gene manipulations in organisms Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

define transgenesis and how its delivered

A

controlled transfer of genetic information into the genome, with no reliance on selective breeding
often done by microinjection

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2
Q

what is meant by forward genetics

A

phenotype driven
random mutation, phenotype change observed, gene identification, and then interpret gene function

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3
Q

what is meant by reverse genetics

A

gene driven
gene identification, targeted mutation, phenotype change observed and then interpret gene function

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4
Q

what is meant by intermediate genetics

A

gene trapping
random TAG insertion, gene identified and phenotype change observed, then gene function is interpreted

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5
Q

why is a balancer chromosome often added in drosophila genetics?

A

it prevents crossover
contains identity markers
lethal recessive allele– thus no interference of natural selection

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6
Q

what is the hedgehog mutation?

A

Hh mutation
in flies, mutation causes failure of separation of the cerebral hemispheres

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7
Q

what is the one-eyed pinhead (Oep) mutation?

A

severe cyclopia in zebrafish, (one eye in the middle of the face)

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8
Q

what is the Weissherbst (weh) mutation

A

hypochromic blood (less hemoglobin/red in RBC) and decreased blood cells – often in zebrafish

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9
Q

what is the Hagoramo (hag) mutation

A

disrupted stripe pattern in zebrafish

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10
Q

what is meant by synteny

A

same genes but in different order in the chromosomes accross species

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11
Q

what are advantages of the mouse model (7)

A
  • small
  • reproductive efficiency (also non seasonal)
  • tolerant to inbreeding
  • small oestrus cycle ~ 4days
  • 19 pairs of autosomes and X and Y
  • all telocentric chromosomes
  • same gnome size as humans – synteny
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12
Q

what is ENU (N-ethyl N-nitrosourea)?

A

a supermutagen– high efficiency
transfer of ethyl group in DNA resulting in mispairing
induces single base pair substitutions

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13
Q

what is a congenic strain, and explain what happens in gene linkage and non-linkage

A

when an inbred strain contains a small genetic region from another strain
linked– cause retention of small part of the other gene
no linkage– rapid elimination of heterozygosity

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14
Q

what are two markers used to detect mutations in mice?

A
  • microsatellite markers
  • single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
    (often used to distinguish inbred mouse strains)
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15
Q

how is gene mapping or linkage analysis done?

A

1) homozygous mutant(marker added) X homozygous wildtype
2) back-crossing x10
–> the location of the mutation from the residual chromosome segment left will be the CANDIDATE REGION
4) the mutation can then be identified by PCR

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16
Q

Microinjection DNA is derived from what?

A
  • plasmid
  • bacterial artificial chromosome
  • yeast artificial chromosome
17
Q

in transgenesis where is the egg from?

A

superovulating female mated to a stud male

18
Q

in transgenesis where is the male pronucleus from?

A

male pronucleus from a fertilized egg

19
Q

when does implantation occur into pseudopregnant foster female in transgenesis?

A

after blastocyst formation

20
Q

what influences does transgenesis have? (4)

A
  • position effect– integrates at random location in ch
  • mutagenic– may disrupt endogenous genes
  • multicopy arrays– recombines to form concatemers before integration
  • integrity– sometimes partially degraded before integration
21
Q

what is meant by transfection of ES cells

A

select for genetic change and reintroduce cells into embryo

22
Q

what is meant by chimera

A

combining 2 pre-implantation embryos and producing a single animal (eg 2 colours in coat)

23
Q

what are the three layers of the blastocyst and what to they develop into?

A

epiblast– foetus (internal cells)
hypoblast– yolk sac (layer covering epiblast)
trophoblast– placenta (layer surrounding all)

24
Q

what is the biggest origin of Embryonic Stem cells and what kind of potency do they have?

A

Epiblast (develops into foetus) and is pluripotent– often derived 3 days after fertilization

25
what are feeder cells/fetal calf serum/ LIF
ES cells + non-dividing embryonic fibroblasts -- layer of cells unable to divide, which provides extracellular secretions to help another cell to proliferate
26
what is isogenic DNA
identical cells-- in transfection identical to ES cells
27
what type of cell increases targeting frequency in the transfection of ES cells
isogenic cells, it increases exponentially
28
outline the gene-targeting steps
1) transfect vector DNA-- growth 2) selection of drug resistant colonies 3) growth of clones 4) plated on wells and run either - southern gel blot - PCR
29
main differences between PCR and Southern Gel Blot
PCR - primer complementarity to selection markers - amplifies region - PCR product is from target exon to the next Southern Gel Blot - restriction sites need to be present in target locus - digests - Southern gel blot product includes both homology arms
30
name the three modern approaches to transgenesis
- zinc finger nucleases (ZFN) - transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN) - cluster regularly interspersed short palindromic repeat (CrisPR)/ cas9 system
31
how does CrisPR/Cas9 system work
1) cas9 endonuclease and guide RNA cleave DNA strands 2) gRNA contains the target site (20nt protospacer) and is upstream of the PAM site (NGG) 3) cas9 recognizes PAM and makes a ds break 3nt upstream from PAM then can introduce genetic info in different ways
32
what are the three different ways CrisPR/Cas9 system can introduce genetic info?
- NHEJ-- non specific - 2 gRNA target sites can be chosen-- deletes large genomic sequence - HDR (homology-directed recombination) use short oligos or DNA vectors with short homology arms that flank cleavage site-- more specific and precise
33
what is the more specific mutant of Cas 9 used to reduce off-target effects, how does it work?
mutant cas 9-- 'nickase'--cas9D10A - cleaves only 1 strand - uses two gRNA and 2 cas9D10A to generate overhand in both strands
34
what kind of deletion can you use to determine specific mutation in specific stage in development? what molecule is released?
Inducible mutation - cre-ERTZ + Tamoxifen added and moves into the nucleus causing recombination HsP9O often released from cre-ERTZ when this occurs
35
why are maternal and paternal pronucleus required for normal development?
due to IMPRINTING and monoallelic uniparental expression some genes are expressed/repressed depending on parental origin, often complementarily expressed
36
what are the two types of somatic cell nuclear transfer (cloning)
- reproductive cloning - therapeutic cloning (ES cells cloned from embryo generating cells types/tissues)
37
why is there such a low survival in cloning?
due to abnormal epigenetic regulation - only partial reprogramming occurs, DNA methylation, chromatic remodeling, and zygomatic gene activation are all not fully completed