GEE FINALS

Question 1

According to privacy.gov.ph, what is Data Privacy?
a) The right of a company to protect its proprietary information.
b) The right of an individual not to have private information disclosed, and to live freely from surveillance and intrusion.
c) The government’s right to monitor citizens for national security.
d) The process of encrypting all online communications.

Answer 1

The right of an individual not to have private information disclosed, and to live freely from surveillance and intrusion.

Question 2

Why is Data Privacy considered important?
a) It primarily protects corporations from competitors.
b) Because when private data gets in the wrong hands, bad things can happen, such as identity theft or national security risks.
c) It ensures that all data is publicly accessible for transparency.
d) It mainly focuses on preventing software bugs.

Answer 2

Because when private data gets in the wrong hands, bad things can happen, such as identity theft or national security risks.

Question 3

A data breach at which type of organization could put students’ Personal Identifiable Information (PII) in the hands of criminals?
a) A government agency
b) A corporation
c) A school
d) A hospital

Answer 3

A school

Question 4

What is the full name of R.A. 10173?
a) National Privacy Commission Act of 2012
b) Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012
c) Data Privacy Act of 2012 (DPA)
d) Information Security Act of 2012

Answer 4

Data Privacy Act of 2012 (DPA)

Question 5

What is the stated purpose of the Data Privacy Act of 2012?
a) To regulate the use of social media.
b) To protect individual personal information in information and communications systems in the government and the private sector.
c) To establish guidelines for ethical hacking.
d) To ensure all government data is open to the public.

Answer 5

To protect individual personal information in information and communications systems in the government and the private sector.

Question 6

Under the DPA, companies must comply if they meet which of the following criteria?
a) Have 100 employees or 250 data subjects.
b) Have 250 employees or 1000 data subjects.
c) Have 500 employees or 500 data subjects.
d) Are exclusively government agencies.

Answer 6

Have 250 employees or 1000 data subjects.

Question 7

According to the text, who else besides companies meeting specific size thresholds must comply with the DPA?
a) Only individuals processing data for personal use.
b) Only international organizations operating in the Philippines.
c) Any natural and juridical persons involved in personal information processing.
d) Only companies that process financial data.

Answer 7

Any natural and juridical persons involved in personal information processing.

Question 8

What is a “Data Subject” as defined in the text?
a) The topic or theme of a database.
b) An individual whose personal information is processed.
c) A company that collects data.
d) A government agency regulating data.

Answer 8

An individual whose personal information is processed.

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of “Offline Identity” that needs protection?
a) A social media profile.
b) An email address.
c) Identification cards used for physical authentication.
d) A username for an online game.

Answer 9

Identification cards used for physical authentication

Question 10

What does “Personal Identifiable Information” (PII) refer to?
a) Any information about a company’s financial status.
b) Information that is publicly available and not sensitive.
c) Any information from which the identity of an individual is apparent or can be reasonably and directly ascertained.
d) Information related to an individual’s opinions or beliefs.

Answer 10

Any information from which the identity of an individual is apparent or can be reasonably and directly ascertained.

Question 11

Which of the following is listed as Personal Information that is protected?
a) Favorite color
b) Political affiliation
c) Mother’s Maiden Name
d) Blood type

Answer 11

Mother’s Maiden Name

Question 12

Which of the following categories falls under “Sensitive Personal Information”?
a) Job position
b) Home number
c) An individual’s race, ethnic origin, or marital status.
d) Present address

Answer 12

An individual’s race, ethnic origin, or marital status.

Question 13

Sensitive personal information includes information about an individual’s:
a) Preferred brand of coffee.
b) Health, education, or genetic life.
c) Social media username.
d) Vehicle registration number

Answer 13

Health, education, or genetic life.

Question 14

Who is defined as a “Personal Information Controller” (PIC)?
a) An individual whose data is being processed.
b) A government agency that audits data practices.
c) A person or organization who controls the collection, holding, processing, or use of personal information.
d) A software used to manage databases.

Answer 14

A person or organization who controls the collection, holding, processing, or use of personal information.

Question 15

What is a “Personal Information Processor” (PIP)?
a) The main computer server where data is stored.
b) The individual data subject providing the information.
c) Any natural or juridical person to whom a PIC may outsource the processing of personal data.
d) The software algorithm that processes information.

Answer 15

Any natural or juridical person to whom a PIC may outsource the processing of personal data.

Question 16

What does “Consent” mean in the context of data privacy?
a) A one-time agreement that cannot be revoked.
b) Implied agreement by using a service.
c) Giving data subjects genuine choice and control over how a PIC uses their data, including the right to refuse or withdraw.
d) A legal document signed only by corporations.

Answer 16

Giving data subjects genuine choice and control over how a PIC uses their data, including the right to refuse or withdraw.

Question 17

Which right under R.A. 10173 treats personal data almost like personal property, requiring explicit consent for collection unless otherwise provided by law?
a) The right to access
b) The right to rectify
c) The right to be informed
d) The right to damages

Answer 17

The right to be informed

Question 18

The “right to be informed” also requires PICs to do what in a timely manner if your data has been compromised?
a) Offer financial compensation immediately.
b) Notify you.
c) Delete all your data.
d) Change their security protocols.

Answer 18

Notify you.

Question 19

Which right allows you to find out whether an organization holds any personal data about you and gain “reasonable access” to it?
a) The right to be informed
b) The right to access
c) The right to rectify
d) The right to file a complaint

Answer 19

The right to access

Question 20

Under the “right to access,” which of the following can you NOT demand?
a) The contents of your personal data that were processed.
b) The names and addresses of the recipients of your data.
c) The personal data of other individuals processed by the PIC.
d) The date when your data was last accessed and modified.

Answer 20

The names and addresses of the recipients of your data.

Question 21

What does the “right to rectify” allow a data subject to do?
a) Delete all their data from the PIC’s system.
b) Dispute and have corrected any inaccuracy or error in the data a PIC holds about them.
c) Receive monetary compensation for any data breach.
d) Access the PIC’s internal security protocols.

Answer 21

Dispute and have corrected any inaccuracy or error in the data a PIC holds about them.

Question 22

Under what circumstances can you claim compensation according to the “right to damages”?
a) If you simply disagree with how your data is used.
b) If you suffered damages due to inaccurate, incomplete, outdated, false, unlawfully obtained, or unauthorized use of personal data.
c) Anytime your data is processed by a PIC.
d) Only if the NPC explicitly orders it.

Answer 22

If you suffered damages due to inaccurate, incomplete, outdated, false, unlawfully obtained, or unauthorized use of personal data.

Question 23

If you feel your personal information has been misused or your data privacy rights have been violated, what right can you exercise?
a) The right to demand the PIC cease operations.
b) The right to file a complaint with the National Privacy Commission (NPC).
c) The right to publicly disclose the PIC’s internal data.
d) The right to directly access and modify the PIC’s database.

Answer 23

The right to file a complaint with the National Privacy Commission (NPC).

Question 24

What problem arises when a computer is fed bad information or someone misinterprets information from a computer?
a) It always leads to improved decision-making.
b) It can lead to trivial inconveniences or even severe consequences like fatalities.
c) It primarily affects the speed of the computer.
d) It enhances the security of the system.

Answer 24

It can lead to trivial inconveniences or even severe consequences like fatalities.

Question 25

What does "software engineering" refer to? a) The act of repairing computer hardware. b) The use of processes and tools that allow programs to be created in a more structured manner. c) The marketing and sales of software products. d) The illegal modification of existing software.

Answer 25

The use of processes and tools that allow programs to be created in a more structured manner.

Question 26

What was the consequence of incorrect computer database records identifying voters as felons in the November 2000 Florida general election? a) The election was cancelled. b) Thousands of eligible voters were disqualified. c) The database system crashed. d) It led to an increase in voter turnout.

Answer 26

Thousands of eligible voters were disqualified

Question 27

What caused Qwest to send some customers phone bills for amounts as high as $57,346.20? a) A data entry error by a customer service agent. b) A bug in a newly installed billing software. c) Intentional overcharging by the company. d) A misinterpretation of data by the customers.

Answer 27

A bug in a newly installed billing software.

Question 28

What happened on the first day London's fully computerized ambulance dispatch system became operational? a) It significantly reduced ambulance response times. b) Emergency calls were put on hold, calls were lost, and ambulances were severely delayed, potentially causing deaths. c) The system identified and fixed all existing dispatch problems. d) It was praised for its flawless performance.

Answer 28

Emergency calls were put on hold, calls were lost, and ambulances were severely delayed, potentially causing deaths.

Question 29

What is an "embedded system"? a) A standalone supercomputer. b) A computer used as a component of a larger system, like in a microwave oven or automobile. c) A theoretical computing concept. d) A software that embeds itself within other programs

Answer 29

A computer used as a component of a larger system, like in a microwave oven or automobile.

Question 30

What are "real-time systems"? a) Computers that can predict future events with 100% accuracy. b) Systems that update their software in real-time. c) Computers that process data from sensors as events occur, like an airbag controller. d) Systems that operate exclusively on analog data.

Answer 30

Computers that process data from sensors as events occur, like an airbag controller.

Question 31

What caused the Ariane 5 rocket's maiden flight to fail? a) A hardware malfunction in the engine. b) A software error in a code segment that converted a 64-bit floating-point value to a 16-bit integer, leading to an unhandled exception. c) Human error during the launch sequence. d) Incorrect fuel mixture.

Answer 31

A software error in a code segment that converted a 64-bit floating-point value to a 16-bit integer, leading to an unhandled exception.

Question 32

The faulty code in Ariane 5 was reused from Ariane 4. Why did it fail in Ariane 5? a) The Ariane 5 used a different programming language. b) The Ariane 5 was slower, making the calculation irrelevant. c) The Ariane 5 was faster, and the original assumptions about the maximum value of horizontal bias no longer held true. d) The Ariane 5's hardware was incompatible with the old software.

Answer 32

The Ariane 5 was faster, and the original assumptions about the maximum value of horizontal bias no longer held true.

Question 33

Why was the Mars Climate Orbiter lost? a) A meteor strike. b) A software bug in its navigation system. c) A miscommunication between two support teams on Earth regarding units of measurement (English vs. metric). d) Solar flares disrupting communication.

Answer 33

A miscommunication between two support teams on Earth regarding units of measurement (English vs. metric).

Question 34

What was the suspected cause of the Mars Polar Lander's failure? a) It ran out of fuel. b) The system's software got a false signal from the landing gear and shut down engines prematurely. c) Communication loss due to Martian dust storms. d) A hardware failure in the parachute deployment system.

Answer 34

The system's software got a false signal from the landing gear and shut down engines prematurely.

Question 35

Which Mars rovers greatly exceeded their mission goals, operating for many years? a) Curiosity and Perseverance b) Viking 1 and Viking 2 c) Opportunity and Spirit d) Pathfinder and Sojourner

Answer 35

Opportunity and Spirit

Question 36

Why might a scientist or engineer use computer simulation instead of a physical experiment? a) Because simulations are always 100% accurate. b) Because physical experiments are never reliable. c) When physical experiments are too expensive, time-consuming, unethical, or impossible. d) Because simulations require less expertise to conduct.

Answer 36

When physical experiments are too expensive, time-consuming, unethical, or impossible.

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT listed as a use of computer simulations? a) Designing nuclear weapons. b) Replacing all forms of human decision-making. c) Searching for oil. d) Predicting weather.

Answer 37

Replacing all forms of human decision-making.

Question 38

What are the two fundamentally different reasons a computer simulation may produce erroneous results? a) The computer is too slow, or the display resolution is too low. b) The program may have a bug, or the model upon which the program is based may be flawed. c) The user lacks sufficient training, or the input data is too complex. d) The simulation runs for too long, or it uses an outdated programming language.

Answer 38

The program may have a bug, or the model upon which the program is based may be flawed.

Question 39

How can a computer model of a car crash be validated? a) By ensuring the simulation runs quickly. b) By comparing the results of crashing an actual vehicle with the results predicted by the computer model. c) By using the most advanced graphics for the simulation. d) By getting approval from a marketing team.

Answer 39

By comparing the results of crashing an actual vehicle with the results predicted by the computer model.

Question 40

When is a computer model considered valuable, according to the text? a) When it uses the latest hardware. b) When it is published in a prestigious journal. c) When it is believed by those who have the power to use its results to reach a conclusion or make a decision. d) When it is the most complex model available.

Answer 40

When it is believed by those who have the power to use its results to reach a conclusion or make a decision.

Question 41

What is software engineering? a) The process of selling pre-packaged software. b) An engineering discipline focused on the production of software, and development of tools, methodologies, and theories supporting it. c) The act of reverse-engineering proprietary software. d) The creation of computer hardware.

Answer 41

An engineering discipline focused on the production of software, and development of tools, methodologies, and theories supporting it.

Question 42

Which of the following is the correct order of the four-step process software engineers follow to develop a software product? a) Development, Specification, Validation, Evolution b) Specification, Development, Validation, Evolution c) Validation, Specification, Development, Evolution d) Specification, Validation, Evolution, Development

Answer 42

Specification, Development, Validation, Evolution

Question 43

What is the focus of the "Specification" phase in software engineering? a) Writing the actual code for the software. b) Testing the completed software product. c) Determining the requirements of the system and the constraints under which it must operate. d) Marketing the software to potential users.

Answer 43

Determining the requirements of the system and the constraints under which it must operate.

Question 44

What is the purpose of the "Validation" (or testing) phase in software engineering? a) To design the user interface. b) To ensure the software satisfies the specification and meets the needs of the user. c) To gather initial requirements from the customer. d) To modify the software for new user needs.

Answer 44

To ensure the software satisfies the specification and meets the needs of the user.

Question 45

What is meant by "Evolution" in the context of software systems? a) The initial design phase of the software. b) The process of discarding old software for new versions. c) Modifying the software over time to meet the changing needs of its users. d) The final testing before software release.

Answer 45

Modifying the software over time to meet the changing needs of its users.

Question 46

Why should test cases related to a module be repeated after a bug fix in that module? a) To ensure the bug was truly fixed. b) To see if the change that fixed one bug accidentally introduced another bug (regression testing). c) To train new software testers. d) To increase the overall testing time.

Answer 46

To see if the change that fixed one bug accidentally introduced another bug (regression testing).

Question 47

Who was Jacobus Lentz, as mentioned in the introduction to Professional Ethics? a) A famous software engineer. b) The Netherlands’ inspector of population registries before WWII, who managed a data-processing infrastructure. c) The founder of IBM. d) A philosopher who first wrote about computer ethics.

Answer 47

The Netherlands’ inspector of population registries before WWII, who managed a data-processing infrastructure.

Question 48

According to Ford and Gibbs, which of the following is NOT one of the eight components of a mature professional infrastructure? a) Initial professional education b) Accreditation c) High salary expectations d) Code of ethics

Answer 48

High salary

Question 49

What is the role of "Licensing" in a fully developed profession? a) To ensure members pay dues to the professional society. b) To give candidates the legal right to practice the profession. c) To provide initial training for new candidates. d) To develop new ethical guidelines.

Answer 49

To give candidates the legal right to practice the profession.

Question 50

For mature professions, what is a key reason professional societies establish codes of ethics? a) To limit the number of people entering the profession. b) To ensure members use their knowledge and skills for the benefit of society. c) To increase the cost of professional services. d) To lobby for government contracts.

Answer 50

To ensure members use their knowledge and skills for the benefit of society.

Question 51

To become a Certified Public Accountant (CPA), one typically needs: a) Only a bachelor's degree. b) A bachelor’s degree, 150+ semester hours, relevant classes, work experience, and passing the CPA exam. c) Only to pass the CPA exam. d) Membership in an accounting club.

Answer 51

A bachelor’s degree, 150+ semester hours, relevant classes, work experience, and passing the CPA exam.

Question 52

According to the text, what is a current characteristic of the software engineering profession regarding certification and licensing? a) They are strictly required for all software engineers. b) They are often not needed. c) They are only required for government projects. d) They are managed by international bodies.

Answer 52

They are often not needed.

Question 53

What is paramount in the Software Engineering Code of Ethics Preamble? a) The profit margin of the software company. b) The speed of software development. c) Concern for the public interest. d) The complexity of the software product.

Answer 53

Concern for the public interest.

Question 54

Which principle in the Software Engineering Code of Ethics states that "Software engineers shall act consistently with the public interest"? a) Client and employer b) Product c) Public d) Profession

Answer 54

Public

Question 55

The principle "Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible" relates to: a) Judgment b) Management c) Product d) Colleagues

Answer 55

Product

Question 56

Which principle emphasizes maintaining integrity and independence in professional judgment? a) Self b) Judgment c) Profession d) Client and employer

Answer 56

Judgment

Question 57

"Software engineering managers and leaders shall subscribe to and promote an ethical approach to the management of software development and maintenance" is the principle of: a) Profession b) Colleagues c) Management d) Public

Answer 57

Management

Question 58

Advancing the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest is covered under which principle? a) Self b) Profession c) Product d) Management

Answer 58

Profession

Question 59

The principle that "Software engineers shall be fair to and supportive of their colleagues" is: a) Colleagues b) Self c) Public d) Client and employer

Answer 59

Colleagues

Question 60

"Software engineers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession" is part of which principle? a) Product b) Judgment c) Self d) Management

Answer 60

Self

Question 61

In the analysis of the Software Engineering Code, what does it mean that the Code should not be viewed with an "overly legalistic view"? a) The code is legally binding in all countries. b) If the Code doesn’t forbid something, that doesn’t automatically mean it is morally acceptable. c) All moral decisions can be mechanically determined by the Code. d) The Code is primarily for lawyers specializing in software.

Answer 61

If the Code doesn’t forbid something, that doesn’t automatically mean it is morally acceptable.

Question 62

In the scenario where Prof. Smith recommended a software package without disclosing her financial interest, which alternative fundamental principle did she most clearly violate? a) Maintain your integrity. b) Disclose information that others ought to know (conflict of interest). c) Take responsibility for your actions. d) Continually improve your abilities.

Answer 62

Disclose information that others ought to know (conflict of interest).

Question 63

What is a "whistle-blower"? a) An employee who reports minor office infractions to HR. b) Someone who breaks ranks with an organization to make an unauthorized disclosure about a harmful situation after internal channels fail. c) A journalist who uncovers corporate scandals. d) A government auditor.

Answer 63

Someone who breaks ranks with an organization to make an unauthorized disclosure about a harmful situation after internal channels fail.

Question 64

What was Roger Boisjoly's role in the Challenger explosion case? a) He was a NASA official who approved the launch. b) He was a Morton Thiokol engineer who documented dangers of low-temperature launches and later shared information with the presidential commission. c) He was the lead astronaut on the Challenger mission. d) He was an executive who overrode safety concerns.

Answer 64

He was a Morton Thiokol engineer who documented dangers of low-temperature launches and later shared information with the presidential commission.

Question 65

Which of the following is considered a "good motive" for whistleblowing? a) Seeking retaliation against a manager. b) Desire to help the public. c) Avoiding punishment for one's own mistakes. d) Gaining media attention.

Answer 65

Desire to help the public.

Question 66

How do corporations often perceive whistleblowers, according to the text? a) As heroes promoting transparency. b) As disloyal individuals who cause bad publicity and disrupt teamwork. c) As essential for internal quality control. d) As candidates for promotion.

Answer 66

As disloyal individuals who cause bad publicity and disrupt teamwork.

Question 67

Whistleblowing can be seen as an "organizational failure" because: a) It indicates the organization's products are faulty. b) It suggests a breakdown in internal communication channels. c) It means the organization is not profitable. d) It shows the organization hires unethical employees

Answer 67

It suggests a breakdown in internal communication channels.

Question 68

According to Richard DeGeorge's conditions, when must an individual blow the whistle? a) If only serious harm to the public is at stake. b) If they have told their manager and tried inside channels. c) If all five conditions (serious harm, told manager, tried inside channels, persuasive evidence, sure it will work) are met. d) Whistleblowing is never morally required according to DeGeorge.

Answer 68

If all five conditions (serious harm, told manager, tried inside channels, persuasive evidence, sure it will work) are met.

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT listed as an effect of information technology and automation on the workplace? a) Increases in productivity. b) Globalization of job market. c) A permanent decrease in the length of the work week for all workers. d) Changes in the organization of companies.

Answer 69

A permanent decrease in the length of the work week for all workers.

Question 70

How does automation potentially lead to job creation? a) By directly hiring more people to maintain automated systems. b) Automation lowers prices, increasing real incomes and demand for other products, thus creating more jobs. c) By making all existing jobs obsolete, forcing people to find new careers. d) Automation does not lead to job creation, only job destruction.

Answer 70

Automation lowers prices, increasing real incomes and demand for other products, thus creating more jobs.

Question 71

What is a moral question related to the rise of robotics mentioned in the text? a) Will robots demand voting rights? b) Is it wrong to create machines capable of making human labor obsolete? c) Can robots be taxed? d) Will robots form their own companies?

Answer 71

Is it wrong to create machines capable of making human labor obsolete?

Question 72

How has information technology integration affected organizational structures in firms? a) It has led to more hierarchical and taller organizational structures. b) It has resulted in flattened organizational structures and elimination of some transactional middlemen. c) It has had no significant impact on organizational structures. d) It has increased the need for middle managers.

Answer 72

It has resulted in flattened organizational structures and elimination of some transactional middlemen.

Question 73

What is "telework"? a) Working exclusively through telephone communication. b) An arrangement where employees work away from the traditional place of work. c) A system for monitoring employee phone calls. d) A job that involves frequent television appearances.

Answer 73

An arrangement where employees work away from the traditional place of work.

Question 74

Which of the following is an advantage of telework? a) Strengthens managers' control and authority. b) Makes face-to-face meetings easier. c) Increases productivity and reduces absenteeism. d) Makes sensitive information more secure.

Answer 74

Increases productivity and reduces absenteeism.

Question 75

What is a disadvantage of telework? a) It reduces overhead costs for the company. b) Teleworkers may feel isolated or be overlooked for promotion. c) It helps the environment by reducing traffic. d) It increases employee morale due to more freedom.

Answer 75

Teleworkers may feel isolated or be overlooked for promotion.

Question 76

Why might companies hire more temporary employees? a) To foster long-term employee loyalty. b) To save money on benefits and make it easier to downsize. c) Because temporary employees are always more skilled. d) To comply with government regulations requiring temporary staff.

Answer 76

To save money on benefits and make it easier to downsize.

Question 77

What is a common purpose for companies monitoring their employees, according to the text? a) To identify employees eligible for promotion. b) To ensure employees are happy with their jobs. c) To identify inappropriate use of company resources or detect illegal activities. d) To gather personal information for marketing purposes.

Answer 77

To identify inappropriate use of company resources or detect illegal activities.

Question 78

What is an advantage of multinational software development teams? a) Uniform infrastructure quality across all countries. b) Company can have people on duty more hours per day and achieve cost savings. c) Simplified communication due to shared cultural backgrounds. d) Reduced need for project management.

Answer 78

Company can have people on duty more hours per day and achieve cost savings.

Question 79

What is "globalization" in the context of business? a) The process of every company adopting a single global currency. b) The process of creating a worldwide network of businesses and markets. c) The effort to make all products universally understandable. d) A focus on local markets over international ones.

Answer 79

The process of creating a worldwide network of businesses and markets.

Question 80

Which is an argument FOR globalization mentioned in the text? a) It makes the United States subordinate to the World Trade Organization. b) It forces American workers to compete with lower-wage foreign workers. c) It increases competition and can be a route for poorer countries to become prosperous. d) It accelerates the exodus of manufacturing jobs from developed countries.

Answer 80

It increases competition and can be a route for poorer countries to become prosperous.

Question 81

What is an argument AGAINST globalization mentioned in the text? a) It increases the variety of goods available to consumers. b) It forces American workers to compete with foreigners who may not get decent wages and benefits. c) It promotes stability by making economies interdependent. d) It provides jobs for people in poorer countries.

Answer 81

It forces American workers to compete with foreigners who may not get decent wages and benefits.

Question 82

What does "dot-com" refer to in the context of the "Dot-Com Bust"? a) A type of computer virus. b) Internet-related start-up companies. c) A new internet domain extension. d) Government e-commerce initiatives.

Answer 82

Internet-related start-up companies.

Question 83

What is an H1-B visa? a) A tourist visa for IT professionals. b) A visa allowing foreigners to work in the U.S. for up to six years if no qualified Americans are available. c) A permanent residency visa for tech entrepreneurs. d) A visa for students studying computer science in the U.S.

Answer 83

A visa allowing foreigners to work in the U.S. for up to six years if no qualified Americans are available.

Question 84

What is the "digital divide"? a) The difference in processing speed between old and new computers. b) The phenomenon where some people have access to modern information technology while others do not. c) The gap between digital and analog signals. d) The separation between software and hardware development.

Answer 84

The phenomenon where some people have access to modern information technology while others do not.

Question 85

Which factor is NOT listed as hampering Internet development in developing countries? a) Lack of cultural value for IT. b) Poor IT infrastructure. c) An overabundance of skilled IT professionals. d) Low literacy rates.

Answer 85

An overabundance of skilled IT professionals.

Question 86

According to the "normalization model" of technological diffusion: a) Higher socioeconomic groups will always have significantly more access than lower groups. b) All socioeconomic groups adopt new technology simultaneously. c) Eventually, all socioeconomic groups will have similar levels of access to a technology. d) Only the highest socioeconomic group will ever adopt new technologies.

Answer 86

Eventually, all socioeconomic groups will have similar levels of access to a technology.

Question 87

Which is a critique of the "digital divide" concept mentioned in the text? a) It accurately represents the complexity of access issues. b) It suggests the difference between "haves" and "have nots" is simply about access, ignoring culture, literacy, etc. c) It focuses too much on socio-economic factors. d) It correctly implies that lack of access is always the cause of a less advantaged social position.

Answer 87

It suggests the difference between "haves" and "have nots" is simply about access, ignoring culture, literacy, etc.

Question 88

What is the "winner-take-all" phenomenon? a) A market where all companies have an equal share of profits. b) A situation where a few top performers have a disproportionate share of wealth. c) A system where all consumers benefit equally from new technologies. d) A government policy ensuring equitable distribution of resources.

Answer 88

A situation where a few top performers have a disproportionate share of wealth.

Question 89

Which of the following is listed as a cause of the winner-take-all phenomenon? a) Strict government regulations limiting market leaders. b) A decline in the importance of the English language. c) IT and efficient transportation systems, and network economies. d) A societal preference for many small businesses over large corporations.

Answer 89

IT and efficient transportation systems, and network economies.

Question 90

What is a harmful effect of the winner-take-all phenomenon? a) It encourages more people to enter socially productive fields. b) It may increase the gap between rich and poor and create wasteful investment. c) It ensures fair compensation for slightly inferior performance. d) It promotes diverse cultural expressions by supporting new artists.

Answer 90

It may increase the gap between rich and poor and create wasteful investment.

Question 91

Which of the following is suggested as a way to reduce winner-take-all effects? a) Deregulation of all industries. b) Implementing more progressive tax structures. c) Encouraging the dominance of a few elite institutions. d) Reducing funding for public education.

Answer 91

Implementing more progressive tax structures.