General Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

What hormone therapies is breast cancer a contraindication for?

A

progesterone only contraception.

HRT

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2
Q

What can you use to assess someones alcohol dependance?

A

CAGE
Have you ever thought that you should cut down?

Do you get annoyed at people commenting on your drinking?

do you ever feel guilty about your drinking?

Eye opener - do you ever drink first thing in the morning?

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3
Q

Blood results in liver disease?

A

Raised ALT/AST
Raised gamma GT
ALP raised in late disease

Raised bilirubin in cirrhosis
Low albumin due to reduced function of liver.

Elevated PTT due to reduced liver function

Raised MCV on FBC suggests alcoholism

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4
Q

Signs of vernickes encephalopathy?

A

Confusion
Ataxia
Oculomotor dysfunction

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5
Q

Differentials for generalised abdominal pain?

A

Peritonitis
Ruptured AAA
Bowel obstruction
Ischaemic colitis

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6
Q

Differentials for generalised abdominal pain?

A

Peritonitis
Ruptured AAA
Bowel obstruction
Ischaemic colitis

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7
Q

Differentials for RUQ pain?

A

Biliary colic
Acute cholecystitis
Acute cholangitis

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8
Q

What is charcots triad and which condition is it associated with?

A

Acute cholangitis

RUQ pain
Fever
Jaundice

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9
Q

What should you think about in a septic patient with known liver disease (ascites)

A

SBP

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10
Q

What are the 3 main causes of bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions (peritonitis, surgery, infection)

Hernias

Malignancy

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11
Q

Management of bowel obstruction

A

Drip & Suck

  1. NBM
  2. IV fluids
  3. NG tube with free drainage
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12
Q

What should be considered with AF and abdo pain?

A

Mesenteric ischaemia

Clot in SMA - diagnosed by contrast CT

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13
Q

What makes you think gallstones?

A

Fat
Female
Forty
Fair

Worsened by fatty foods.

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14
Q

Imaging for gallstones?

A

Abdo USS
ERCP if needed (biliary)

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15
Q

What is Murphys sign and what does it suggest?

A

Palpation of right subcostal area whilst asking patient to take deep inspiration

Gallbladder lowers during inspiration and hits off hand causing pain in cholecystitis

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16
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Thalassemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia

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17
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A

B12 and folate deficiency

Normoblastic =
alcohol
liver disease
hypothyroid
azathioprine

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18
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Acute blood loss
anaemia of chronic disease
aplastic anaemia
haemolytic anaemia
hypothyroid

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19
Q

What are specific symptoms of iron deficiency?

A

Pica - cravings for specific foods

Hair loss

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20
Q

Investigations of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Bloods - FBC (haem & MCV)
B12, folate, ferritin
Blood film
Urgent OGD/colonoscopy

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21
Q

Management of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Premeopausal or pregnant woman - iron trial for 2-4weeks

Men and postmenopausal woman need GI causes of bleeding excluded

Check TTG for coeliac

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22
Q

What must you check if folate is low?

A

B12

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23
Q

Should b12 or folate be replaced first and why?

A

B12
risk of subacute combined degeneration of the cord

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24
Q

What is guillian barre?
What triggers it?

Concerns?

Management?

A

Symmetrical ascending peripheral nerve neuropathy

Usually triggered by infection (campylobacter/CMV/EBV)

Worried about ascending to diaphragm - respiratory weakness, Increases risk of VTE.

IVIG, plasma exchange, VTE prophylaxis

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25
Red flags for headaches?
New onset >55 years old Known/prev malignancy Early morning Exacerbated by valsalva disturbing sleep
26
Investigations and management of migraine?
If no red flags. Headache diary to identify potential triggers. pain relief - paracetsamol/ibuprofen Triptan to take at onset. Propanolol/topiramate/amitriptyline for prophylaxis
27
What long term drugs are expected after an ischaemic stroke?
Aspirin first 14 days then clopidogrel atorvastatin/rosuvastatin anticoagulant - DOAC/warfarin
28
What classification system is used for strokes?
Bamford
29
Scoring tools for stroke?
ROSIER FAST
30
Scoring tools for stroke?
ROSIER FAST
31
What common drugs should be stopped when pregnant?
Statin ACEi/ARB
32
What changes to normal antenatal care occur if diabetic?
Oral meds changed to insulin. HbA1c checked at booking. scan at 20 weeks for fatal anomaly. induction @ 37-38 weeks. Blood testing every 2-4 hours in the newborn Discharged after 24 hours if suitable blood glucose.
33
Cervical cancer info and risk factors
Associated with HPV - unprotected sex - numerous partners Women of childbearing age COCP >5 years
34
Cervical cancer presentation?
Intermenstrual/post coital/post menopausal bleeding Vaginal discharge Pelvic pain/dyspareunia
35
Investigation/management of cervical cancer?
Speculum (ulceration, inflammation, bleeding) Urgent colposcopy under cancer referra
36
how frequently should a smear be performed?
every 3 years (25-49) every 5 years (50-64)
37
What prompts colposcopy after smear results?
1. Inadequate sample (repeat) but if continued inadequate sample then colposcopy. 2. HPV +ve result with abnormal cytology
38
Management of simple ovarian cysts?
surgery to anyone symptomatic Asymptomatic: <5cm leave alone 5-7cm repeat scan in 12 months =>7cm surgery due to risk of torsion
39
When should ca125 be checked?
complex cyst (premenopausal) any cysts in post menopausal women unexplained bloating, satiety
40
Management of fibroids
<3cm & no cavity distortion 1. mirena 2. TXA/NSAIDs, COCP/POP 3. endometrial ablation/hysterectomy >3cm 1. TXA, mefanamic acid 2. mirena 3. uterine artery embolisation GnRH analogues given to reduce size before surgery
41
Risk factors for endometrial cancer?
Obesity T2DM Nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause Tamoxifen PCOS HNPCC
42
Protective factors for endometrial cancer?
COCP Smoking
43
Presentation of endometrial cancer?
Post menopausal bleeding altered intermenstrual bleeding rare - pain & discharge =>55 y/o refer via urgent cancer pathway
44
Investigations for endometrial cancer? Management?
TVUS (normal endometrial thickness <4mm) hysteroscopy & endometrial biopsy Total hysterectomy + bilateral sapling-oophrectomy + post op radio if high risk progestogen therapy if frail/unsuitable for surgery
45
Investigations for ectopic pregnancy?
TVUS (haemoperitoneum/free fluid) hCG measured 48 hours apart - increased >60% suggests intrauterine pregnancy but TVUS required 7-14 days later to locate pregnancy - Decrease >50% pregnancy unlikely to continue - decrease <50 or increase <60% = review @ EPAC within 24 hours
46
Management options for ectopic?
Expectant - stable tubal ectopic, no heartbeat Medical (methotrexate) - no sig pain, enraptured and <35mm, serum hug < 5000 - side effects include PV bleeding, abdominal pain/cramping, N&V Surgical (salpingectomy) - Pain - >35mm - ectopic with visible heartbeat - serum hcg >5000 - antiD required if rhesus neg
47
Management of chlamydia?
Doxy 100mg bd for 7 days abstain from sex contact tracing
48
Gonorrrhoea management?
1g IM ceftriaxone test of cure
49
Symptoms of endometriosis
cyclical pain Dyspareunia Bleeding (heavy menstruation) Non cyclical pain from adhesions infertility
50
Management of endometriosis?
analgesia COCP, POP, depo, mirena - stop ovulation and reduce endometrial thickening GnRH agonist (goserelin) Surgery
51
Treatment of syphilis?
IM Benzylpenicillin Contact tracing
52
Presentation of molar pregnancy ?
Severe hyperemesis Hypertension ++ hCG Variation in bleeding - grape like tissue - dark brown/red Thyrotoxicosis abdominal pain/swelling
53
Diagnosis of molar pregnancy?
USS - bubble - snowstorm Serum hCG
54
Management of molar pregnancy?
Surgical evacuation with histology performed on tissues. urine & serum hCG 4 weeks post evacuation - contraception must be used whilst undergoing follow up
55
Management options for miscarriage?
Expectant vaginal misoprostol - bleeding should occur within 24 hours - neg pregnancy test after 3 weeks - pain relief and antiemetic surgical - MVA - EVA
56
Indications and contraindications for COCP?
Indications - menorrhagia/endo - reduces risk of ovarian, endometrial and colorectal cancer - works immediately if day1-5 of cycle (otherwise 7 days) - can help acne Contraindications - Migraine with aura - VTE history - <6 weeks post partum - >35 and smoking >15/day - hypertension - AF - Age =>50 Cons - human error - increased cervical and breastr cancer risk - hormonal side effects - irregular bleeding Cautions age => 40 obesity
57
How does transdermal patch work?
oestrogen and progesterone pros and cons similar to COCP changed every 7 days, 7 day patch free period allows a bleed. if falls of less than 48 hours then no need for emergency contraception
58
Pros and cons of levonorgestrel IUS ?
Pros - Safe when breast-feeding - fertility returns to normal after immediate cessation - dont need to remember to take a pill - fewer side effects as hormones act locally on endometrium not systemically - generally 5 years (3 for some types - jaydess) - mirena useful for menorrhagia approx 50% amenorrheoic Cons - Needs to be inserted within first 7 days of cycle - 7 days to become effective - small risk that device will move - increased risk of ectopic
59
Pros and cons of Copper IUD
Pros - fitted at any point in cycle - reliable immediately after insertion - can be fitted immediately after childbirth or 4 weeks later - effective up to 10 years -suitable for emergency contraception Cons - pain - perforation of uterine wall - variable bleeding especially in first 3- months - risk of ectopic/PID
60
Emergency contraceptive options?
1. Copper IUD - most effective - <= 5 days UPSI - can be left in as LARC - if not acting as LARC it must be kept in until next MP 2. Levonorgestrel - <72 hours after UPSI - Can immediately start hormonal contraception 3. Ullipristal (EllaOne) - <120 hours post UPSI - can reduce effectiveness of hormonal contraception (start 5 days later or use barrier methods) - use with caution in asthma - cannot breastfeed until 7 days after
61
Indications for digital examination (vagina)?
Coil insertion Bleeding
62
Symptoms to screen for preeclampsia?
Headaches Visual disturbance Swelling of hands, feet, face Vomiting
63
Investigations for pre-eclampsia ?
BP Urinalysis - proteinuria protein/albumin:creatinine ration Bloods - FBC U&E, LFT, coag, crossmatch & resus if unstable? Examination - Reflexes (brisk) - if clonus present then CCU/HDU -listent ot chest for pulmonary oedema
64
Management of hypertension/pre-eclampsis?
1. Labetalol 2. Nifedipine (1st line in asthma) 3. Methyldopa If mild/mod pre-eclampsia = delivery within 48 hours Severe pre-eclampsia = IV mgSulph and immediate delivery
65
Approach to a presentation of hyperemesis?
Differentials - Hyperemesis gravidarum - Molar pregnancy - pre-eclampsia Focused history investigations - BP, urinalysis, ophthalmoscopy - examine - check reflexes listen to chest - ECG & bloods to assess electrolytes management - likely admission for rehydration and investigation - tolerating oral fluids/meds - managing foods? - worried about pre-eclampsia or HG - oral anti-emetics not helping (suggests HG)
66
Drug treatment for hyperemesis?
1. cyclizine/prochlorperazine 2. metoclopramide/ondansetron
67
Symptoms of ovarian cancer?
BEAT Bloating Early satiety Abdo pain Tell GP
68
Investigations for diagnosis of ovarian CA?
Ca125 >35 Pelvic USS (mass) Calculate RMI >200 refer to gynae under cancer pway
69
Which gynaecological malignancy has worst prognosis?
Ovarian - 5 year survival 42% - 1 year survival 71%
70
What are you going to ask for any paediatric history taking stations?
PC HPC - neck stiffness - N&V - rashes/bruising - fever
71
What are reassuring aspects of febrile convulsions?
Occur only once short duration generalised seizure involving whole body these simple seizures are generally response to fever from viral infection and often do not warrant any further investigation Tell parents: febrile convulsions do not affect developmental delay They are relatively common The increased risk of epilepsy following febrile convulsions is very small (2%) compared with 0.5-1% if no febrile convulsions Discuss importance of recovery position and phoning an ambulance if the parent wants to know how to manage the seizures
72
What is a differential for AF?
Ventricular ectopic
73
What investigations would you do for new AF presentation?
ECG Look for cause - bloods,cultures, TFTs If ECG normal but paroxysmal AF suspected then 24 hour ambulatory monitor echo if valvular disease suspected/heart failure or cardioversion
74
When is delayed cardio version performed for AF management?
Presenting >48 hours after onset but stable. 3 weeks of anticoagulation before cardioversion
75
When is immediate cardioversion indicated for AF and what options are there?
Presentation <48 hours or unstable Electrical cardioversion Pharmacological - flecanide or amiodarone
76
When is amiodarone preferred for pharmacological cardioversion in AF? when should flecanide be avoided?
Structural heart disease Atrial flutter
77
Rate control in AF
One of: b-blocker (bisoprolo, atenolol) Ca channel blocker (verapamil/diltiazem) - avoided in heart failure Digoxin
78
When is rhythm control indicated for AF?
reversible cause new onset <48 hours no response to rate control heart failure due to the AF rhythm control is cardioversion or long term therapy with: 1. b-blocker 2. Droneradone (after successful cardioversion) 3. Amiodarone (HF/LV dysfunction)
79
Other than rate/rhythm control what other medication is required for AF?
Anticoagulation 1. DOAC 2. Warfarin if doac unsuitable
80
What scoring tools are used in AF?
CHADsVASC ORBIT
81
Management of NSTEMI
Beta blocker Aspirin Ticagrelor/clopidogrel Morphine Anticoagulant (fondaparinux) Nitrate (GTN)
82
What are complications of an MI?
Death Rupture of papillary musvles Oedema Arrhythmia/aneurysm Dressslers
83
Management of STEMI?
PCI within 2 hours Thrombolysis is 2 hour window passed but still within 12 medical - aspirin & ticagrelor
84
Medications for secondary management post MI?
Aspirin Antiplatelet (clopidogrel) Atorvastatin ACEi Atenolol aldosterone antagonist (eplerenone) if reduced LVEF
85
Management of pericarditis?
ECG Bloods - FBC, U&E, LFTs - Troponin - CRP -TFTs Blood cultures Treatment = NSAID (& Abx if bacterial)
86
investigation for suspected stable angina?
CT coronary angiogram
87
Medical management of stable angina?
GTN for acute attack B-blocker (5mg bisoprolol) or CCB (5mg amlodopine)
88
Management of unstable angina?
300mg aspirin Fondaparinux Calculate grace score if high risk then immediate angio and consideration for PCI low risk (clopidogrel & aspirin)
89
How would you investigate and manage a new hypertension diagnosis?
Investigations BP - home readings/ambulatory ECG Bloods - HbA1c, U&E, cholesterol ophthalmoscopy - signs of hypertensive retinopathy ?urine dip for protein calculate risk if greater than 10% give statin meds annual review
90
Important symptoms to screen for HF?
Orthopnoea PND SOB Oedema
91
Management of HF?
ACEi (10mg ramipril) B-blocker (10mg bisoprolol) 40mg Furosemide (helps with symptoms) Spiron (aldosterone antagonist) if reduced LVEF or not controlled by A&B
92
Investigations for HF
NT-pro BNP Echo & ECG
93
How does acute LVF differ from HF?
Blood cannot move into aorta from LV so get backlog from LV to lungs causing: Acute breathlessness (worse on lying) May have S3 and basal crackles (pulmonary oedema) Cardiomegaly T1 rest failure Management: Stop IV fluids Sit up Oxygen Diuretics (40mg IV furosemide) Inotropes in HDU
94
What scoring system is used to decide if PE likely?
Wells
95
How should a patient be managed with a Wells score suggestive of PE?
CTPA
96
How should a patient be managed if a Wells score suggests PE is unlikely but clinically you still suspect?
D-dimer Consider CTPA
97
What will an ABG show for an acute PE?
Resp alkalosis
98
Management of PE - Regular - Massive How long does treatment continue?
Anticoagulation - apixaban/rivaroxiban/LMWH (LMWH in pregnancy or malignancy) Thrombolysis 3months if obvious reversible cause 6 months if no clear cause/recurrent/malignancy
99
UMN signs
Hypertonicity Hyperreflexia Spastic gain Extensor plantar reflex
100
LMN signs
Muscle wasting Weakness Fasciculations Absent or reduced reflexes
101
When should motor neurone disease be considered?
Motor symptoms absence of sensory. symptoms
102
Acute MS flare
steroids - methylpred IV