 N/m^2

Answer 21

B

Question 22

Consider the charge configuration as shown in the figure.
Calculate the electric field at point A. If an electron is placed
at points A, what is the acceleration experienced by this
electron? (mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg and charge of
electron = −1.6 × 10-19 C)
A.
-3.50 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
B.
-3.80 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
C.
-4.10 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
D.
-3.95 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N

Answer 22

D

Question 23

A tightly wound solenoid has a length of 30 cm, a diameter of
2 cm, and contains a total of 10,000 turns. If it carries a
current of 5 A, what’s the magnitude of the magnetic field
inside the solenoid?
A. 1.8 T B. 3.4 T C. 2.4 T D. 0.2 T

Answer 23

D

Question 24

A circular table top is located 4 m below and 3 m to the left
of a lamp that emits 1800 lumens. What is the illumination on
the surface of the table? What is the area of the table top if 3
lumens of flux falls on its surface?
A. 3.95 lux, 0.712 m² B. 6.20 lux, 0.475 m²
C. 5.12 lux, 0.589 m² D. 4.58 lux, 0.655 m²

Answer 24

D

Question 25

What is the energy of light with a wavelength of 600 nm? A. 2.75 × 10^(-19) J B. 3.31 × 10^(-19) J C. 4.12 × 10^(-19) J D. 5.28 × 10^(-19) J

Answer 25

B

Question 26

Which of the following is a series of constant cash flows that occur at the end of each period indefinitely? A. Ordinary annuity B. Annuity due C. Perpetuity D. None of the above

Answer 26

C

Question 27

A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6M. Freight and installation charges amounted to 3% of the purchased price. If the equipment shall be depreciated over a period of 8 years with a salvage value of 5%, determine the depreciation charge during the 5th year using the Sum of Year Digit Method. A. P652,333.33 B. P648,750.25 C. P659,200.00 D. P645,999.75

Answer 27

A

Question 28

To maintain its newly acquired equipment, the company needs P40,000 per year for the first five years and P60,000 per year for the next five years. In addition, an amount of P140,000 would also be needed at the end of the fifth and the eighth years. At 6%, what is the present worth of these costs? A. P689,214 B. P512,453 C. P549,812 D. P586,425

Answer 28

C

Question 29

What is an example of a decision made under certainty? A. Man stealing money from a store B. Consumer buying goods with uncertain outcomes C. Farmers deciding on crop growing time periods D. Manager predicting future market trends

Answer 29

C

Question 30

The decision matrix shown consists of cost elements. Determine the alternative to be chosen using the Hurwicz Principle with α = 0.3. A. Alternative 1 B. Alternative 2 C. Alternative 3 D. Alternative 4

Answer 30

B

Question 31

A company is uncertain how many units of a new product can be sold each year. To determine its sensitivity to varying annual sales volumes, cost estimates for manufacturing the product were found to be as follows: Direct materials: Php 5.00 per unit Direct labor: Php 11.00 per unit Overhead: Php 25,000 + Php 3.50 per unit In addition, new equipment costing Php 160,000 will be needed. It is expected that it would be used for 10 years with a salvage value of Php 30,000 at the end of that time. A market study indicates that the product will sell for Php 28.00 per unit. Money is worth 12% to the company before taxes. If there is uncertainty as to the economic life of the equipment, determine the rate of return if the economic life is 6 years. A. 12.00% B. 8.75% C. 5.38% D. 3.92%

Answer 31

C

Question 32

What theory promotes the idea that management is an interrelated component of an organization? A. Quantitative Theory B. Management Relations Theory C. Modern Management Theories D. Systems Theory

Answer 32

D

Question 33

Match the items of List-II with List-I and choose the correct code: A. (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i) B. (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i) C. (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i) D. (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives. A. Management B. Planning C. Organizing D. Supervision

Answer 34

B

Question 35

Mark was running a media company. He observed that the performance of the employee was not up to the mark. So, he performed a function of management which reviews the operations in a business unit: A. Planning B. Organising C. Directing D. Controlling

Answer 35

D

Question 36

In a manufacturing concern, division of work into key functions will include production, purchase, marketing, accounts, and personnel. These departments may be further divided into sections. Which type of structure is highlighted here? A. Divisional structure C. Rational structure B. Functional structure D. More than one of the above

Answer 36

B

Question 37

Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic Planning D. Secondary Planning

Answer 37

B

Question 38

Which of the following best differentiates quality control in product operations from service operations? A. Product quality is judged by customer perception, while service quality is based on defect rates. B. Product quality follows set standards, service quality depends more on customer experience. C. Both product and service quality are measured using the same objective criteria. D. Service quality is easier to control than product quality due to real-time adjustments.

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Which one of the following is related to the control function of the financial manager? A. To negotiate with bankers for a loan. B. To analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs. C. To estimate the future cash flows from a proposed project to be done. D. To advertise the public issue of the firm.

Answer 39

B

Question 40

Financial Management indicates . __________ A. Aspects of anticipating, acquiring, and allocating financial resources B. Arranging short-term funding while overlooking long-term capital requirements C. Managing operational expenses without considering financial growth strategies D. Focusing solely on maximizing immediate profits without financial planning

Answer 40

A

Question 41

Customer value proposition ___________ . A. Determines what each customer is worth B. Relates to the benefits customers receive C. Is unimportant in marketing D. Is only important in the long run

Answer 41

B

Question 42

Which form of business ownership provides limited liability to its owners and has a separate legal identity from them? A. Sole Proprietorship B. Partnership C. Corporation D. Joint Venture

Answer 42

C

Question 43

Rapid integration or inter-connection among countries is known as: A. Communism B. Liberalisation C. Socialisation D. Globalisation

Answer 43

D

Question 44

Positive external factors the company can exploit to accomplish its mission, goals, and objectives. A. strengths B. opportunities C. threats D. weaknesses

Answer 44

B

Question 45

The most important advantage of having core competencies is having this. A. Choosing the product or service B. Core competency trunk C. No correct answer D. Long-term competitive advantage

Answer 45

D

Question 46

Can be applied to both traditional brick-and-mortar stores and e-commerce businesses alike. Essentially, the customer makes a recurring payment for ongoing access to a service or product. A company may directly ship its product in the mail, or you may pay a fee to use its services. A. Fee-for-service B. Subscription C. Manufacturing D. Retail

Answer 46

B

Question 47

Which among the following is NOT a correct statement regarding patents? A. A patent is a legal protection granted for an invention that is new, non-obvious, and useful. B. The patent grants the patent holder the exclusive right to make, use, or sell the patented product or process. C. The exclusive purpose of the patent system is to benefit the patent holder. D. Patents have a limited duration and expire after a certain period.

Answer 47

C

Question 48

The company’s business model and basis for competitive edge. A. Business and Industry Profile B. Marketing Strategy C. Executive Summary D. Business Strategy

Answer 48

C

Question 49

To show how successfully your business performed during a period of time, you would report its revenues and expenses in the: A. Balance sheet C. Statement of cash flows B. Income statement D. Retained earnings statement

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Copyrights, Patents, and Trademarks are examples of: A. Current assets B. Fixed assets C. Intangible assets D. Investments

Answer 50

C

Question 51

A carnot engine receives 100 kJ from a hot reservoir at 370oC and rejects 37kJ of heat. Determine the temperature of the cold reservoir. A. -35C B. 100C C. 130C D. 230C

Answer 51

A

Question 52

In a nuclear chain reaction, what triggers the continuous fission process? A. The release of neutrons that cause further fission reactions B. The emission of gamma rays C. The movement of electrons in the atom D. The absorption of protons

Answer 52

A

Question 53

Copper has a free electron density of 8.5×1028 electrons per cubic meter. Calculate the Fermi energy of copper. A. 7.05 eV B. 6.50 eV C. 8.20 eV D. 5.75 eV

Answer 53

A

Question 54

A wire with a length of 2.01 m and a diameter of 304 cm is stretched across a room where the ambient temperature is 15.07°C. The surface temperature of the wire is measured to be 152°C. The voltage drop across the wire is 60.02 V, and the current flowing through it is 1.506 A. Calculate the convection heat transfer coefficient between the outer surface of the wire and the surrounding air. A. 34.9 W/m²·°C C. 42.5 W/m²·°C B. 25.7 W/m²·°C D. 30.2 W/m²·°C

Answer 54

A

Question 55

In a particular circuit, a battery with an emf of 12 V is connected to a 40 Ω resistor and a 5 mH inductor in series. How much energy is stored in the inductor’s magnetic field when the current reaches its maximum steady-state value? A. 2.3 × 10⁻³ J B. 2.3 × 10⁻⁴ J C. 2.3 × 10⁻⁵ J D. 2.3 × 10⁻⁶ J

Answer 55

B

Question 56

If charges q1 = 4 × 10–9 C and q2 = –6 × 10–9 C are stationary, calculate the potential at Point B in the figure below: A. -900 V B. -450 V C. -500 V D. -750 V

Answer 56

A

Question 57

A conductor moves with a velocity of 15 m/s at an angle of 60o to a magnetic field produced between two square-faced poles of side length 2 cm. If the flux leaving a pole face is 5 μWb, find the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in each case. A. 2.75 mV B. 3.00 mV C. 3.25 mV D. 3.50 mV

Answer 57

C

Question 58

What current must flow if 0.24 Coulombs is to be transferred in 15 ms? A. 12 A B. 14 A C. 16 A D. 18 A

Answer 58

C

Question 59

A parallel-plate capacitor has a separation distance of 0.2 mm and an area of 10cm^2 on each plate. A polystyrene dielectric is placed between the plates with a dielectric strength of 2.6. Determine the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor. A. 0.22x10-6 F C. 0.11x10-6 F B. 0.15x10-9 F D. 0.12x10-9 F

Answer 59

D

Question 60

What is the frequency of light if its energy is 5 × 10^(-19) J? A. 6.12 × 10^14 Hz B. 7.55 × 10^14 Hz C. 8.32 × 10^14 Hz D. 9.21 × 10^14 Hz

Answer 60

B

Question 61

What is the basis of a metallic bond? A. The attraction of neutral metal atoms. B. The attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons. C. The attraction between protons and neutrons. D. The attraction between positive metal ions and free- floating electrons.

Answer 61

D

Question 62

The unit cell of a certain type of crystal is defined by three vectors a, b, and c. The vectors are mutually perpendicular, but a ≠ b ≠ c. The crystal structure is: A. More than one of the choices B. Tetragonal C. Orthorhombic D. Triclinic

Answer 62

C

Question 63

Given a stress-strain diagram below, what is Point C? A. Proportional Limit B. Minimum Point C. Elastic Limit D. Yield Point

Answer 63

D

Question 64

The presence of extra atoms between the regular atoms of the crystal as an interstitial in a semiconductor is known as a/an ___________ defect. A. Frenkel B. Avalanche C. Tunnel D. Schottky

Answer 64

A

Question 65

Consider the following statements for a composite material: 1. It is considered to be any multiple materials that exhibit a significant proportion of the properties of both constituents. 2. Constituent phases in a composite must be chemically similar. 3. A matrix combined with a reinforcing material is used in the composite. 4. Thermosetting epoxy resin is used as the matrix for some kinds of composition. Which of these statements are correct? A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1, 2, and 4 C. 1, 3, and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4

Answer 65

C

Question 66

Given the statements, choose the correct option: Statement (I): Metals are extremely good conductors of electricity and heat and are not transparent to visible light. Statement (II): Ceramics are compounds between metallic and non-metallic elements. A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I). B. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I). C. Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false. D. Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.

Answer 66

B

Question 67

With the rise of temperature, the conductivity of a semiconductor: A. Remains unchanged B. Decreases C. Increases D. Nothing is certain

Answer 67

C

Question 68

Which of the following is correct related to the properties of a good insulating material? A. Having high dielectric strength, very low dissipation factor, and high operating temperature limit B. Having low dielectric strength, very low dissipation factor, and high operating temperature limit C. Having high dielectric strength, very high dissipation factor, and low operating temperature limit D. Having low dielectric strength, very high dissipation factor, and low operating temperature limit

Answer 68

A

Question 69

What is the role of abstraction in OOP? A. To hide unnecessary details and model classes based on essential properties. B. To increase the complexity of code. C. To enforce strict typing in programming languages. D. To allow multiple classes to have the same method names.

Answer 69

A

Question 70

The ________ is a graphical modeling language that provides us with syntax for describing the major elements of software systems. A. Universal Modeling Lexicon B. Unified Mapping Language C. Universal Markup Language D. Unified Modeling Language

Answer 70

D

Question 71

It represents the subsystem that enables software to achieve user requirements and implement technical frameworks that meet user needs. A. Subsystem Layer C. Message Layer B. Class and Object Layer D. Responsibilities Layer

Answer 71

A

Question 72

What is that concept in type theory in which a single name may denote objects of many different classes that are related by some common super class referred to . ______ A. Inheritance B. Type Checking C. Polymorphism D. Generalization

Answer 72

C

Question 73

If A = 1, B = 1, and N = 5, what will be the final sum? INPUT A, B, N F1 = A F2 = B S = A + B FOR K = 3 TO N F3 = F1 + F2 S = S + (F3 * K) F1 = F2 F2 = F3 NEXT K PRINT "Final Sum:", S If A = 1, B = 1, and N = 5, what will be the final sum? A. 30 B. 45 C. 50 D. 60

Answer 73

B

Question 74

If the input value is N = 1234, what is the output? INPUT N REV = 0 WHILE N > 0 DIGIT = N MOD 10 REV = REV * 10 + DIGIT N = N DIV 10 ENDWHILE PRINT REV A. 4321 B. 3412 C. 1243 D. 4231

Answer 74

A

Question 75

If the input value is N = 7, what is the last printed line? INPUT N FOR I = 1 TO 5 PRINT N, " x ", I, " = ", N * I NEXT I A. 7 x 5 = 35 B. 7 x 4 = 28 C. 7 x 3 = 21 D. 7 x 6 = 42

Answer 75

A

Question 76

Given the pseudocode below which exception type correctly handles the error in the pseudocode? BEGIN TRY OPEN file "data.txt" FOR READING READ value FROM file PRINT "Value: " + value CATCH (1) FileNotFoundException (2) DivisionByZeroException (3) IndexOutOfBoundsException (4) NullPointerException PRINT "An error occurred while reading the file. " END TRY END A. FileNotFoundException B. DivisionByZeroException C. IndexOutOfBoundsException D. NullPointerException

Answer 76

A

Question 77

Which of the following GUI components is used to allow users to select one option from multiple choices? A. Checkbox B. Radio Button C. Text Field D. Slider

Answer 77

B

Question 78

What is the main advantage of using a Graphical User Interface (GUI) over a Command-Line Interface (CLI)? A. It requires less memory usage B. It provides a more user-friendly interaction C. It can only be used on Windows operating systems D. It eliminates the need for programming

Answer 78

B

Question 79

A geographic area where plants, animals, and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape, work together to form a bubble of life. A. Biomass B. Biome C. Ecosystem D. Habitat

Answer 79

C

Question 80

Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas? A. Methane B. Nitrous Oxide C. Ozone D. Nitrogen

Answer 80

D

Question 81

Which group consists of non-renewable organic resources? A. Water, air, and minerals B. Natural gas, oil, and coal C. Wood, water, and natural pastures D. Sand, air, and clay

Answer 81

B

Question 82

_______ occurs when livestock, such as cattle or sheep, consume vegetation in an area faster than it can regenerate. This leads to the removal of the protective cover of vegetation from the soil, exposing it to erosion by wind and water. A. Salinization B. Deforestation C. Eutrophication D. Overgrazing

Answer 82

D

Question 83

Which of the following pollutants causes aggravation of respiratory disease, and atmospheric discoloration? A. Carbon monoxide B. Lead C. Nitrogen dioxide D. Ozone

Answer 83

C

Question 84

Which of the following statements about the effects of noise pollution are correct? A. Noise pollution can lead to hearing loss over time. B. It can disturb wildlife and change animal behaviors. C. It contributes to global warming. D. Noise pollution can increase stress and anxiety levels. Choose the most appropriate answer: A. Only B and C B. Only A, C, and D C. Only A, B, and D D. Only A, B, C, and D

Answer 84

C

Question 85

Is the process by which the anticipated effects on the environment of a proposed development or project are measured A. Environmental impact assessment B. Sustainable waste impact C. Ecological and social assessment D. Comprehensive environmental analysis

Answer 85

A

Question 86

Prepareing of an EIA report for decision making and submit to the local management authority: A. Screening B. Scoping C. Screening D. Reporting

Answer 86

D

Question 87

Which one of the above is/is not a sustainable growth goal(s)? A. Maintain the family planning program’s implementation. B. Maintain dynamic stability of arable land of at least 123 million hectares, as well as an agricultural development strategy. C. Preserve a dynamic water resource balance by lowering water usage per unit of gross domestic product (GDP and agricultural additional value). D. To lead about such a substantial, though not always disastrous, change in the environment.

Answer 87

D

Question 88

What is the total number of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development? A. 12 B. 17 C. 15 D. 19

Answer 88

B

Question 89

What is the Section 11 of RA 9292? A. Removal of Board Members B. Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services C. Compensation and Allowances of the Board D. Term of Office

Answer 89

A

Question 90

A fire detection and alarm system component that can be individually identified by its status or used to individually control other functions. A. Conventional Device B. Annunciator C. Semi-addressable Device D. Addressable Device

Answer 90

D

Question 91

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Fire Detection and Alarm System (FDAS)? A. Automatic detection and manual fire alarm signal initiation B. Activation of fire alarm notification appliances C. Monitoring of weather conditions D. Transmission of alarm signal to an off-premises Central Station

Answer 91

C

Question 92

What is the Section 22 of RA 9292? A. Term of Office B. Professional Oath C. Practice of the Profession D. Foreign Reciprocity

Answer 92

B

Question 93

This type of riser usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor separation similar to a ventilating shaft. A. Open Riser C. Top Riser B. Closed Riser D. Bottom Riser

Answer 93

A

Question 94

Based on PEC 1, which of the following is NOT a type of telecommunication pathway? A. Backbone Pathway B. Horizontal Pathway C. Building Pathway D. Data Decoder Pathway

Answer 94

D

Question 95

It is a type of DAS design in which it uses purely passive components and no line amplifier used on the system components. A. Semi Passive DAS Solution C. Pure Active DAS Solution B. Pure Yielding DAS Solution D. Passive DAS Solution

Answer 95

D

Question 96

Which type of antenna is installed on building corners, long hallways, and places to help fill the shadow area that the Omni antenna failed to cover? A. Yagi Antenna C. Dipole Antenna B. Panel Directional Antenna D. Parabolic Dish Antenna

Answer 96

B

Question 97

What is the Article 7 of RA 9292? A. Qualifications of Board Members B. Powers and Functions of the Board C. Removal of Board Members D. Transitory Provisions

Answer 97

D

Question 98

The Philippine Electronics Code Book 2 is A. Cable Television System B. Telecommunications Facilities Distribution System C. Distributed Antenna System D. Fire Detection and Alarm System

Answer 98

D

Question 99

AutoCAD commands can be accessed in, A. Drawing area B. Status bar C. Tool bars D. Command window

Answer 99

D

Question 100

The end point osnap shortcut is END and is indicated by a: A. Small triangle B. Small square C. Small circle D. None of these

Answer 100

B