GEM 1st Flashcards

Question

What is an isotope?

Answer 1

A different form of an element that contains the same number of protons and electrons but a different number of neutrons

Answer 2

1. Nuclear charge (number of protons) 2. Distance from the nucleus (reduces with distance) 3. Shielding (number of electrons between an outer electron and the nucleus)

Answer 3

Electrons are being removed from an increasingly positive ion so the force of attraction due to be broken is greater.

Answer 4

Electron repulsion (as electrons are both negatively charged)

Answer 5

Ionisation energy reduces. Each element down a group has an extra electron shell, (increased distance and electron shielding from inner shells)

Answer 6

Ionisation energy increases. Increased number of protons (nuclear attraction) but at roughly the same level (no electron shielding)

Answer 7

An electron in the outer shell of an atom which can participate in the formation of chemical bonds (e.g. covalent bonds)

Answer 8

No. Epithelial tissues are avascular

Answer 9

Neurons and glial cells

Answer 10

At the inferior end of the stomach. Allows chyme to pass into the duodenum.

Answer 11

Cephalic Gastric Intestinal

Answer 12

Detoxification - the liver filters all blood from the stomach and intestines and metabolises drugs and toxins into less harmful/more usable components Synthesis - of bile which is used for fat digestion, neutralising chyme, and for moving waste along the intestine Storage - of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K) and glycogen

Answer 13

To concentrate and store bile which is synthesised in the liver

Answer 14

Produces digestive enzymes which are secreted into the duodenum (lipase, protease, amylase) Produces pancreatic hormones (glucagon, insulin)

Answer 15

Leptin is produced in adipose tissue and inhibits hunger. Leptin production is directly proportional to the amount of adipose tissue one has. Ghrelin is produced in the stomach. Ghrelin levels are highest before a meal

Answer 16

Phagocytosis - ingestion of particles Pinocytosis - ingestion of liquid droplets

Answer 17

A hormone made in the kidneys that stimulates erythropoiesis (erythrocyte production).

Answer 18

- Removal of wastes - Control of blood pressure - Control of blood pH - Erythropoietin production

Answer 19

100-120 days

Answer 20

HbA1c measures glycated haemoglobin in the bloodstream and indicates average levels over the past 3 months (limited by erythrocyte lifespan of 100-120 days). HbA1c is underestimated in sickle cell disease as erythrocyte lifespan is only 10-20 days.

Answer 21

2 alpha and 2 beta globins surround 4 heme groups. Heme group contains a porphyrin ring and one iron atom per group.

Answer 22

A fold of membrane that attaches the intestine to the abdominal wall. Prevents intestines from collapsing or twisting.

Answer 23

Synthesises and stores lipids (such as cholesterol and phospholipids). Has various other functions.

Answer 24

Is studded with ribosomes. Synthesises proteins

Answer 25

Responsible for modifying and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for exocytosis or transport around the cell

Answer 26

Membrane bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes for invading pathogens or worn out cell parts

Answer 27

Located in connective tissue close to the external environment (mucosal surfaces, skin, intestines etc.) Contains granules with histamine, heparin, cytokines and other inflammatory mediators. Involved with allergic reactions and parasitic defence

Answer 28

Occurs in myelinated axons where an action potential in a node of ranvier triggers the flow of current to the next node, speeding up the transfer of nerve signals

Answer 29

Autonomic - mediates unconscious activities. Only has motor pathways Somatic - mediates conscious activities. Has motor and sensory pathways

Answer 30

Innate immune cells that destroy damaged cells which no longer produce major histocompatability complex 1 (mhc1) on their cell surface

Answer 31

% of erythrocytes in the blood. Men: 41-50% Women: 36-48%

Answer 32

The sugar coat on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. It aids in the binding of some cells and facilitates cell recognition.

Answer 33

The fluid bathing the erythrocyte contains a high level of solute relative to the cytoplasm, therefore water would diffuse out of the cell, causing the cell to shrivel (Crenation).

Answer 34

Facilitated Diffusion - Ion channels transported down an electrochemical gradient. Active transport - Uses ATP to transport solutes against their concentration gradiets e.g. Na+, K+ pump

Answer 35

A sequence of DNA that codes for a protein or polypeptide

Answer 36

The set of genes possessed by a particular organism

Answer 37

The expression of the genotype - may also have environmental influences!

Answer 38

1. A body will remain in a uniform state of motion unless acted upon by an external force 2. F = ma 3. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

Answer 39

Fluid movements between blood and tissues are determined by differences in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures between plasma inside microvessels and fluid outside them

Answer 40

Laminar flow is constant and often occurs at low velocities. Turbulent flow involves irregular fluctuations and mixing, often at higher velocities. E.g. A waterfall exhibits both from start (laminar) to finish (turbulent) as water accelerates due to gravity.

Answer 41

Anions (negatively charged ions) (e.g. chloride, oxide, sulphide)

Answer 42

A chemical bond that involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms.

Answer 43

A type of chemical bond that involves the electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions, or between two atoms with sharply different electronegativities. Ionic bones tend to be stronger than covalent bonds

Answer 44

Water is a polar molecule as the oxygen atom hogs electrons, giving it a partial negative charge, whereas the hydrogen atoms have a partial positive charge. The net charge of water is zero

Answer 45

Due to its polarity

Answer 46

Sperm cell - male Egg cell - female

Answer 47

Haploid (23 chromosomes) All other human cells are diploid, containing 23 chromosome pairs

Answer 48

Carbohydrates Lipids Proteins Nucleic Acids

Answer 49

A - adenine T - thymine G - guanine C - cytosine

Answer 50

A - adenine U - uracil C - cytosine G - guanine

Answer 51

Central Carbon atom - Hydrogen - Carboxyl group - Amino group - R side chain

Answer 52

Phospholipids - used to make the polar bilayer of human cells Sterols - Cholesterol is the primary sterol in humans. Formed in the liver and used to make hormones and bile salts. Phytosterols are found in plants. Triglycerides - Found in food, the blood, and adipocytes. Either unsaturated or saturated

Answer 53

Glycerol backbone bound to 3 fatty acid chains

Answer 54

Starch - (amylose and amylopectin) plant energy storage Glycogen - animal medium-term energy storage Cellulose - plant structure (indigestible)

Answer 55

Proteins that help to speed up chemical reactions in animals. Enzymes convert ‘substrates’ into ‘products’ at the active site Human enzymes normally work best at 37c and at a specific pH related to their area of operation.

Answer 56

On top of the kidneys ‘Add’ - ‘Renal’

Answer 57

As tangled chromatin fibres during interphase. Chromatin forms into chromosomes during Prophase. Chromosomes are made from tight strands of chromatin. Chromatin is made of tight bundles of histones. DNA is wound around histones to form nucleosomes

Answer 58

A measure of the effective osmotic pressure gradient between two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane. It determines whether water will move into or out of a cell. Isotonic = No net movement Hypotonic = Water in (lyse) Hypertonic = Water out (crenate)

Answer 59

Somatic nervous system

Answer 60

Iodine is used to create thyroid hormones, namely triiodothyronine (t3) and thyroxine (t4). Iodine deficiency slows the metabolism and eventually caused an enlarged thyroid (goiter)

Answer 61

Hypothalamus (via autonomic nervous and endocrine systems)

Answer 62

HPT axis (homeostasis) HPA axis (flight or fight) HPG axis (reproduction)

Answer 63

The amount of blood the heart pumps in 1 minute = stroke volume (ml/beat) x BPM

Answer 64

5-6 litres (per minute)

Answer 65

Volume of blood ejected out of the left ventricle at each heart beat. 50-100ml

Answer 66

‘OIL RIG’ Oxidation is loss of electrons (becomes positively charged) Reduction is gain of electrons (becomes negatively charged)

Answer 67

An element which attracts electrons (to fill a shell). Fluorine is the most electronegative element (1 electron away from filling its shell)

Answer 68

3:2 3 Na+ pumped out for every 2 K+ brought in

Answer 69

Cells are normally negatively charged (at rest)

Answer 70

Glial cells. Outnumber neurons 10 to 1

Answer 71

Most never divide and are amitotic in adults

Answer 72

Due to exponential decay, an isotope is never truly eliminated. However, there are a discreet number of atoms in this question (16) and it will decay to <1 atom after around 40 seconds.

Answer 73

Alpha particles are heavy and energetic, so can cause great damage in cells, but cannot travel far.

Answer 74

Alpha particles - large, positive, emitted from the nucleus, made of 2 protons and 2 neutrons Beta particles - small, negative, emitted from the nucleus. Gamma rays - weightless, high energy. Emitted from nucleus

Answer 75

Electronegative element. Example: water. Oxygen hoggs electrons from its covalent bonds with hydrogen, making oxygen electronegative, which can in turn form a hydrogen bond with other H2O molecules.

Answer 76

C - Methanol C2 - Ethanol C3 - Propane C4 - Butane C5 - Pentanol C6 - Hexane C7 - Heptane C8 - Octanol

Answer 77

Octanol Has the longest chain (C8)

Answer 78

Methanol: 1 Ethanol: 2 Propan-2-ol: 3 Butan-1-ol: 4

Answer 79

Contains double or triple bonds. Liquid (oil) at room temperature.

Answer 80

Contains single bonds Solid at room temperature

Answer 81

Occupy second to last group on the right of the periodic table. 7 valence electrons, so very reactive

Answer 82

Decanoic acid (Longest chain)

Answer 83

A nosebleed. 90% occur at the vulnerable kisselbach plexus

Answer 84

A complete or partial blockage of a blood vessel

Answer 85

When an injury causes bleeding outside the blood vessel into the tissue around it, and that blood then clots, it's called a hematoma. When blood clots inside a blood vessel, it's called a thrombus.

Answer 86

There is no approved treatment for cachexia and quality of life care is the focus. Stimulating appetite or intubation cannot reverse the condition, although research is ongoing into drugs that modulate Ghrelin production

Answer 87

Hormones produced by the adrenal glands. The main types are dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

Answer 88

Cranial nerve X Responsible for internal organ functions such as digestion, heart rate, breathing, cardiovascular activity, reflexes (coughing, sneezing, vomiting). Important role in the gut-brain axis

Answer 89

They have the same basic properties. X-rays are emitted from processes outside the nucleus, but gamma rays originate inside the nucleus. In general, nuclear transitions are more energetic than electronic transitions, so gamma rays are usually more energetic and penetrating.

Answer 90

Effusion - gases or fluids being emitted Perfusion - bathing an organ or tissue in fluid (e.g. bloodflow to capillaries) Diffusion - movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration

Answer 91

The octet rule states that atoms desire eight electrons in their valence shells, as this gives them the electron configuration of a noble gas. Most atoms have to bond with other atoms to acquire this electron configuration.

Answer 92

Ionic bonds: electrons are transferred from a metal to nonmetal Covalent bonds: electrons are shared between nonmetals Metallic bonds: electrons "float" between a lattice of metallic nuclei

Answer 93

Molality represents the number of moles of solute dissolved into one kilogram of solvent

Answer 94

The movement of water within the spaces of a porous material due to the forces of adhesion (surface of container), cohesion (between water molecules), and surface tension.

Answer 95

Malleus Incus Stapes

Answer 96

Hyoid Sternum Ribs x24 Cervical vertebrae x7 Thoracic vertebrae x12 Lumbar vertebrae x5 Sacrum Coccyx

Answer 97

Swelling under the skin in the appendages (multiple causes)

Answer 98

Chronic swelling in the tissues (failure of the lymphatic system)

Answer 99

Scaphoid (she) Lunate (looks) Triquetrum (too) Pisiform (pretty) Trapezium (try) Trapezoid (to) Capitate (catch) Hamate (her) Metacarpals Proximal phalanges Intermediate phalanges Distal phalanges

Answer 100

Ilium x2 Ischium x2 Pubis x2 Femur x2 Patella x2 Tibia x2 Fibula x2

Answer 101

Talus (tiger) Calcaneus (cubs) Navicular (need) Medial cuneiform (m) Intermediate cuneiform (i) Lateral cuneiform (L) Cuboid (c) Metatarsals Proximal phalanges Intermediate phalanges Distal phalanges

Answer 102

Tenesmus is the frequent urge to go to the toilet but not being able to go / the incomplete evacuation of the bowels. Severe inflammation that irritates the nerves involved in defecation is often the cause.

Answer 103

Transcription (production of mRNA) occurs in the nucleus as it requires a DNA template. Once mRNA is produced, it leaves the nucleus for translation (protein synthesis). Translation occurs in the cytoplasm, on ribosomes which are both free and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer 104

Plasmalemma is a less common term for the cell membrane. The membrane consists of lipids and proteins. The major lipid component is the Phospholipid bilayer

Answer 105

False. In adults, adipocyte numbers remain stable over time despite a large turnover in these cells. A decrease or increase in weight will change cell volume.

Answer 106

E. The heel prick test (newborn blood spot test) is carried out on all newborns aged 5 days. The test screens for genetic conditions such as Cystic Fibrosis, Phenylketonuria, and Congenital Hypothyroidism. The heel prick test is not as common as the other tests, which may be administered more routinely and frequently throughout a patient’s life.

Answer 107

Abdominal aortic aneurysm A swelling in the aorta (which feeds the abdomen). There is no early warning symptom of AAA so screening is important. Screening is offered to all men aged over 65. AAA’s are dangerous if they are at a high risk of rupture.

Answer 108

Arterial blood gas Measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the radial or femoral artery (less common). Blood pH can also be determined. A common test in the IC unit. Pulse oximetry is a less invasive option in other environments.

Answer 109

Angiotensin-converting enzyme *ACE converts the hormone Angiotensin I to the active Vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II. Therefore, ACE indirectly increases blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction. ACE inhibitors are commonly used drugs for cardiovascular disease treatment.

Answer 110

2-4 days postpartum

Answer 111

The soft gaps where two sutures of a newborn’s cranium are yet to fuse. Posterior fontanelle and anterior fontanelle (larger). Posterior fuses at roughly 3 months. Anterior at 9-18 months.

Answer 112

Pathophysiology: Autosomal recessive mutation of Phenylalanine hydroxylase gene. Phenylalanine accumulates from high protein foods or aspartame. Severe intellectual disability and psychiatric disorders follow. Diagnosis: Heel prick test (routine newborn screening). Symptoms can include fairer skin, hair, eyes (low melanin) and a musty smell. Treatment: Specialist dietetic support (low protein diet and amino acid supplements). Regular blood tests.

Answer 113

C. There are 20 amino acids in the standard genetic code plus selenocysteine in humans. These are proteinogenic (incorporated into proteins during translation). 9 of these are essential. Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine

Answer 114

Hypertrophy: Increase in cell size Hyperplasia: Increase in cell number Metaplasia: Transformation of a cell Neoplasia: Uncontrolled cell formation

Answer 115

Involution is a normal decrease in cellular / organ size (e.g., postpartum) Atrophy is an induced reduction (e.g. , stress, toxicity, nutrition)

Answer 116

Both occur after irreversible cell injury (a stressor which is too significant to adapt to). Apoptosis is programmed (controlled) whereas necrosis is passive. *Autophagy (intracellular recycling) is another process which occurs in response to a stimulus. Notably autophagy occurs during extended fasting.

Answer 117

B AUG codes for methionine, which is the most common start codon in mRNA translation at the ribosome.

Answer 118

Lymphoid cells predominantly form the basis of the adaptive immune response (B and T cells, but also NK cells). Myeloid cells form the basis of the innate immune response

Answer 119

Thymus and bone marrow. These tissues are responsible for the development of lymphocytes, a type of immune system cell.

Answer 120

Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, certain tissues in the mucous membrane layers of the body. They support the maturation, survival, and activation of lymphocytes. They are located throughout the body. (The lymphatic system also includes lymphatic vessels, which drain lymph, or interstitial fluid, from tissues and return it to the bloodstream)

Answer 121

Rubor (redness) Tumour (swelling) Calor (heat) Dolor (pain) Functio laesa (function)

Answer 122

D All of these can be the root cause of liver scarring, which will lead to liver disease. The proximate cause is an intermediary on the disease pathway

Answer 123

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) Helper T cells (CD4+)

Answer 124

Productive viruses rapidly produce progeny using cell machinery. This creates endoplasmic reticulum stress (ER stress), where there is a build up of unfolded or misfolded proteins. ER stress can lead to cell death (apoptosis) or immune cell clearance (cytotoxic) as these cells are recognised as faulty. ER stress can also lead to tumour progression. Viruses often induce cell lysis, allowing for attachment and infection of further cells

Answer 125

Lymph nodes swell during infection (both localised and generalised). This is often due to an increase in number and size of lymphoid follicles and proliferation of lymphocytes to respond to an antigen.

Answer 126

Lymphadenopathy refers to the swelling of lymph nodes. These glands swell due to multiplication of cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells, monocytes, or histiocytes). Swelling is usually localised. Widespread swelling indicative of systemic infection

Answer 127

Filtration - removes old and damaged erythrocytes, and microorganisms, from the bloodstream. Defence - contains lymphocytes and macrophages Storage - of blood and iron

Answer 128

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

Answer 129

Found in the small intestine (predominantly distal) Antigens entering the intestinal tract encounter macrophages, dendritic cells, B-lymphocytes, and T-lymphocytes found in Peyer's patches and other GALT sites. Peyer's patches (gastrointestinal) are analogous to the tonsils (respiratory). They trap foreign particles, survey, and destroy them

Answer 130

'C' is not an antigen as it is a cytotoxic T cell (adaptive immunity). Antigens are exogenous or endogenous substances that trigger an immune response in the body.

Answer 131

prostate-specific antigen

Answer 132

"Don't. Marry. Ben." Dendritic Cells Macrophages B Lymphocytes Professional antigen presenting cells (APCs) are cells that process antigens and present them to T cells, initiating adaptive immune response

Answer 133

Neutrophils (40-60% of all Leukocytes)

Answer 134

Both are leukocytes which engage in phagocytosis and are part of the innate immune system. Neutrophils are short-lived and found in the blood, macrophages are longer-lived and tissue bound. Macrophages are primarily responsible for clearing away cellular debris, dead cells, and microbes. Neutrophils kill bacteria, fungi, and foreign debris

Answer 135

Antigens are exogenous or endogenous substances that trigger an immune response in the body.

Answer 136

Antigens trigger adaptive immunity by binding to antigen receptors on B and T lymphocytes Antigen-presenting cells present antigens on their surface using MHC molecules. When an antigen binds to a lymphocyte's antigen receptor, the lymphocyte becomes activated.

Answer 137

Process of adaptive immunity manifested by immunoglobulin production, by B lymphocytes, and complement protein support

Answer 138

Lymphocytes congregate in secondary lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils) to mount immune responses. These organs trap antigens for exposure to T and B lymphocytes, and are where mature lymphocytes continue to develop.

Answer 139

No. The innate immune response to a particular pathogen is the same upon first exposure as it is following all subsequent exposures (i.e. no memory)

Answer 140

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) - derived from microorganisms. Alert the immune system to the presence of pathogens. Damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) - derived from host cells. Released in response to trauma, ischaemia, and tissue damage. Both PAMPs and DAMPs bind to specific receptors on pattern recognition receptor (PRR)-bearing cells of the innate immune system

Answer 141

Appearance (skin colour) Pulse Grimace Activity (muscle tone) Respiration 0–2 points per characteristic. A score >7 at 5 minutes post-birth is considered normal

Answer 142

A signalling chemical which sends messages between cells. Histamine has numerous functions, but is primarily known for upregulating immune response. Activation of H1 receptors cause allergy symptoms (vasodilation, pruritis, tachycardia...) Predominantly released by Mast Cells in the connective tissues.

Answer 143

Itchy skin. Often caused by allergic reactions to food, insect bites, pollen, and medicines

Answer 144

Brachiocephalic (right subclavian and right carotid) Left carotid Left subclavian

Answer 145

Left and right coronary arteries

Answer 146

Fluid balance (draining excess interstitial fluid) Transport (of immunological molecules, cells, and waste products)

Answer 147

D. 100-120 compressions per minute

Answer 148

Site (arm) Onset (2 days ago) Character (intermittent) Radiation (yes, from chest) Associated Symptoms (tight chest) Timing (worse upon exertion) Exacerbation and relief (rest) Severity (4-8) Likely diagnosis = myocardial infarction

Answer 149

Type I = False Positive. Determined against a preset significance level (termed alpha). Not affected by sample size. Increases if the number of end-points increases (due to chance findings). Type II = False Negative. Determined by both sample size and alpha

Answer 150

The power of a study is the probability of (correctly) rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, i.e. the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference

Answer 151

Weeks 2-8 post conception *Fetus = week 9 onwards Pre-embryonic day 0-7

Answer 152

24 weeks gestation

Answer 153

The cartilage situated at the point where the trachea (windpipe) divides into the two bronchi.

Answer 154

Zygote = days 1-2. Pronuclei form and zygote undergoes mitosis Embryonic = Days 6-7. Zygote divides into smaller cells. Forms and embryo Morula = Day 3. Once it has 16 cells, it is a morula

Answer 155

A fertilised egg, ready to attach to the uterus (endometrium)

Answer 156

The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst. It plays a crucial role in early pregnancy, forming two main structures: Placenta Chorion

Answer 157

Lipid solubility - Charged drugs have low lipid solubility and high water solubility, making them hydrophilic. They cannot easily penetrate cell membranes. Electrical resistance - Charged drugs have high electrical resistance which prevents them from penetrating cell membranes. *by contrast, un-ionised drugs are usually lipid soluble and can diffuse readily across membranes

Answer 158

Absorption refers to the intake of a drug into the systemic circulation. Absorption rate can be modified by site of administration and drug formulation.

Answer 159

The dose of a drug that provides safe and effective therapy with minimal adverse effects. Too low a concentration will be ineffective. Too high a concentration will increase the risk of adverse effects

Answer 160

F = quantity of drug reaching systemic circulation / quantity of drug administered F = 100mg in circulation / 1g taken orally

Answer 161

A drug whose physical structure is related to that of another drug. Although physical properties are comparable, biochemical properties may differ

Answer 162

There are numerous factors to drug absorption. Based on this information, patient A will express a quicker absorption of the drug due to increased gastric emptying rate into the duodenum

Answer 163

Fundus is a non-specific term referring to the part of a hollow organ that is across from, or farthest away from, the organ's opening. A classic example is the upper part of the stomach, which forms a bulge above the level of the opening of the oesophagus (furthest from the pylorus)

Answer 164

Medication undergoes metabolism at a specific location in the body. This decreases the active drug's concentration upon reaching systemic circulation of site of action. This commonly refers to the liver, where drugs are often metabolised. Drugs can be administered via other methods to avoid first pass metabolism (sub-lingual, intravenous, rectal)

Answer 165

Used to treat angina. Sub-lingual administration bypasses first pass metabolism and allows for rapid response

Answer 166

The volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specified time period (L/h) *Differs from elimination, which is amount of drug cleared (mg/h)

Answer 167

1. Non-opioids (paracetamol, NSAIDs) 2. Weak opioids (codeine, tramadol) 3. Strong opioids (morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl)

Answer 168

Trigeminal nerve Has motor (chewing, swallowing) and sensory functions (face)

Answer 169

Vagus nerve Has motor and sensory functions. Main nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system (autonomic, 'rest and digest')

Answer 170

The only muscle that abducts the vocal folds, opening the rima glottidis. Paralysis = asphyxiation

Answer 171

When a neonate has excess tissue that blocks the choanae, making it harder for them to breathe. If one passage is blocked, your baby may have mild symptoms. Babies born with both passages blocked need emergency treatment to support ventilation

Answer 172

Phonation - contains vocal cords, which vibrate as air passes through them, producing sound. Respiratory Control - adductor and abductor muscles control airflow (notably, the posterior cricoarytenoid) Protecting the Airway (Swallowing) - epiglottis covers the opening to the trachea during, directing food and liquids down the oesophagus Cough Reflex - if something accidentally enters the larynx, it triggers a cough reflex

Answer 173

- Nares - Nasal Cavity - Turbinates (past the conchae and through the meatus - Choanae - Nasopharynx - Oropharynx - Laryngopharynx

Answer 174

Anosmia - Loss of olfaction Hyposmia - Reduced olfaction Hyperosmia - Increased olfactory sensitivity

Answer 175

Ophthalmic (V1): Carries sensory information from the scalp, forehead, upper eyelid, and nose. Maxillary (V2): Carries sensory information from the cheeks, upper lip, upper teeth, and lower eyelid. Mandibular (V3): Handles sensory input from the jaw, lower lip, lower teeth, and also controls muscles involved in chewing

Answer 176

Inferior Meatus - Located under the inferior nasal concha (the lowest turbinate). It’s the longest and lowest of the three meatuses. Middle Meatus - Situated below the middle nasal concha. It’s in this region that the maxillary sinus and frontal sinus drain, making it an important passage for airflow and drainage. Superior Meatus - Found beneath the superior nasal concha (the highest turbinate). This meatus is smaller and allows drainage from the posterior ethmoid air cells.

Answer 177

Deep Vein Thrombosis is more likely to cause Pulmonary Embolism as a dislodged thrombus in the lower limbs will then travel via the inferior vena cava into the right side of the heart, then the lungs. At this point, the vessels decrease in size and an embolus can lodge. Prior to this, the vessels still have a wide lumen and less occlusion risk. Cerebral Embolism would occur after an embolus leaves the left ventricle and travels up the carotid arteries. After this, the vessels narrow and an embolus can lodge.

Answer 178

The aortic hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm that allows the descending aorta, thoracic duct, and sometimes the azygos and hemiazygos veins to pass through. Located at T12 vertebral level

Answer 179

D-dimer is a protein fragment (small piece) that's made when a blood clot dissolves. D-dimer isn't usually found in the blood unless blood clots are being broken up. High D-Dimer concentrations indicate a blood clotting disorder

Answer 180

Cardiac Troponins (cTnI & cTnT) have high sensitivity (low false negatives) and specificity (low false positives). cTnI and cTnT rise 3-6 hours post infarction.

Answer 181

β1 primarily in heart and kidneys. β2 in lungs, blood vessels, and other smooth muscles. β1 increases heart activity (activated by adrenaline and noradrenaline) β2 mediates smooth muscle relaxation.

Answer 182

It is often a sign of a significant underlying disease, prompting further diagnostic evaluation to identify the primary cause. Strongly correlated with lung cancer

Answer 183

D. The trachea bifurcates at around Thoracic Vertebrae 4 or 5

Answer 184

Earwax Produced in the outer part of the ear canal. It is secreted by specialized glands called ceruminous glands and sebaceous glands, which are located in the skin of the outer ear canal. These glands produce a mix of secretions that combine with dead skin cells to form earwax, which helps protect and lubricate the ear canal, trapping dust, dirt, and microorganisms to prevent them from reaching the eardrum.

Answer 185

Vasodilation: Increased blood flow to affected tissues delivers immune cells and nutrients for healing. Also causes calor and rubor. Vascular Permeability: Allows immune cells and proteins to move more easily into damaged tissues. Causes tumor Nociception: Sensitises nerve endings. Pain acts as a protective mechanism, discouraging further use. Causes dolor and functio laesa Pyrexia: Some prostaglandins act on the hypothalamus. Inhibits pathogen growth and enhances immune response. Causes calor

Answer 186

NSAIDs inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. COX-2 inhibition reduces pain and inflammation, but COX-1 inhibition reduces protection of the gastric wall. Gastric ulcers are therefore a risk of NSAIDs, which should be administered with food to reduce side effects

Answer 187

Pharyngotympanic tube This provides anatomical clues as to where this structure is situated

Answer 188

Provides structural support to the airway in the larynx. It is the only complete ring of cartilage in the trachea

Answer 189

Thyroid cartilage (Adams apple)

Answer 190

C6 vertebra Level with the cricoid cartilage

Answer 191

No Adenoid tissue (pharyngeal tonsil) is located behind the nasal cavity and superior to the roof of the mouth. This area (nasopharynx) cannot be seen through the oral cavity

Answer 192

1. Reducing skull weight 2. Humidifying inhaled air 3. Enhancing vocal resonance 4. Trauma protection 5. Mucus production (for pathogens)

Answer 193

Ask the patient to open their mouth and protrude their tongue as far as possible. I: complete visualisation II: whole uvula visible III: partial uvula visible IV: no visibility

Answer 194

Located in the ethmoid bone at the roof of the nasal cavity. Olfaction: Olfactory foramina allow olfactory nerve fibers to pass, transmitting sensory information. Protection: Shields olfactory bulbs, which are located above the cribriform plate. These bulbs process smell information. Structure: Contributes to the stability and separation of the nasal and cranial cavities.

Answer 195

Frontal sinus - superior to eyes Ethmoid sinus - medial to eyes Sphenoid sinus - posterior to nose Maxillary sinus - inferior to eyes

Answer 196

Prominent anatomical landmark (vertebra prominens) Is vulnerable to trauma due to prominence and weight of the head Innervates specific regions of the arm, forearm, and hand. Symptoms of nerve/vertebral injury can therefore be felt in the forearm and middle finger

Answer 197

1. Closes nasopharynx when swallowing 2. Produces saliva 3. Supports vocal resonance 4. Triggers immune defence 5. Triggers gag reflex

Answer 198

Palatine - back of oral cavity Adenoids (pharyngeal) - in the nasopharynx Lingual - at the base of the tongue Tubal - entrance to the eustachian tubes

Answer 199

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer outside the cell membrane. Stains purple. Often more susceptible to antibiotics which target the peptidoglycan Negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer between two membranes (inner and outer). Stains pink. Often more resistant to antibiotics and associated with more aggressive immune response

Answer 200

Alternative complement pathway (activated by polysaccharides - peptidoglycan)

Answer 201

Type 1: Hypoxemic. Low O2. Caused by chronic conditions that damage lungs Type 2: Hypercapnic. High CO2. Often due to reduced ventilation

Answer 202

CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid. CO2 is therefore acidic Hypocapnia = respiratory alkalosis Hypercapnia = respiratory acidosis

Answer 203

Atopic refers to a genetic predisposition to develop allergic reactions such as asthma, eczema, hay fever, and other allergic reactions. Atopic individuals often produce more immunoglobulin E (IgE)

Answer 204

D. CRP levels are more specific to bacterial infections, but they can be elevated for every other type of infection in certain circumstances

Answer 205

High eosinophils are a hallmark of Parasitic infection

Answer 206

Leukocytosis = high WBC High WBC is often indicative of a bacterial infection, particularly when accompanied by a neutrophil predominance

Answer 207

Ionic sweat test (sweat chloride test) Sweat is stimulated using pilocarpine. If collected sweat has a high chloride concentration, CF may be present

Answer 208

Excessive production and passage of urine. Typically defined as urine output greater than 3 litres per day in adults

Answer 209

Poor ventilation (V) relative to perfusion (Q). Examples: asthma, COPD, pneumonia

Answer 210

Poor perfusion (Q) relative to ventilation (V) Example: Pulmonary Embolism

Answer 211

(Conducting): nasal cavities, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles (Respiratory): respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli

Answer 212

The CTFR protein regulates the movement of sodium ions across epithelial cell membranes, maintaining fluid balance. CTFR mutations may cause Cystic Fibrosis

Answer 213

Shortness of breath

Answer 214

Liver stiffness (scarring)

Answer 215

Tired all the time

Answer 216

Embryonic period (weeks 3-8) This period is marked by organogenesis

Answer 217

False. Antibodies respond to antigens, which are harmful to the body

Answer 218

True. Humoral immunity is a component of the adaptive immune system that primarily involves B lymphocytes producing antibodies

Answer 219

A. Plasma cells. Plasma cells develop from B Lymphocytes

Answer 220

D IgG is the most common immunoglobulin. Found predominantly in extracellular fluid. Has the longest half life of all immunoglobulins (21 days). Four subclasses (IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4)

Answer 221

D. Teres minor

Answer 222

A system of organising viruses into groups based on their genome type and replication strategy

Answer 223

False. PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder and is not sex linked

Answer 224

True. Dominant traits can only be expressed. They can still be passed on, but they cannot be true 'carriers'

Answer 225

False. The trait could be passed on if procreation is with a partner with the disorder (2 copies). This would leave a 50% chance of the child having the trait (requires 2 copies). If procreation between 2 carriers, there is a 50% chance of the child being a carrier, 25% of the child having the trait, and 25% chance of being unaffected

Answer 226

Bacterial pneumonia is more common in hospital settings due to AMR

Answer 227

Pneumonia (1 case per 100)

Answer 228

Glucocorticoid receptors are ubiquitous. Local administration limits side effects

Answer 229

B. Typically Intranasal administration offers the least systemic effects. Topical delivery can also be specific, whereas inhaled, oral, or Injectable delivery are often more systemic.

Answer 230

Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids

Answer 231

Steroidogenesis

Answer 232

Tension pneumothorax

Answer 233

Coughing up blood

Answer 234

Trachealis is a band of smooth muscle located along the posterior aspect of the trachea. Contraction = tracheal narrowing and increased airflow velocity / pressure Relaxation = tracheal widening and reduced airway resistance

Answer 235

Inflammation of the respiratory pleurae. This often causes sharp pain which originates in the parietal pleura (innervated by phrenic nerve)

Answer 236

The space between the visceral and parietal pleura. The space contains a small amount of serous fluid for lubrication and surface tension

Answer 237

Oblique: Separates the upper and lower lobes (left) and the middle and lower lobes (right) of the lungs Horizontal: Found only in the right lung. Separates upper and middle lobes

Answer 238

Lipids (triglycerides) - Adipose tissue. Around 85% of body energy storage is lipids Proteins - Half of all protein is found in skeletal muscle. Around 15% of body energy storage is protein Carbohydrates - Liver glycogen, muscle glycogen, glucose (body fluids). Less than 1% of body energy storage

Answer 239

Marasmus - Severe wasting. Loss of adipose and muscle tissue. Caused by insufficient calories Kwashiorkor - Severe wasting. Presence of ascites and/or bilateral pitting oedema. Caused by protein energy malnutrition

Answer 240

Cause: Chronic disease-driven inflammation vs aging and inactivity Onset: Rapid Vs gradual Tissues: adipose and muscle tissue loss Vs muscle loss only Prognosis: difficult to reverse vs reversible (via exercise)

Answer 241

A condition where fat builds up in an organ, usually the liver. Steatosis is a common condition in developed societies, affecting about 30% of adults

Answer 242

Ductus Venosus - shunts blood to inferior Vena cava (and the liver) in neonates Ductus Arteriosus - shunts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery Foramen Ovale - shunts deoxygenated blood from left to right atrium

Answer 243

A common heart defect (25-30%). Does not regularly cause clinical concern. Occurs when the Foramen Ovale fails to close after birth

Answer 244

Anterior to the elbow. The depression of the inner arm joint

Answer 245

Upon auscultation of the brachial or radial arteries, whilst they are partially occluded by a sphygmomanometer. Sounds occur between diastolic and systolic values

Answer 246

kg , g , mg , ug , ng , pg

Answer 247

8g x 10^ -6 8ug = 0.008mg 8ug = 0.000008g Count the 0's and times to the power of minus that figure

Answer 248

Teragram Tg Gigagram Gg Megagram Mg Kilogram kg Gram g Decigrams d Centigrams cg Milligrams mg Micrograms ug Nanograms ng Picograms pg Femtograms fg

Answer 249

Femtogram 10^-15 Picogram 10^-12 Nanogram 10^-9 Microgram 10^-6 Gigagram 10^9

Answer 250

Peak Flow: Measures peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) to assess airway obstruction (maximum speed of exhalation). Mainly used for monitoring asthma over time. Quick, easy, low cost, but less sensitive to detecting asthma Spirometry: Measures forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). Generates FEV1/FVC Ratio. Used for diagnosing lung conditions. More complex and sensitive to detecting early lung disease

Answer 251

>70% ratio: normal or restrictive <70% ratio: obstructive Restrictive lung disease would see a normal or increased ratio, but reduced FVC (indicates reduced lung capacity)

Answer 252

The LAD coronary artery is also referred to as 'The Widowmaker'. Perfuses most of the left ventricle, so occlusion can be severe. Has high atherosclerotic potential due to turbulent flow, high workload, and pressure

Answer 253

Orthopnoea = breathing difficulty when lying down Tachypnoea = rapid breathing (>20bpm) Dyspnoea= breathing difficulty in general

Answer 254

1. Congenital heart defects (patent ductus Arteriosus, patent ductus Venosus, patent foramen Ovale, central septal defect). 2. Infective endocarditis Finger clubbing is most commonly associated with lung cancer

Answer 255

D: Streptococci viridans

Answer 256

Commonly referred to as a bunion. The big toe (Hallux) deviates laterally and a bony prominence forms. Caused by improper mechanics of the metatarsophalangeal joint

Answer 257

Cytotoxic (CD8+) = MHC I Found on the surface of all nucleated cells in the body. Allows CD8+ cells to monitor intracellular infections. Helper (CD4+) = MHC II Found on the surface of all antigen presenting cells. MHC II can then activate immune cells and cytokines

Answer 258

Pain Breathlessness Palpitations Swelling Syncope

Answer 259

Pain Breathlessness Wheeze Cough Sputum / Haemoptysis

Answer 260

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) measures how quickly erythrocytes settle at the bottom of a test tube over a specific period. The result is reported in millimeters per hour (mm/hr). ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation. When there is inflammation, the blood contains higher levels of fibrinogen and other proteins, causing red blood cells to clump together and settle faster.

Answer 261

1. PMR affects large muscle groups. RA affects joints 2. PMR almost exclusively affects older adults. RA common onset is 30-50 years. 3. RA has positive antibodies (rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP). PMR will test negative

Answer 262

TA is a vasculitis of large and medium arteries (especially temporal). PMR affects muscles and periarticular tissues. There is an overlap between the two conditions, with 40-50% of TA patients experiencing PMR symptoms. TA is more severe and can lead to stroke or blindness.

Answer 263

1. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate Rises slowly with inflammation (weeks) and dissipates slowly. Less specific, is affected by confounders. Useful for measuring chronic conditions 2. C-Reactive Protein Rises rapidly (hours) with inflammation and falls quickly. Specific measure of acute inflammation

Answer 264

Gamma Radiation: Emitted from nucleus of a radioactive atom during nuclear decay. Typically higher energy and shorter wavelengths. Very high penetration. Used in cancer therapy and equipment sterilisation. Used for imaging. X-rays: Produced when high-energy electrons strike a metal target or they transition between energy levels in atoms. Have a slightly lower energy and wavelength. High penetration, less than gamma rays.

Answer 265

Phenylalanine L-Tyrosine L-Dopa Dopamine Norepinephrine Epinephrine

Answer 266

1. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) Increases heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels for a "fight or flight" response. Targets heart, lungs, and blood vessels. 2. Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline) Vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and enhanced alertness. Targets blood vessels and brain. 3. Dopamine Regulates movement, mood, reward, and blood flow to the kidneys. Targets brain (CNS) and kidneys.

Answer 267

Fibrous - Very little movement Cartilaginous - Voderate, but limited movement

Answer 268

Within the joint capsule, at the ends of bones (where bones articulate). Articular cartilage is separated by synovial fluid

Answer 269

1. Altered synovial fluid composition - Becomes less viscous - Reduced lubrication - Due to reduced hyaluronic acid concentration 2. Increased synovial effusion - Low grade inflammation - Due to cartilage degradation - Causes effusion and joint swelling

Answer 270

1. Hyaline Most common type. Smooth, translucent, low friction. Articular surfaces, larynx, costal cartilage are examples. 2. Elastic More flexible. Contains elastic fibres. Examples include external ear, epiglottis, eustachian tube. 3. Fibrocartilage Most durable form. Resists compression and tensile forces. Found in intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, menisci.

Answer 271

Inflammation of bursae due to repetitive friction, direct trauma, infection, or inflammation (RA or Gout) Leads to increased synovial fluid production, swelling, inflammation, and possibly fibrosis

Answer 272

Synovial sheaths surrounding tendons. Secretes synovial fluid for lubrication Reduces friction and allows efficient movement of tendons.

Answer 273

C. Tenosynovitis is inflammation of the synovial sheath which surrounds tendons. *Seen in rheumatoid arthritis when 'silk' coat is replaced with 'duffle' coat due to inflammation

Answer 274

C. Excessive synovial fluid production

Answer 275

B. Infection is most common cause. *Tenosynovitis is also a complication of rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 276

Made primarily of collagen fibres, produced by fibroblasts post trauma. Scar tissue (fibrosis) is typically less vascular, flexible, and innervated than normal tissue, reducing function.

Answer 277

Hinge: Humeroulnar Pivot: Atlantoaxial Saddle: Carpometacarpal Condyloid: Atlantooccipital Ball and socket: Glenohumeral Gliding (plane): Intercarpal

Answer 278

C. Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of type I collagen for tensile strength

Answer 279

C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

Answer 280

C. There are 2 menisci in the knee. They are crescent-shaped fibrocartilaginous structures which absorb shock and increase joint congruence within the joint capsule

Answer 281

It is firmly attached to the medial collateral ligament (MCL). This makes the medial meniscus less mobile. It also plays a higher weight bearing role.

Answer 282

Combination of 3 injuries which occur due to high impact sports trauma. They can occur simultaneously due to shared pattern of stress: 1. Anterior Cruciate Ligament 2. Medial Collateral Ligament 3. Medial Meniscus

Answer 283

Osteoarthritis. Osteophytes (bone spurs) are examples of bone remodelling due to chronic cartilage degeneration

Answer 284

Dolor, tumor, functio laesa, crepitus. *Rubor and calor are not associated with osteoarthritis due to the inflammation being low grade. Rubor and calor may indicate septic or autoimmune arthritis.

Answer 285

1. Articular cartilage (Hyaline) degeneration 2. Subchondral bone changes (sclerosis and cyst formation) 3. Osteophyte formation

Answer 286

Hyperuricemia = elevated uric acid Uric acid crystals (tophi) deposit in synovial joints. Initiates an inflammatory response. Caused by either overproduction (purine consumption) or underexcretion (renal damage) of uric acid.

Answer 287

Gout *Uric acid typically accumulates in the MTPJ due to lower temperature, reduced blood flow, and higher pressure compared to other regions. A history of high purine consumption (meat, shellfish, beer) or renal dysfunction will commonly accompany this.

Answer 288

Pseudogout *Characterised by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate as opposed to uric acid crystals

Answer 289

Gout = needle shaped monosodium urate monohydrate crystals Pseudogout = rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

Answer 290

Pseudogout is often idiopathic. It is the most common cause of mono arthritis in the elderly population

Answer 291

Septic arthritis, until proven otherwise. *These symptoms indicate acute inflammation. Septic arthritis is serious as it can result in joint destruction, sepsis, and long-term disability. This is septic arthritis until proven otherwise.

Answer 292

- Surgical laceration of muscle fascia - Often conducted to relieve compartment syndrome - Wound us often left open temporarily to ease pressure - Goal is to prevent muscle necrosis and nerve injury

Answer 293

The dens is a bony projection found on C2 vertebra. It articulates with C1 and forms the atlanto-axial joint. Odontoid fractures are common cervical spine injuries, particularly in elderly

Answer 294

Cervical: 7 Thoracic: 12 Lumbar: 5 Sacral: 5 (fused) Coccygeal: 4 (fused)

Answer 295

24 ribs True ribs: 7 pairs False ribs: 3 pairs Floating ribs: 2 pairs

Answer 296

A small process that articulates with the corresponding vertebra

Answer 297

L1 to L2 level *Below this is the lumbar cistern and the filum terminals. These make up the cauda equina

Answer 298

B. Saddle anaesthesia

Answer 299

A chronic inflammatory disease affecting spine and sacroiliac joints. Chronic inflammation causes enthesitis (inflammation of tendon/ligament attachment points). Progressive ossificaton causes fusion of the spine (ankylosis). Symptoms: chronic lower back pain and stiffness. Pulmonary fibrosis, aortic regurgitation, and eye inflammation can also occur

Answer 300

Stiffness or fixation of a joint by a disease process

Answer 301

Spondylitis = inflammation of the vertebrae Examples include: - Ankylosing Spondylitis (fusion of vertebrae) - Psoriatic Spondylitis - Reactive Spondylitis - Enteropathic Spondylitis

Answer 302

Manubrium Sternal body Xiphoid process

Answer 303

Glenohumeral joint

Answer 304

Supraspinatus: Initiates abduction Infraspinatus: External rotation Teres Minor: External rotation Subscapularis: Internal rotation

Answer 305

It is one of the large stabilising ligaments of the shoulder. The coracohumeral ligament compensates for rotator cuff weakness. The coracohumeral ligament often thickens and contracts in 'frozen shoulder', restricting movement

Answer 306

37-42 weeks

Answer 307

No. Patent Foramen Ovale is not a true Atrial Septal Defect. It is an incomplete fusion of the septum primum and septum secundum rather than a structural deficiency.

Answer 308

Persistent Truncus Arteriosus *Ventricular outflow has not separated into 2 separate vessels. This is a Septal Defect

Answer 309

Aorta and pulmonary trunk *Ductus Arteriosus, in isolation, is rarely symptomatic. This presentation suggests a combination of other abnormalities, which commonly occur with Patent Ductus Arteriosus

Answer 310

Severe congenital heart defects such as Tetralogy of Fallout or Transposition of Great Arteries. *Smaller defects may be asymptomatic or only yield minor symptoms

Answer 311

1. Ventricular Septal Defect (Mixing of blood between ventricles) 2. Pulmonary Stenosis (Compressed pulmonary artery) 3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy (Due to pulmonary stenosis) 4. Overriding Aorta (Compresses pulmonary artery)

Answer 312

Tricuspid valve (3 cusps) Pulmonary valve (3 semilunar cusps) Mitral valve (2 cusps) Aortic valve (3 semilunar cusps)

Answer 313

Right ventricle. The Ascending Aorta is normally connected to the left ventricle, pulmonary artery to the right ventricle. Transposition involves the switching of these vessels.

Answer 314

Septum primum and Septum secundum

Answer 315

C. Complete restoration of laminar blood flow (as Korotkoff sounds are associated with turbulent flow, caused by partial occlusion of an artery)

Answer 316

C. The bell captures low frequency sounds better, such as Korotkoff sounds

Answer 317

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL) - Runs along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies from the occiput to the sacrum. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL) - Runs along the posterior surface of the vertebral bodies inside the vertebral canal.

Answer 318

Ligamentum Flavum is more elastic than other ligaments and has yellow colouring. The Ligamentum Flavum is a segmental ligament that aids in elastic recoil of the spine and supports appropriate curvature

Answer 319

With age or chronic stress, the ligamentum flavum may thicken and lose elasticity. This can encroach upon the spinal canal, contributing to lumbar spinal stenosis and/or exacerbate a herniated disk (compression) The ligamentum flavum is also a surgical landmark which provides tactile feedback when inserting a needle (due to elasticity)

Answer 320

Located from the occiput to C7 vertebra. Helps to maintain the head in an upright position. Restricts excessive flexion of the neck to protect spinal structures. Serves as an attachment point for several muscles (Trapezius, Splenius capitis, Rhomboid minor)

Answer 321

Disability = physical, mental, sensory, or intellectual impairment that 'substantially limits' everyday activities. Long-Term Illness = chronic condition that requires ongoing management. May or may not limit daily activities.

Answer 322

Temporary increase in heart rate to accommodate pressure changes (often upon standing). Becomes less sensitive with age with poor baroreceptor sensitivity

Answer 323

Move along the fingers Thumb = ID & Consent Digit 2 = OCART Digit 3 = Lifestyle, Genes, Drugs Digit 4 = Psychosocial Digit 5 = ICE

Answer 324

Site Onset Character Radiation Associations Timing Exacerbation / Relief Severity

Answer 325

Temperature (37c) Pulse Rate (60-100 , regular) Blood Pressure (120/80) Respiratory Rate (12-20) Oxygen Saturation (>95%)

Answer 326

All = Atrial Prostitutes = Pulmonary Take = Tricuspid Money = Mitral

Answer 327

Onset (when exactly?) Character (what exactly?) Associations (anything else?) Radiation Timing (constant or intermittent?)

Answer 328

EF = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume) x 100

Answer 329

50-70% With each heartbeat, 50-70% of blood in your left ventricle gets pumped to your body

Answer 330

These are red flag symptoms for lung cancer. Specifically, the hoarse voice indicates recurrent laryngeal nerve compression, which is likely caused by a Pancoast tumour in the apex of the lung

Answer 331

Horner’s syndrome presents with a drooping eyelid (ptosis) and pupil constriction (miosis). This is often unilateral. Chest and neck tumours, as well as stroke, are likely causes.

Answer 332

GAMED IgG - God mode. This antibody increases in intensity every time the same disease is reintroduced. We play god by administering vaccines and boosters which manipulate this antibody. IgA - Asshole. This is the primary antibody found in mucus membranes. IgM - Me first. First line of antibodies that are produced to attack antigens. Unlike IgG, these do not increase in intensity. IgE - Ewwww. Allergies and parasites (lots of gunk) IgD - Don’t know. The least known antibody type. We do know that B cells use IgD as their receptors.

Answer 333

IgG - Monomer (Y-shaped) IgA - Dimer IgM - Pentamer IgE - Monomer (Y-shaped) IgD - Monomer (Y-shaped)

Answer 334

IgM (‘me first’. The first antibody to attack antigens)

Answer 335

IgA (A for ‘asshole’. This is the primary antibody found in mucus membranes)

Answer 336

IgG (75-80%) IgA (10-15%) IgM (5-10%) IgE (<1%) IgD (<1%) *Remember GAMED mnemonic

Answer 337

C. The spinal cord passes through the spinal canal. This is a narrow space posterior to the spinal body

Answer 338

The narrowing of the spinal canal (posterior to the spinal body). Spinal stenosis can compress the spinal cord, leading to complications.

Answer 339

The spinal body gives way to pedicles, which in turn form the transverse and spinal processes. The lamina is found close to the vertebral canal and this gives way to superior and inferior articular processes.

Answer 340

Lordosis: bent back Kyphosis: bent over Scoliosis: bent sideways

Answer 341

Sacral kyphosis Lumbar lordosis Thoracic kyphosis Cervical lordosis

Answer 342

Kyphosis. Specifically, excessive kyphosis of the thoracic vertebrae (which are normally kyphotic to a lesser degree)

Answer 343

Between the superior and inferior articulating processes of two corresponding vertebrae

Answer 344

Sacroiliac joint (notably the sacro-iliac ligament)

Answer 345

At the base of the pelvis. This ligament joins the left and right pelvic bones and helps to absorb shock from locomotion.

Answer 346

Slipped disk. This is where the cartilaginous disk between two vertebrae herniates (or prolapses) from its standard position. This can cause nerve compression.

Answer 347

Thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage. The hyoid is the most superior surface landmarks of the neck, found at the region where the neck meets the underside of the chin. Moderate Palpation is required.

Answer 348

A space within the chest that contains the heart, pericardium, great vessels, trachea, and essential nerves

Answer 349

Flexion-extension. This allows the ‘yes’ movement of nodding

Answer 350

C1-C2 location and mobility allow for around 50% of cervical rotation to occur at this site. This allows the ‘no’ movement. This pivot joint can be susceptible to trauma and/or degeneration, due to its mobility

GEM 1st Flashcards

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