Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

(108 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Define these suffixes
-otomy
-oscopy
-ectomy
-plasty
-pexy
-centesis
-ostomy
-itis
-algia
-gram

A

-otomy: surgically cutting open
-oscopy: viewing with a scope in keyhole surgery
-ectomy: refers to removal
-plasty: changing in shape
-pexy: fixing something in place
-centesis: puncturing with a needle
-ostomy: creating a new opening
-itis: inflammation
-algia: pain
-gram: recording or imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fistula definition

A

abnormal connection between two epithelial surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hemicolectomy

A

removing a portion of the large bowel (colon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hartmann’s procedure

A

(proctosigmoidectomy)
removal of the rectosigmoid colon with closure of the anorectal stump and formation of a colostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anterior resection

A

removal of the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Whipple procedure

A

pancreaticoduodenectomy

removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, gallbladder and bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a kocher incision

A

from an open cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a chevron/ rooftop incision from

A

liver transplant
Whipple procedure
pancreatic surgery or upper GI surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mercedes Benz incision from

A

liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Midline incision for

A

general laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Paramedian incision for

A

laparotomy (midline usually instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hockey-stick incision

A

renal transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Battle incision (paramedic)

A

open appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mcburney incision

A

open appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lanz incision (transverse)

A

open appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rutherford Morrison incision (extended version of gridiron)

A

open appendectomy and colectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Laparascopic surgery and port sites

A

several 5-10mm incisions to allow the cameras and instruments to be inserted into the abdomen via port sites. A site just above or below the umbilicus is usually used as a port site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is diathermy

A

high frequency electrical current to cut through tissues or to cauterise blood vessels to stop bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Monopolar diathermy

A

can be used in small or large operations

A diathermy probe is used by a surgeon and produces an electrical signal. A grounding plate or grounding pad is placed under the leg or buttock. A circuit is formed in the patient’s body, where the electricity goes in through the diathermy instrument and out through the grounding plate. At the site where the electrical energy is applied, it causes localised burning and tissue damage. As the electrical signal spreads through the body to the grounding plate, it becomes less intense and does not cause damage to other tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bipolar diathermy

A

involves an instrument with two electrodes
current passes between electrodes affecting tissues in this area
often used in microsurgery (like operations of the hand)

helpful to prevent the electrical signals from passing through the rest of the body, for example in patients with a pacemaker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Absorbable sutures

A

slowly absorbed and disappear over time
Examples: Vicryl and Monocryl

used for tissues that will heal well and remain sealed after suture had been absorbed
such as abdominal cavity and closing tissues beneath the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Non absorbable sutures

A

remain in place for a long time and provide support to the tissues
example: silk, nylon and polypropylene

How they might be used:
closing skin by interrupted, or mattress suture technique, removed later once skin has healed

fixing drains in place, removed later with the drain
connective tissues that heal slowly such as repairing tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5 ways to close the skin

A

staples (rapid way to close skin and need removing later)

interrupted sutures (series of individual knots)

Mattress sutures (series of individual sutures that each go from one side of the wound, under and out the other side, then back under again to the other side)

Continuous sutures (single suture that goes in and out the wound along a spiral shape)

subcuticular sutures (single absorbable suture side to side just below skin to pull skin together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chest drains

A

method of removing air and fluid from the pleural space. The external end of the drain is placed underwater, creating a seal to prevent air from flowing back through the drain into the chest. Air can exit the chest cavity and bubble through the water, but the water prevents air from re-entering the drain and chest. During normal respiration the water in the drain will rise and fall due to changes in pressure in the chest (described as “swinging”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Define guarding
involuntary tensing of the abdominal muscles when palpated
26
Define rebound tenderness
rapidly releasing pressure on abdomen creates worse pain than the pressure itself
27
what is generalised peritonitis caused by
by perforation of an abdominal organ releasing the contents into the peritoneal cavity and causing generalised inflammation of the peritoneum
28
What does serum lactate identify
indication of tissue ischaemia product of anaerobic respiration and can also be raised in dehydration or hypoxia
29
Glasgow score
The criteria for the Glasgow score can be remembered using the PANCREAS mnemonic P – Pa02 < 8 KPa A – Age > 55 N – Neutrophils (WBC > 15) C – Calcium < 2 R – uRea >16 E – Enzymes (LDH > 600 or AST/ALT >200) A – Albumin < 32 S – Sugar (Glucose >10)
30
classification of haemorrhoids
1st degree: no prolapse 2nd degree: prolapse when straining and return on relaxing 3rd degree: prolapse when straining, do not return on relaxing, but can be pushed back 4th degree: prolapsed permanently
31
charcots triad
for acute cholangitis Right upper quadrant pain Fever Jaundice (raised bilirubin)
32
what increases iron absorption
gastric acid and vitamin c
33
Transport of iron
carried in plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin
34
How is iron stored
as ferritin in tissures
35
How is iron excreted
lost via intestinal tract following desquamation
36
What is iron absorption decreased by
PPi tetracycline gastric achlorhydria tannin (found in tea)
37
Where is iron absorbed
upper small intestine especially the duodenum
38
What organism causes toxic shock syndrome
staphylococcal aureus
39
Adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis in an adult
500 micrograms (o.5ml 1 in 1,000) IM
40
Scarlet fever
reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (usually streptococcus pyogenes) peak incidence of 4yrs old spread via respiratory route by inhaling or ingesting droplets etc.
41
What does scarlet fever present with
fever: lasts 24-48hrs malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting sore throat strawberry tongue rash: fine punctate erythema (pinhead) which generally appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles, often described as having a rough sandpaper texture, dequamation occurs later in course of illness usually in fingers/toes
42
Diagnosis for scarlet fever
throat swab is normally taken
43
Management for scarlet fever
oral penicillin V for 10 days penicillin allergy = azithromycin it is a notifiable disease
44
Complications of scarlet fever
Otitis media -> most common rheumatic fever: occurs 20 days post infection acute glomerulonephritis : 10 days after infection
45
Vitamin C deficiency
known as scurvy -> leads to defective synthesis of collagen resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing features: gingivitis poor wound healing bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis general malasie
46
Vitamin K deficiency
increases risk of bleeding features: easy bruising heavy menstrual periods excessive bleeding from wounds
47
How does PCR work
used to amplify desired fragments of DNS it denatures the double helix through heating primer hybridization and finally polymerase enzymes elongate the chain to enable analysis
48
ABL oncogene category and associated cancer
cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase chronic myeloid leukaemia
49
c-MYC oncogene category and associated cancer
trnasciption factor Burkitt's lymphoma
50
n-MYC oncogene category and associated cancer
transcription factor neuroblastoma
51
BCL-2 oncogene category and associated cancer
apoptosis regulator protein follicular lymphoma
52
RET oncogene category and associated cancer
tyrosine kinase receptor multiple endocrine neoplasia (types II and III)
53
RAS oncogene category and associated cancer
G-protein many cancers including pancreatic
54
erb-B2 (HER2/neu) oncogene category and associated cancer
tyrosine kinase receptor breast and ovarian cancer
55
Vitamin K clotting factors
II, VII, IX, X prothrombin
56
Helper T cells
involved in cell-mediated immune response recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
57
what does Helper t cells express
CD4 CD3, TCR and CD28
58
What are helper t cells a major source of
IL-2
59
Cytotoxic t cells
involved in the cell mediated immune response recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
60
What do cytotoxic t cells express
CD8 CD3 and TCR
61
B cells
major cell of humoral immune response acts as an APC mediates hyperacute organ rejection
62
Plasma cells
differentiated from b cells produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
63
What does IgG do
enhance phagocytosis of bacteria nad viruses fixes complement and passes to fetal circulation most abundant isotype in blood serum
64
What does IgA do
predominant immunoglobulin found in breast milk - also found in secretions of digestive, respiratory and urogenital tracts provides localised protection on mucous membranes most commonly produced immunoglobulin in body transported across interior of cell via transcytosis
65
What does IgM do
first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection fixes complement but does not pass to fetal circulation anti-A, B blood antiboduies pentamer when secreted
66
IgD
role in immune system unkown involved in activation of B cells
67
IgE
mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions synthesised by plasma cells binds to fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils provides immunity to parasites such as helminths least abundant isotype in blood seurm
68
Hawthorn effect
describes a group changing its behaviour due to the knowledge that it is being studied
69
Ketamine
NMDA receptor antagonist may be used for induction of anaesthesia has moderate to strong analgesic properties produces little myocardial depression making it suitable agent for anaestheisa in those who are haemodynamically unstable can produce nightmares
70
What part of the brain is required for converting short term memory into long term memory?
Hippocampus
71
mechanism of action of doxycycline
Tetracyclines - inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of ribosomes
72
what is anaphylaxis
immediate type 1 hypersensitivity reaction characterised by widespread IgE-mediated histamine release from mast cells and basophils.
73
mechanism and example of type 1 hypersensitivity
Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells anaphylaxis atopy
74
Mechanism and example of type 2 hypersensitivity
IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface * Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia * ITP * Goodpasture's syndrome * Pernicious anaemia * Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions * Rheumatic fever * Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
75
Mechanism and example of type 3 hypersensitivity
immune complex Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine Serum sickness * Systemic lupus erythematosus * Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis * Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
76
Mechanism and example of type 4 hypersensitivity
T cell mediated * Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction * Graft versus host disease * Allergic contact dermatitis * Scabies * Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase) * Multiple sclerosis * Guillain-Barre syndrome
77
Mechanism and example of type 5 hypersensitivity
Antibodies that recognise and bind to the cell surface receptors. This either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding graves disease myasthenia gravis
78
Mechanism of action of macrolides
Macrolides - inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes
79
What is amiloride and what does it do
blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule weak diuretic, usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)
80
Indications for aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone
ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used heart failure nephrotic syndrome Conn's syndrome
81
where are T cells developed
thymus
82
consequences of vitamin B12 deficiency
macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia peripheral neuropathy
83
Where does dormant tuberculosis most frequently reactivate?
apex of lung
84
what is co-trimoxazole a combination of
sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
85
where is dopamine made
substantia nigra pars compacta
86
genetic inheritance of mitochondrial disease
none of the children of an affected male will inherit all children of affected female will inherit
87
Histology of mitochondrial disease
muscle biopsy classically shows 'red, ragged fibres' due to increased number of mitochondria
88
first immunoglobulin secreted in response to an infection
IgM
89
weird side effect of rifampicin
Rifampicin is know for causing a red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids including urine, tears, and sweat.
90
adrenaline Actions on α adrenergic receptors:
inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle stimulates glycolysis in muscle
91
adrenaline Actions onβ adrenergic receptors:
stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas stimulates ACTH stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
92
where does levothyroxine bind
acts via nuclear receptors
93
allopurinol mechanism of action
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase
94
What does lidocaine act on
ion channels
95
Falciparum malaria
the commonest, and most severe, type of malaria.
96
Features of falciparum malaria
schizonts on a blood film parasitaemia > 2% hypoglycaemia acidosis temperature > 39 °C severe anaemia
97
Complications of falciparum malaria
cerebral malaria: seizures, coma acute renal failure: blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular haemolysis, mechanism unknown acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) hypoglycaemia disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
98
first line management for cellulitis
Flucloxacillin
99
What is penetrance
describes the proportion of a population of individuals who carry a disease-causing allele who express the related disease phenotype
100
Allograft
transplant of tissue from genetically non identical donor from the same species
101
Isograft
graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical
102
Autograft
Transplantation or organs or tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual
103
Xenograft
tissue transplanted from another species
104
What should be considered in patients with portal hypertension and lower Gi bleeding
rectal varices
105
Neurogenic shock
Occurs most often following a spinal cord transection usually at a high level Result is either decreased sympathetic tone or increased parasympathetic tone Results in decreased preload and thus decreased caridac output decreased peripheral tissue perfusion in contrast with other types of shock peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to return vascular tone to normal
106
Dumping syndrome
occurs post gastrectomy occurs as a result of a hyperosmolar load rapidly entering proximal jejunum osmosis drags water into the lumen this results in lumen distention and then diarrhoea excessive insulin release also occurs and results in hypoglycaemic symptoms
107
Boas' sign
in acute cholecystitis there is hyperaestheisa beneath the right scapula
108
Boehaaves syndrome
spotaneous rupture of oesophagus caused by repeated episodes of vomiting often in association with alcohol Typically episode of reptitive vomiting followed by severe chest and epigastric pain

Year 3 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions