General Flashcards
(35 cards)
What are the causes of AVN?
A - Alcohol S - Sickle cell anemia, steroids, SLE E - Erlenmeyer flask deformity = Gaucher P - Pancreatitis T - Trauma I - Infection, idiopathic C - Caisson disease
What is the differential for a permeative bone pattern?
L - Lymphoma, leukemia E - Ewing sarcoma, EG M - Multiple myeloma, Mets O - Osteomyelitis, osteosarcoma N - Neurobastoma
What are risk factors for RPOC?
- Placenta previa with previous C/S
2. Advanced maternal age
What is the differential for basilar invagination?
P - Pagets
F - Fibrous Dysplasia
R - Rhematoid, Rickets
O - Osteogenesis Imperfecta, Osteomalacia
A - Achondroplasia
C - Chiari I and II, Cleidocranial dysostosis
H - Hyperparathyroidism
Which lines are used to assess basilar invagination?
Chamberlain line - line drawn on lateral skull radiograph between the posterior end of the hard palate to the posterior lip of the foramen magnum. In about 50% of normal subjects the tip of the odontoid is at, or below, Chamberlain’s line. Positive if dens > 3 mm above line.
McGregor line - extends from the upper surface of the posterior edge of the hard palate to the most caudal point of the occipital curve. If the tip of the odontoid process is more than 4.5mm above McGregor’s line then basilar invagination is likely.
What is the differential for erosions of the lateral clavicle?
S - Scleroderma, Steroids H - Hyperparathyroidism I - Infection R - RA T - Trauma
What is a Petit hernia?
Petit hernia is a rare lumbar herniation through a defect in the inferior lumbar triangle.
What are the borders for a Grynfeltt-Lesshaft hernia?
The borders are the 12th rib superiorly, the internal oblique muscle anteriorly and the erector spine muscles posteriorly.
What are the different forms of giant colonic diverticula?
Three different foms: 1. Inflammatory diverticulum 2. Pseudodiverticulum 3. True diverticulum (Giant colonic diverticulum is by definition > 4cm).
Which organisms are implicated in emphysematous cholecystitis?
Clostridium welchii and Escherichia coli.
What is the post embolization syndrome?
The post embolisation syndrome is the one of the commonest side effects of transarterial embolisation / chemoembolisation. It comprises of a constellation of fever, nausea / vomiting and pain. Usually occurs within the first 72 hours post embolisation (liver lesion or uterine fibroids) and then starts to subside after 72 hours.
Early imaging following embolisation may reveal intra lesional gas eg. ultrasound or CT. This is not to be mistaken for abscess without additional factors.
What percentage of adult intususception cases have a lead point?
90% of adult intussusceptions involve a lead point mass, approximately two-thirds of which are neoplastic.
What is Kikuchi disease?
Focal histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitits. The nodes are multiple, small, uniform in size, and show variable enhancement.
What is the differential for Kikuchi disease?
Lymphoma
Metastases
TB
What is Carney’s triad?
gastric epithelioid leiomyosarcoma
pulmonary chondroma
extra-adrenal paraganglioma
What is the Anderson and Montesano classification?
Type I is an impaction-type fracture resulting in comminution of the occipital condyle. The injury mechanism is thought to be axial skull loading onto the atlas. While a unilateral fracture is a stable entity, bilateral fractures may be unstable. A type II OCF in this system involves a basilar skull fracture extending into one or both occipital condyles. The mechanism is usually a direct blow to the skull. A type III OCF involves medial fragment displacement into the foramen magnum. The injury mechanism is forced rotation, usually combined with lateral bending. After complete occipital condylar avulsion, the contralateral alar ligament and tectorial membrane may be stressed, resulting in a partial or complete tear. As a result, the type III OCF is potentially unstable
What are imaging features to suggest a benign lipoma?
Encapsulation
Pure fat attenuation on CT or signal on MRI
Lack of enhancement
No nodularity with only thin septae or blood vessels within the lesion.
If these criteria are not strictly met, consider the possibility of well-differentiated liposarcoma.
What is the most common mononeuropathy of the lower extremity?
Common peroneal nerve, usually at its course around the fibular head.
What pulmonary complication has celiac disease been associated with?
Idiopathic pulmonary hemorrhage. The combination is known as Lane-Hamilton syndrome.
What are the 4 types of pulmonary lymphoma?
primary lymphoma
recurrent or secondary lymphoma
posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorderAIDS-related lymphoma
What is the classification of diastematomyelia?
Pang classification:
Type I - each hemicord has a separate dural sac and meningeal coverings divided by a fibrous, cartilaginous, or osseous spur.
Type II - the split cord is invested within a single dural sac and no spur is apparent.
What it the most common location for diastematomyelia?
85% of cases between T9 and S1
What is CDIP?
Chronic Demyelinating Inflammatory Polyneuropathy
What is ADIP?
Acute Demyelinating Inflammatory Polyneuropathy.
Also called Guillian-Barré syndrome.
