General Flashcards

Question

Constn authorizes prez to appoint other place or places as seat of sc

Answer 1

President after consultation with CJI

Answer 2

But can plead in SC or any other hc

Answer 3

All 3 are true

Answer 4

It may be noted that the Governor while declaring that he withholds assent will have to disclose the reason for such refusal. If the grounds for refusal disclose mala fide or extraneous considerations or ultra vires, the Governor’s action of refusal could be struck down as unconstitutional. This point has been settled by a Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in Rameshwar Prasad and Ors. vs Union Of India and Anr.

Answer 5

In PUCL vs Union of India, the Court said: “… free and fair election is a basic structure of the Constitution and necessarily includes within its ambit the right of an elector to cast his vote without fear of reprisal, duress or coercion. Section 79 D of the Representation of People Act, 1951 defines “electoral right” to mean the right of a person to… vote or refrain from vote at an election”. The same provision exists in the Indian Penal Code, vide Section 171A (b). The law completely enables, but does not force, citizens to vote. Section135B of the Representation of People Act, 1951, grants a paid holiday to every person employed in any business, trade, industrial undertaking or any other establishment.

Answer 6

Section 3(2)(c) of the Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the Centre the right to deport a foreign national. The power to identify and deport foreign nationals who are in India illegally has been delegated to the states, Union Territories and the Home Ministry’s Bureau of Immigration

Answer 7

For UT it is ministry of home affairs

Answer 8

False Only parl can extend the jurisdiction of upsc

Answer 9

True But such regulations should be laid before both house of parl for atleast 14 days. The parl can amend or repeal them

Answer 10

2 is wrong The model code of conduct issued by the ECI is a set of guidelines meant for political parties, candidates and governments to adhere to during an election. * The code has been issued in exercise of its powers under Article 324. * Since it is a code of conduct framed on the basis of a consensus among political parties, it has not been given any legal backing. * Although a committee of Parliament recommended that the code should be made a part of the Representation of the People Act 1951, the ECI did not agree to it on the ground that once it becomes a part of law, all matters connected with the enforcement of the code will be taken to court, which would delay elections

Answer 11

Positive liberty is the ability to act on one's free will, as opposed to negative liberty, which is freedom from external restraint on one's actions.

Answer 12

Article 312. (2) of the Indian Constitution, which includes All India Services. Hence, the Services known at the commencement of this Constitution as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service shall be deemed services created by Parliament under this article. So, statement 1 is correct. Article 309 of the Constitution, the Centre and states are empowered to erect and maintain services for running their administration. Both the Centre and the states exercise full control over their services independently. Article 312 states that Unlike a central service or state service, an All-India Service is compositely administered under Article 312. While the Centre determines recruitment and allotment to a cadre, the states determine the work and posting. So, statement 2 is not correct. All India Services officers held all posts under the control of the Central Government, which includes posts under an association or body of individuals, which is controlled by the Central Government for all posts under Rule 6(2)(ii) of the IAS/IPS/IFS (Cadre) Rules. Hence, it does not seek tripartite consent.

Answer 13

Both 1 and 2 Expenditure incurred on electioneering by the star campaigner is not added to a candidate’s poll expenditure giving him/her more scope for expenditure. However, for an individual candidate to get relief from campaign expenditure, the star campaigner has to limit oneself to general campaigning for the party. According to the Representation of People’s Act, these expenses will be borne by the political parties. The MCC guidelines say when a prime minister or a former prime minister is star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including on the bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate. However, if another campaigner travels with the prime minister, the individual candidate will have to bear 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements.

Answer 14

One half of the total members of the council

Answer 15

False 358- only in case of external emergency 359- both external and internal

Answer 16

TRUE Article 29 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948, states Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible

Answer 17

(b) Article 18 the hereditary titles of nobility like Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai Bahadur, Rai Saheb, Dewan Bahadur, etc., which were conferred by colonial States, are banned by Article 18 as these are against the principle of equal status of all. Thus, it helped to end the feudal mode of society,

Answer 18

Under the original Constitution, the President had the power to suspend any fundamental right, including personal liberty (Article 21). In order to uphold citizens' liberty, Parliament enacted the 44th constitutional amendment act of 1978, in which the President cannot suspend personal liberty (which includes the right to file writ petitions like Habeas corpus if any other personal liberty is curtailed) even during a National Emergency. So, statement 2 is correct

Answer 19

(b) Article 19 The recent judgment of the Supreme Court held that the right to establish educational institutions is a fundamental right under article 19(1)(g) with some reasonable restrictions that the State can impose only by law and not executive instruction. As per article 19(1)(g), all citizens have the right to practice any profession, including establishing educational institutions like schools, colleges, etc.

Answer 20

Under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution- Every citizen has to attain the age of 18 to exercise this particular right. Full voting rights were guaranteed to the citizens of India under the concept of 'Universal Suffrage," So it is a constitutional right. At the same time right to vote is a legal right under section 62 of the Representation of People's Act (R.P.A.) 1951 with some exemptions (i.e., the prisoner cannot vote). So, the right to vote is not absolute. Thus, the right to vote is a non-absolute constitutional right. So, Statement 1 is not correct

Answer 21

In India, the right to protest is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution of India. But the right to strike is not a fundamental right but a legal one under the Industrial Dispute Act of 1947

Answer 22

In 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting individuals' rights; the prohibition and certiorari are not available against legislative bodies and private individuals The writ Quo Warranto means 'by which authority or by what warrant.' It is issued by the Court to enquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office. Hence, it prevents the illegal hold of public office by a person. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person The writ prohibition means 'to forbid.' It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the occurrence from exceeding its jurisdiction that it does not possess. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies

Answer 23

Constitution is silent

Answer 24

two cases: When the bill passed by the Parliament is a Private Member Bill When the cabinet resigns before President could give his assent to the bill. The new cabinet may advise the President to not give his assent to the bill passed by the old cabinet. Note: In India, the President has exercised his absolute veto before. In 1954, it was exercised by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a President and later in 1991, it was used by the then President R Venkataraman

Answer 25

False First appoint and prove within a month

Answer 26

Until now, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, have not been members of the Zonal Councils. However, they are presently special invitees to the Southern Zonal Council.

Answer 27

false the supreme court has the power to decide only the ground of declaration is relevant or not and it cannot declare the emergency void.

Answer 28

the Indian Easements Act of 1882. Under the Easements Act, the rights of a riparian, i.e., a person who owns the land adjoining a river or a water stream, is recognized by this right. A riparian owner is bestowed with the right to use a water stream that flows past his land equally with other riparian owners. So

Answer 29

Article 269 (F) states the Taxes Levied, Collected and Retained by the States: These are the taxes belonging to the states exclusively. They are enumerated in the state list and are 18 in number; taxes on the sale of petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit (commonly known as petrol), natural gas, aviation turbine fuel, and alcoholic liquor for human consumption, So statement 3 is not correct

Answer 30

The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

Answer 31

The Constitution of India does not provide for the Chief Justice of India to act as President. ➢ The President (Discharge Of Functions) Act, 1969 provided that In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both the President and the Vice-President, by reason in each case of death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available shall discharge the function

Answer 32

A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President's assent. All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name. He can make rules specifying how the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated. So, statement 1 is correct The power of adjournment, as well as adjournment sine die, lies with the presiding officer of the House, not by the President. The President is integral to the Parliament of India and enjoys some legislative powers.

Answer 33

Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall into the category of a government servant. Hence, he is not debarred from private legal practice. S

Answer 34

Attorney General can be reappointed or is eligible for any other government appointment after ceasing to hold office. Recently K.K. Venugopal has been reappointed as the Attorney General (A-G), the country's top law officer

Answer 35

Chief Secretary

Answer 36

The 69th constitutional amendment Act made special provisions with respect to Delhi. Added article 239AA, which says, "There shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten percent, of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor." Hence 69th constitutional amendment made this provision and not the 91st amendment act

Answer 37

Article 342A(1) empowers the President to specify the socially and educationally backward classes which shall, for the purposes of this Constitution, be deemed socially and educationally backward classes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. So, Statement 1 is correct. Article 342A specifies that the List of SEBCs notified by the President shall be only for the purposes of the Central Government alone and that the 'Central List' means only the list "prepared and maintained by and for the Central Government." So, Statement 2 is correct. The 105th Constitution Amendment aimed at restoring to the States their power to identify socially and educationally backward classes. Article 342A which clarify that state governments have the power to identify OBCs or socially and educationally backward classes to be included on the respective state lists only. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Answer 38

false The electoral college system for electing the President of India consists of all the elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha MPs) and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (MLAs).

Answer 39

The recent verdict of the Delhi high court found that the attorney general's office would not be a public authority and does not fall within the Right to Information Act (RTI). The role of the AGI is not limited to merely acting as a lawyer for the Government of India. The AGI is a constitutional functionary and is obliged to discharge the functions under the Constitution and any other law

Answer 40

Recently, The Election commission of India has clarified that political parties cannot issue any whip to their MPs and MLAs in the matter of voting in the Presidential election. And also clarified Anti-defection law does not apply to presidential polls. So, Statement 1 is correct. The election commission clarified that it would allow electors of the presidential election under preventive detention to cast their vote in the presidential election through postal ballot. Thus, An elector (MP or MLA) under preventive detention can cast his vote through a postal ballot, which will be sent to him by the Election Commission at the place of his detention.

Answer 41

However, in the past, President’s Rule has been extended for significantly longer periods under specific circumstances. For instance, Punjab was under President’s Rule from 1987-1992 due to the growing militancy.

Answer 42

the Government of India Act, 1935.

Answer 43

Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the year 1999

Answer 44

In January 2020, the Supreme Court made it clear that the verdicts of the Armed Forces Tribunals (AFT) can be challenged before the high courts. In march 2022, Delhi High Court held that the Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007 excludes the administrative supervision of the High Court under Article 227(4) of the Constitution but "not judicial superintendence" and "certainly not" jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution. It clarified that the Supreme Court had reinstated the right to challenge verdicts of AFTs in the High Courts

Answer 45

In January 2020, the Supreme Court made it clear that the verdicts of the Armed Forces Tribunals (AFT) can be challenged before the high courts. In march 2022, Delhi High Court held that the Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007 excludes the administrative supervision of the High Court under Article 227(4) of the Constitution but "not judicial superintendence" and "certainly not" jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution. It clarified that the Supreme Court had reinstated the right to challenge verdicts of AFTs in the High Courts

Answer 46

1 and 3 According to the Government of India order dated 15.6.1999, only those proposals recommended and justified by the concerned State Government / UT Administration can be processed further. After that, it has to be concurred with by the Registrar General of India (RGI) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) for consideration for amendment of legislation. So, Statement 1 is correct. No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe with the State of Haryana and Punjab and the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry.

Answer 47

Noconfidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (or state assembly, as the case may be). It is not allowed in Rajya Sabha (or state legislative council). So, Statement 1 is not correct

Answer 48

1,2,4 and 5

Answer 49

1,2,4 and 5

Answer 50

If sponsored by a Private Member, the Bill must be examined in the first instance and recommended for introduction by the Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions before it is included in the List of businesses. Motions for the introduction of the Bills are decided by a simple majority

Answer 51

Like zero hours, it is also an "Indian innovation" in the parliamentary procedure and has existed since 1954. However, unlike the zero hours, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. It's applicable under all houses where democratically elected candidates meet throughout India (Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha of respective states). Each member gets 2 chances during a single session for a Calling Attention Motion. Hence, The House will not vote on the Calling Attention motion. So, statement 2 is correct. Calling Attention Motion is a parliamentary protocol for an immediate discussion in the purview of public interests. Only those matters, primarily the Union Government's concern, can be raised through a calling attention notice. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 52

➢ Resolutions that have statutory effect: The notice of a Statutory resolution is given in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament. Such a resolution, if adopted, is binding on the Government and has the force of law. Not All resolution has the force of law. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 53

Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates the Election Commission to fill the casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures through bye-elections within six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy, provided that the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a vacancy is one year or more. And the newly elected member will serve only for the remaining term of the vacancy caused. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 54

False President

Answer 55

of Bardoloi Committee formed by the Constituent Assembly.

Answer 56

Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian Constitution warrant the Supreme Court and High Court to take up matters independently. Suo motu cognizance can be taken up by the Supreme Court or high courts in the following matters: (1) contempt of Court, (2) reopening of old cases, (3) probing new cases. Subordinate courts do not have the authority to act Suo moto in the interests of justice. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 57

(a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the Jurisdiction of the Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 58

Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act A person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court

Answer 59

There are 25 High Courts in the country, three having jurisdiction over more than one State. Among the Union Territories Delhi,- and Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh have a High Court of their own. The other five Union Territories come under the Jurisdiction of different State High Courts

Answer 60

According to the Legal Services Authority Act 1987, the Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the NALSA. A serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court is to be nominated by the President, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, as the Executive Chairman.

Answer 61

1. The Act extends to the whole of India, except to the States of Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and to the tribal areas of the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution 2. The proceedings before the Gram Nyayalaya and its judgment shall, as far as practicable, be in one of the official languages of the State other than the English language. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 62

1,4 CORRECT Out of 31 states and UTs eligible, 28 states have joined this Scheme and Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal and A&N islands are yet to join the schemes. The first fast-track special court was established in Andhra Pradesh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 63

The Special Court for MP/MLAs deals with the expeditious trial of criminal cases, not civil cases involving MP/MLAs. The performance of these special courts is being monitored by the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, There are 12 Special Courts (02 in the NCT of Delhi and 01 each in the States of UP, Bihar, WB, MP, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu and Kerala) were constituted. 10 Special Courts are functional in 9 States (the Special Court of Bihar and Kerala were discontinued as per the apex court's direction dated 04.12.2018).

Answer 64

The 14th Finance Commission had recommended setting up 235 Family Courts during 2015-2020 in districts where the same were available, not the 12th Finance Commission.

Answer 65

1 and 3 only In accordance with the Memorandum of the Association of NJA Governing Council (GC) and the General Body (GB) are established to govern the functioning of NJA. The Chief Justice of India is the Chairp

Answer 66

2,3,4 The Armed Forces Tribunal shall transact their proceedings as per the Armed Forces Tribunal (Procedure) rules, 2008. The Tribunal will normally follow the procedure practiced in the High Courts of India, not the supreme Court The Judicial Members are retired High Court Judges, and Administrative Members are retired Members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/ equivalent or above for a period of three years or more;

Answer 67

1, 2 and 3

Answer 68

The strength of the Supreme Court of India has been increased to 33 by the Act of Parliament, and judges are appointed by the President of India. So, Statement (3) is not correct.

Answer 69

Before the 73rd amendment, in many States, there used to be indirect elections to the district bodies, and there were no provisions before the 73rd Amendment Act to conduct immediate elections to panchayats. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Answer 70

73rd Amendment Act also makes two more provisions with respect to dissolution: (a) a municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution, and (b) no amendment of any law for the time being in force shall cause the dissolution of a municipality before the expiry of the five years term. So, statement 2 is correct

Answer 71

EXPLANATION: Nyaya panchayats are judicial and a reminder of ancient village panchayats that settled local disputes. They are set up to provide speedy and inexpensive justice. It resolves minor criminal and civil issues in which the parties present their arguments to the Panchayat members. The jurisdiction of Nyaya Panchayat varies from State to State – one such Panchayat is set up for five or more gram panchayats. So, statement 1 and 2 is correct As determined by State law, Nyaya panchayats' tenure is between 3 and 5 years. Nyaya Panchayats generally deal with petty civil and criminal cases and can impose fines up to Rs. 100 only. There are no lawyers to plead the cases in Nyaya Panchayat. Parties to the disputes argue their cases. So, statement 3 is not correct

Answer 72

EXPLANATION: Nyaya panchayats are judicial and a reminder of ancient village panchayats that settled local disputes. They are set up to provide speedy and inexpensive justice. It resolves minor criminal and civil issues in which the parties present their arguments to the Panchayat members. The jurisdiction of Nyaya Panchayat varies from State to State – one such Panchayat is set up for five or more gram panchayats. So, statement 1 and 2 is correct As determined by State law, Nyaya panchayats' tenure is between 3 and 5 years. Nyaya Panchayats generally deal with petty civil and criminal cases and can impose fines up to Rs. 100 only. There are no lawyers to plead the cases in Nyaya Panchayat. Parties to the disputes argue their cases. So, statement 3 is not correct

Answer 73

Under Article 243 k of the Indian Constitution, The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. There is no power of high courts to intervene and resolve such issues. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Answer 74

Election Commission of India

Answer 75

The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances during assembly recess. So, statement 2 is correct. ➢ Under the Act, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the Assembly is dissolved and suspended. So, statement 1 is not correct. ➢ No such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President. So, statement 3 is correct

Answer 76

The establishment of the legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry in the union territories does not diminish the President's and Parliament's supreme control over them. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry, Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir, which have their local Legislature. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 77

The power to declare invalid a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only. So, statement 3 is correc

Answer 78

he Congress Government, under the prime ministership of PV Narasimha Rao, considered the matter of the constitutionalization of Panchayati raj bodies

Answer 79

c) 1 and 2

Answer 80

The second or middle tier of the panchayat raj is Panchayat Samiti, which links Gram Panchayat and a Zila Parishad. The strength of a Panchayat Samiti also depends on the population in a samiti area. In Panchayat Samiti, some members are directly elected. Sarpanchs of gram panchayats is ex-officio members of Panchayat Samitis. However, all the sarpanches of Gram Panchayats are not members of Panchayat Samitis at the same time. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 81

all correct

Answer 82

Currently, anti-defection law is applicable in Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the states.It also applies to every vote, even in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of states, where the Government's stability is not at stake. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 83

) 1, 2 and 3 only There is no upper cap on the donation amount by a bearer

Answer 84

A member of the Armed Forces of the Union. ➢ A member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950. ➢ A member of an Armed Police Force of a State serving outside that State. ➢ A person who is employed under the Government of India in a post outside India

Answer 85

both are correct he recent judgment of the Supreme Court of India declares that poll promises made by political parties to influence voters do not fall within Section 123 (corrupt practices) under the Representation of the People (RP) Act 1951. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 86

all 3 correct The Model Code of Conduct remains in place during the elections in respect of political parties and candidates, which remains in force from the date the Commission announces the elections till the completion of results/elections.

Answer 87

As soon as a particular button on the Balloting Unit is pressed, the vote is recorded for that particular candidate, and the machine gets locked

Answer 88

The Presidential candidate cannot file more than four nomination papers of a candidate, which will be received by the Returning Officer. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 89

The electors of the Presidential election can choose their place of voting. The Members of Parliament vote in New Delhi, and the members of the State Legislative Assemblies, including the members of the Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry, vote at the place fixed in each State/UTcapital. Facilities are provided by the Election Commission for any MP to vote in the capital of the State.

Answer 90

any person is to be chosen as a nominated Rajya Sabha member. He must not be less than 30 years of age There is no bar under the law against an elector proposing the nomination of more than one candidate. Thus, an elector subscribing as the proposer for one candidate's nomination may subscribe to the nominations of one or more other candidates. Even a candidate himself may propose the nomination of another candidate for the same election. So, statement 2 is not correct. But this is not possible for presidential elections

Answer 91

election commisison

Answer 92

There were both single-member and multimember constituencies before 1962. These multimember constituencies used to elect more than one member. The multimember constituencies were abolished in 1962. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 93

According to Section 73 of the Representation of People Act, 1951. after the results of all Parliamentary constituencies are declared, the Election Commission will constitute the new Lok Sabha by notifying the elected members in the official gazette.

Answer 94

A Minister for the Union Every member of either House of Parliament Judge of the Supreme Court The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India A Minister for a State A candidate for election to the Legislature of a State Judges of a High Court.

Answer 95

As of now, No reservations are provided for scheduled tribes in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and Legislative Council of States. The absence of reservation for SCs and STs in the Rajya Sabha has neither been contested nor considered.

Answer 96

A party can only be deregistered if its registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.

Answer 97

but if the candidate contests the election as a candidate set up by registered unrecognized political party or as an independent candidate, in that case, ten electors of the constituency are required to sign the nomination paper as proposers.

Answer 98

The eighth schedule has been amended four times since the adoption of the Constitution. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22 languages; 14 were initially included in the Constitution. The Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967. After that, three more languages, viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali, were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003; Subsequently, Oriya was renamed as 'Odia' by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011.

Answer 99

There is no Scheduled Tribe population in 3 States (Delhi NCR, Punjab and Haryana) and 2 UTs (Puducherry and Chandigarh), as no Scheduled Tribe is notified.

Answer 100

The Bhuria Committee recommended a three-tier structure of self-governance in the tribal areas, Not the Dhebar Commission. So, statement 1 is not correct. 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.

Answer 101

the tribal-dominated areas listed under the fifth schedule of the Constitution were kept out of the purview of the Panchayati Raj Acts. " The 73rd Constitutional amendment Act does not apply to Meghalaya and Mizoram, But Assam and Tripura states are covered under this Act The provisions of part IX are not applicable to the following: • Entire states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram • Hill areas in the State of Manipur for which District Councils • Further, the district level provisions shall not apply to the hill areas of the District of Darjeeling in the State of West Bengal which affect the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council. • The reservation provisions are not applicable to Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer 102

No. An elector can propose or second the name of only one candidate at a Presidential election. If he subscribes as proposer or seconder, the nomination papers of more than one candidate, his signature shall be deemed operative only on the nomination paper first delivered to the Returning Officer.

Answer 103

No. Only the marking of first preference is compulsory for a ballot paper to be valid. Marking other preferences is optional

Answer 104

Bangladesh

Answer 105

False In India state led religious reform can happen

Answer 106

CVC is an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, and is charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India. Hence, the CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body that is only responsible for the Parliament

Answer 107

Firstly, the CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers. Secondly, the CVC orders investigation in to cases of officials of Central Government Departments/Companies/Organisations only.

Answer 108

1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 2. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 3. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018

Answer 109

Intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule to the Act are exempt from furnishing information under the Right to Information Act. However, this exemption does not apply if the requested information pertains to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations. S

Answer 110

An Original Application can be filed by remitting a nominal fee of Rs. 50/- before the Tribunal. A provision has also been made in the Rules that where the Tribunal is satisfied that an applicant cannot pay the prescribed fee on the ground of indigence, it may exempt such an applicant from the fee payment. Thus, the Tribunal has duly justified its creation through speedy and inexpensive disposal of pending cases.

Answer 111

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) achieved a disposal rate of 91% in five years, and there continues to be a steady rise in the disposal of cases. Over 91 percent disposal rate was achieved from 2015 to 2019 The Central Administrative Tribunal is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice. Parliament is not empowered to frame its own rules Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.

Answer 112

1, 2, 3 and 4 only It covers the society/trust that receives foreign contributions above ₹10 lakhs, not all the society.

Answer 113

. The preliminary inquiry should normally be completed within 90 days of receipt of the complaint.

Answer 114

The Administrative branch will be headed by an officer of the rank of Secretary to Govt of India and will have in its fold: Inquiry/ Investigation branch to be headed by an officer not below the rank of Additional Secretary to Govt of India Prosecution wing to be headed by an officer not below the rank Additional Secretary to Govt of India Central Registry Scrutiny wing Establishment, Coordination, Media and Publication Budget, Finances and Accounts The Judicial Branch will be headed by a Judicial officer of appropriate level and will assist the Lokpal discharge their judicial functions.

Answer 115

all 3 not correct . The Commission can intervene in any proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a Court with the approval of such Court.

Answer 116

for eight sectors: ➢ Health ➢ School education, ➢ Higher education, ➢ Implementation of agricultural reforms, ➢ Maintenance of PMGSY roads, ➢ Judiciary, ➢ Statistics, and ➢ Aspirational districts and blocks. A portion of these grants will be performance-linked.

Answer 117

periods not exceeding five years. The government may fix the governor's term at the time of his appointment. (Urjit Patel and Raghuram Rajan were appointed for three years, though a governor can get five-year tenure). Governor (and Deputy Governors) is eligible for reappointment or extension under Section 8 (4) of the RBI Act.

Answer 118

338-sc A- ST B-OBC

Answer 119

Article 271 of the Indian Constitution states that the Parliament may at any time increase any of the duties or taxes referred to in those articles by a surcharge for purposes of the Union, and the whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India. So, statement 1 is correct.

Answer 120

Statement 1 is correct. The elections are held only for the State Legislature; the expenditure is borne entirely by the concerned State. In simultaneous elections to the Parliament and State Legislature, the expenditure is shared equally between the Union and the State Governments. The expenditure is shared equally for Capital equipment, expenditures related to preparation for electoral rolls and the scheme for Electors' Identity Cards. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 121

CVC Act, 2003

Answer 122

The CBI draws its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act. Central Bureau Investigation is required to get Prior approval from the Central Government to conduct an inquiry or investigation on the employees of the Central Government, of the level of Joint Secretary and above is a big obstacle in combating corruption at higher levels of bureaucracy. However, on May 6, 2014, the Supreme Court held invalid the legal provision that makes prior sanction mandatory for the Central Bureau of Investigation to conduct a probe against senior bureaucrats in corruption cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

Answer 123

) 1 and 2 only Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF) headed by a former Vigilance Commissioner to examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crores and recommend action. The Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds, formed in consultation with the RBI, would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective public sector banks (PSBs) Recently, the Central Vigilance Commission has extended the scope of the existing Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) to cover all fraud cases involving an amount of Rs.3 Crore and above and examine the role of all levels of officials/whole Time Directors (including exofficials/ex-WTDs) in Public Sector Bank, Public Sector Financial institutions, and Public Sector Insurance companies Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds is Headquartered in Delhi. The Reserve Bank of India will provide the required secretarial services, logistic and analytical support, and the necessary funding to the board. The Department of Financial Services does not provide funding

Answer 124

1, 2 and 3 The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 125

true ➢ The Jammu and Kashmir High Court is the common high court for the two union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Answer 126

The provision relating to reserving seats in panchayats (both members and chairpersons) for the scheduled castes does not apply to the State of Arunachal Pradesh. This is because the State is inhabited fully by indigenous tribal people, and there are no scheduled castes. This provision was added later by the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 127

Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2) Delhi 3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands 5) Manipur 6) Tripura

Answer 128

S.R Bommai's Case

Answer 129

NITI Aayog has implemented a structured initiative named "Development Support Services for States (DSSS)" for Infrastructure Projects. The key objective behind the initiative is to create PPP success stories and reboot infrastructure project delivery models to establish a sustainable infrastructure creation cycle. DSSS has the following key objectives: ➢ Establish a Centre-State partnership model for cooperation. S

Answer 130

delhi -7 j and k-5

Answer 131

Such a petition must be filed within 45 days of the poll results; courts entertain nothing after that. Although the Representative of the People Act of 1951 suggests that the High Court should try to conclude the trial within six months, it usually drags on for much longer, even years

Answer 132

false A Union or state government minister is not considered to hold the office of profit. Also, the Parliament can declare that a particular office of profit will not disqualify its holder from parliamentary membership. Hence, Speaker will not do.

Answer 133

1 and 3 only The Water Disputes Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other members nominated on this behalf by the Chief Justice of India from among persons who, at the time of such nomination, are Judges of the Supreme Court or a High Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 134

The state legislature may make provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and auditing such accounts, not the state finance commission

Answer 135

The Union minister of housing and urban affairs acts as the Chairman of the Council.

Answer 136

Approved by Rajya Sabha within one month and later by Lok Sabha within one month of the start of its next session

Answer 137

Egypt, France, Lebanon, Ukraine, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Mongolia etc.

Answer 138

Option (a) and (b)

Answer 139

Ordinarily, the High Court should not entertain a writ petition by way of PIL questioning the constitutionality or validity of a statute or a statutory rule. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 140

The Lokayukta presents annually to the governor of the State a consolidated report on his performance. The governor places this report along with an explanatory memorandum before the state legislature. The Lokayukta of a state is usually responsible to the state legislature. S

Answer 141

Anti-defection law does not apply to presidential polls. No political party can issue a whip to its MPs nd MLAs for a particular candidate, which would be constituted as an offense Under section 171C of the IPC. So, Statement 1 is correct

Answer 142

➢ The Team India Wing will comprise representatives from every State and Ministry and serve as a permanent platform for national collaboration. Each representative will ensure every state/ministry has a continuous voice and stake in the NITI Aayog. So, option (b) is correct.

Answer 143

all are wrng The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces) were held in July-August 1946. In the election, The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League had 73 seats, and the small independent groups got the remaining 15 seats. So, Statement 2 is not correct The First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was presided over by Dr. Sachidanand. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 144

Any Bill that seeks to change or alter the boundaries or name of any state by separation of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Thus, the bill under Article 3 requires prior permission of the President, not under Article 2 of the Indian Constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct

Answer 145

1, 2 and 3 Fundamental rights have a vertical application of rights, which means they can be enforced only against the State, while a horizontal approach would mean it is enforceable against other citizens. Recently, A constitutional bench of the Supreme Court has said that A fundamental right under Articles 19 and 21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.

Answer 146

The European Union in 2018. It has adopted the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), Article 17 of which provides for the right to the erasure of certain categories of personal data that which is considered no longer necessary, that for which consent has been withdrawn or processing of which has been objected to, personal data unlawfully processed, and data where there is a legal obligation for erasure. It is not recognized as a legal right in India, yet courts in recent months have held it to be an intrinsic part of the right to privacy under article 21.

Answer 147

1, 3 and 4 only VKRV Rao Committee (Rao and Singh 1976) criticized the Swaran Singh Committee Report's recommendations on the grounds that Fundamental Duties cannot be followed if there is no le gal action for their violation. S

Answer 148

Education, ➢ Forests, ➢ Weights and measures, ➢ Protection of wild animals and birds, and ➢ Administration of justice; Constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.

Answer 149

DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for implementing the DBT programs, not under the cabinet secretariat. DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in Cabinet Secretariat under Secretary

Answer 150

Both 1 and 2 Any member of the House can pass the motion, which can be done by giving written notice by 10 am to the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha. According to Rule 198, no reason is needed or required for any member to move the motion. So, statement 1 is correct

Answer 151

A statement made by a minister, including MLAs and MPs, cannot be attributed vicariously to the government even when applying the principle of collective responsibility, the Supreme Court said on Tuesday (January 3).

Answer 152

The Constitution says boundaries of Assembly constituencies should be updated after every decadal Census, but through amendments in 1976 and 2001, the process of delimitation was put off for 25 years each time. So far, delimitation for the whole country has been carried out four times — under Delimitation Acts in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — and remains in abeyance till 2026. During the last delimitation, which was completed in 2008, the government decided to leave out Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland, as well as Jammu and Kashmir

Answer 153

According to Article 170 of the Constitution, the population numbers to be used for drawing boundaries of constituencies would be as per the 2001 Census until the first Census after 2026 is published. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 passed by Parliament had mentioned the population in the 2011 Census as the basis of delimitation

Answer 154

In Rajendra Singh Rana v Swami Prasad Maurya (2007), a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court interpreted the term “voluntarily giving up membership of a political party”, and held that “a person may be said to have voluntarily given up membership of an original party even though he or she has not tendered resignation from membership of the party” and that an inference can be drawn from conduct of the member

Answer 155

Neelam SANJIVA REDDY

Answer 156

. The 44th Amendment, 1978 (also known as the Corrective Amendment) says that the top court has the power to review the declaration of Financial Emergency

Answer 157

Article 120- The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for transacting business in Parliament

Answer 158

1, 2 and 3 Resolutions are different from motions in the following respects: "All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion

Answer 159

According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e., passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President) within 75 days

Answer 160

article 190 of the Indian Constitution, A person cannot be a member of both Houses of state legislature simultaneously. If a person is elected to both Houses, his seat in one of the Houses falls vacant as per the provisions of a law made by the state legislature (not the seat in the state council will become vacant in all the scenarios).

Answer 161

Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, in February 2023, administered the oath of office to two newjudges (Justices Rajesh Bindal and Aravind Kumar) of the Supreme Court, taking the number of judges in the apex court to its full sanctioned strength of 34.

Answer 162

The Supreme Court has ruled that the National Green Tribunal is subordinate to high courts when both pass an order on the same issue so far as territorial jurisdiction is concerned. Tribunals are judicial or quasi-judicial institutions established by law. They intend to provide a platform for faster adjudication as compared to traditional courts, as well as expertise on certain subject matters. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer 163

Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language until Parliament (not president) by law otherwise provides

Answer 164

The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah

Answer 165

In Satimbla Sharma V. St. Paul Senior Secondary school case (2011), the Supreme Court has held that Unaided minority schools over which the Government has no administrative control due to their authority under Article 30 (1) of the Constitution are not "State" within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution. In Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram case (1975), the Supreme Court, following the test laid down in Electricity Board Rajasthan's case by 4:1 majority, (Alagiriswamy, J. dissenting) held that Oil and Natural Gas Commission, Life Insurance Corporation and Industrial Finance Corporation, are authorities within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution and therefore, they are 'State' 2, 4 and 5 only

Answer 166

They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. So, statement 3 is correct

Answer 167

1971 census

Answer 168

Since 1950, the provision regarding the joint sitting of the two Houses has been invoked only thrice. The bills that have been passed at joint sittings are: ➢ Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960. ➢ Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977. ➢ Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.

Answer 169

1. 1962 2. 1954 Calling attention motion is mentioned in the rules of procedure unlike zero hour

Answer 170

Rajyasabha in 1997 and loksabha in 2000

Answer 171

Commitee on private members bill

Answer 172

No He is not a comptroller

Answer 173

min of parl affairs

Answer 174

IFC’s Global Food Security Platform is part of the World Bank Group’s ongoing $30 billion initiative to reduce food insecurity during the next year

Answer 175

t is true that the Secretariat of the Parliament is a Constitutional body as it was set up under the provisions of Article 98 of the Indian Constitution. Article 98 states that each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff and Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.

Answer 176

Assam Rifles While the administrative control of the force is with the MHA, its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD).

Answer 177

: Recently, Election Commission (EC) has amended rules, whereby it will now review the national and state party status of political parties every ten years instead of the present five.

Answer 178

According to Article 160 of the Indian Constitution, the President can make such provision as he thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of a State in any contingency not mentioned in the Constitution of India

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