General

Question 1

What does “Placement Evaluation”

Answer 1

Placement evaluation is concerned with the pupils entry performance and typically focus on… does the pupil possess the general knowledge and skills needed to begin the planned instruction?”

Typically used by a CFI assess a new student into the organization.

Question 2

What does “Formative Evaluation” mean?

Answer 2

Formative evaluation is used to monitor learning progress during instruction. Its purpose is to provides continuous feedback to both pupil and teacher concerning learning successes and failures. This type of evolution is an on going process.

It is used throughout the students training, during every instructional period.

Since formative evaluation is directed toward improving leaving and instruction, the results are typically NOT used for assigning course grades.

Question 3

What does “Diagnostic Evaluation” mean?

Answer 3

The main aim of diagnostic evaluation is to determine the cause of persistent learning problems and to formulate a plan for remedial action.

This type of evaluation is used by flight instructors to determine why a student is having problems executing a TASK, for example, losing height in a turn.

Question 4

What does “Summative Evaluation” mean?

Answer 4

Is used primarily… for certifying pupil mastery of the intended learning outcomes.

Used by flight examiners to asses the candidates performance against stated minimum standards.

Wherever possible, summative evaluation should be carried out by an independent examiner (not directly involved in the candidates training).

Question 5

How should PPL flight test be logged in log books for student/examiner?

Answer 5

If it is a pass, both may log it as PiC, however the examiner shall not log it as instructing.

Question 6

How should PPL BFR flight test be logged in log books for instructor?

Answer 6

PiC and can be logged as instructing.

Question 7

What should the examiner brief the student on before the flight test to minimize the risk of misunderstanding?

Answer 7

a. Ask the candidate to verbalize all checklists and nominated speeds.
b. Brief the candidate on the flight format.
c. brief the candidate as to who is PiC.
e. Brief the candidate as to who will command ‘go around’ during forced landing exercises.

Reference FTSG PPL

Question 8

What C of A for an aircraft is acceptable for license issue?

Answer 8

1. Standard Category
2. Special Category - LSA
3. Special Category - Amateur built (where the candidate is the owner).

Question 9

What are the balance requirements for PPL?

Answer 9

Flight with no more than 1/4 ball sustained deflection in slip or skid.

Question 10

What is the maximum amount of attempts allowed for “unsatisfactory performance?”

Answer 10

The examiner may permit a second attempt at any (maximum 3) task(s) or elements(s) (other than critical items), provided that, on the opinion of the examiner, the safety of the aircraft was not compromised, the stranding of the license would not diminished or a clear misunderstanding of the examiners requirements occurred.

Question 11

What are the prerequisites for sitting a PPL?

Answer 11

a. Have a logbook record of the requisite flight training and experience, and
b. hold appropriate current written examination credit(s), and
c. Have proof of their identity, and
d. be at least 17 years old, and
e. Hold a current medical certificate (DL9) issued in accordance with rule 44(1) of the Land Transport (Drivers Licensing) Rule or a class two medical certificate (or higher)as applicable..

Question 12

Minimum requirements of an aircraft to be used for flight testing?

Answer 12

a. Fully functioning dual flight controls, and
b. those instruments essential to the maneuvers planned to be demonstrated during the flight visible to both pilots without excessive parallel error, and
c. at least three-point lap-and-sash harness, and

The candidate is required to provide adequate and private facilities for briefing prior to and after the flight test.

Question 13

Airspeed limits for a climb

Answer 13

+/- 5 kts

Question 14

Height, direction, and balance limits for straight and level, turning.

Answer 14

+/- 100 ft, +/- 5 degrees, +/- 1/4 ball deflection

Question 15

What speed should be generically nominated for slow flight? (FTSG)

Answer 15

1.2 Vs

Question 16

Compass turn limitations

Answer 16

Turning onto a compass heading initially +/- 10 degrees, reducing to +/-5 degrees after one correction.

Question 17

What is the minimum height an examiner may simulate an FLWOP during a PPL flight test?

Answer 17

2000ft AGL

Question 18

FLWOP, when should the candidate be able to reach the 1/3 aiming point?

Answer 18

500 ft AGL

Question 19

What is the PA38 Group Rating?

Answer 19

6

Question 20

PA38 Horse Power?

Answer 20

112 hp

Question 21

PA38 total and usable fuel?

Answer 21

121.1 lts total
113 Usable
8 unusable

Question 22

PA38 max and min oil capacity?

Answer 22

6-2

Question 23

PA38 maximum floor loading in baggage area?

Answer 23

25 lbs. per square foot

Question 24

PA38 VA, MAUW and 1277 lbs.

Answer 24

MAUW = 103
1277 lbs. = 90

Question 25

PA38 VNE

Answer 25

138

Question 26

PA38 VNO

Answer 26

110

Question 27

PA38 VFE

Answer 27

89

Question 28

PA38 Vs

Answer 28

52

Question 29

PA38 Static RPM

Answer 29

220-2350 rpm

Question 30

PA38 maximum baggage weight?

Answer 30

100 lbs.

Question 31

PA38 CoG limits MAUW normal category?

Answer 31

73.5-78.5

Question 32

PA38 max g loading flaps up and down (normal and utility)?

Answer 32

Flaps up = 3.8 (normal0, 4.4 (utility) Flaps down= 2.0 (normal and utility) No negative or inverted maneuvers

Question 33

PA38 Vso

Answer 33

49

Question 34

PA38 glide

Answer 34

70

Question 35

PA38 for an unintentional spin recover, when do you retract the flaps?

Answer 35

After recovering from the spin

Question 36

PA38 Vx

Answer 36

61

Question 37

PA38 Vy

Answer 37

70

Question 38

PA38 max demonstrated crosswind

Answer 38

15

Question 39

PA38 short field landing

Answer 39

67

Question 40

PA38 drop of rpm with magneto check?

Answer 40

Max drop 175 rpm, max difference 50 rpm

Question 41

PA38 suction range

Answer 41

@2000 rpm 5.0 "Hg +/- 0.1

Question 42

PA38 what cruise power should you use?

Answer 42

75% of the rated horsepower

Question 43

PA38 weight and balance reference datum?

Answer 43

Nose spinner

Question 44

PA38 pilot/passenger, fuel and baggage arms for weight and balance?

Answer 44

Pilot and passenger = 85.5 " Fuel (full tanks 30 gallons)= 75.4 " Baggage area= 115 "

Question 45

PA38 State the electrical system

Answer 45

14 volt, 60-ampere alternator, a voltage regulator, an over voltage relay, a battery contractor and a 12-volt 25 ampere hour battery.

Question 46

PA38 state the components of the fuel system

Answer 46

Fuel tanks, Fuel selector, Fuel filter, Electric fuel pump Engine driven fuel pump, Fuel pressure sender, Carburetor. Throttle and mixture control levers connect to the carb. Primer draws through the fuel filter, and primes fuel directly into the primer nozzles

Question 47

PA38 how much before the stall should the stall horn come on?

Answer 47

5-10 kts before

Question 48

What section of the rules is PPL found in?

Answer 48

Rule 61, subpart D

Question 49

Rule 61 subpart D, Eligibility requirements PPL

Answer 49

a. 17 years old b. hold class 2 or DL9 c. 50 flight time, or 40 if not seeking the cross country flight privileges d. if seeking nigh privileges, have met night requirements. e. passed the 6 written exams f. have passed a flight test with an examiner including\ i. showed KDRs ii. knowledge of P & L iii. Competently operate the aircraft within limits, normal and emergency. v. competent in FRT procedures and phraseology vi. control the aircraft at all times without doubt

Question 50

PPL Privileges

Answer 50

a. act as PiC on aircraft that they are rated for, and may carry passengers b. act as co-pilot for aircraft of the category for which the license was granted for for which the pilot holds a type rating, and which is required to be operated with a co-pilot

Question 51

PPL Limitations

Answer 51

A holder of a PPL must not act as PiC or co-pilot of an aircraft a. for remuneration, or b. if the aircraft is being operated for hire or reward, or c. if the aircraft is being operated at night or on a X/C unless they have those privileges certified in their log book

Question 52

PPL Limitations Rule 61, subpart D. Restrictions for DL9 medical holders

Answer 52

PPL on a DL9 may not act as PiC or co-pilot of any aircraft a. exceeding MCTOW 2730 kgs b. any pressurized aircraft exceeding 25 000 ft AMSL d. Operate outside of NZ unless permitted by a foreign country. e. operate under IFR f. ag fly g. banner tow below 500 ft AGL h. Droge tow below 500 ft AGL i. Parachute drop above 10 000 ft AMSL j. exercise the privileges of an aerobatics rating, must not carry passengers while performing aerobatics k. carry more than 5 passengers l. at night exceed more than 25 nm from a lit aerodrome

Question 53

PPL currency requirements

Answer 53

3 take off and landings every 90 days BFR every to years Hold a medical

Question 54

what is the PPL AC number?

Answer 54

61-3 PPL

Question 55

What may a candidate use as a form of ID?

Answer 55

NZ Drivers License A full birth certificate A certificate of NZ citizenship A refugee travel document used by or on behalf of the NZ government A NZ or overseas passport NZ firearms licence A current certificate of ID A NZ police or NZ defence force photo ID card issued to non-civilian staff

Question 56

How long is a DL9 valid for? Younger than 40? Older than 40?

Answer 56

Younger than 40 = 5 years Older than 40 = 2 years

Question 57

What must be included on the DL9 medical?

Answer 57

DL9 with passenger endorsement, class 2, 3, 4, or 5.

Question 58

What are the "written examination credit" requirements for a PPL and reference?

Answer 58

AC 61.153 the six exams All six exams must have been sat within 3 years,

Question 59

What is the minimum level of the "English Language Proficiency: to be held for a PPL?

Answer 59

Level 4, reference AC61

Question 60

Exceptions to the PPL written examination credits?

Answer 60

A pilot who has completed at least the NZDF basic phase of the ground and flight training, except for PPL law which must be sat.

Question 61

PPL Hour requirements

Answer 61

50 hours TT, (40 hrs if they have not done the x/c training) 15 hrs dual 15 hrs solo 5 dual IF (maximum of 2 in an approved sim) 5 TAWA (2 LF, 2 TAWA, 1 of either) 5 hours advanced dual 10 hrs X/C 5 hours night flying (2 dual, 2 solo, one of either)

Question 62

Stickers required prior to PPL

Answer 62

IF Sticker TAWA sticker (AC61-3) If seeking PPL Night privileges, a night sticker. If seeking X/C privileges, X/C sticker

Question 63

Limits on cross crediting PPL flight experience

Answer 63

Half the PiC time in the preceding 12 months to a maximum of 10 hours may be accredited towards total flight experience but not to the specific experiences.

Question 64

What are the PPL Cross country syllabus requirements for stage 1,2 and 3 cross countries?

Answer 64

1. Hold written examinations. 1 hour dual, 1 hour solo. 2. 2 hours dual, 2 hours solo, include on landing at a controlled aerodrome, one landing non-controlled aerodrome at least 25nm from point of departure. 3. 2 hours dual, 2 hours solo. Include diversion requiring low-level nav. Introduce emergencies such as deteriorating weather resulting in low level diversion and unscheduled landing under simulated met conditions 600 ft cloud base and 5000 m vis. Note: At least one solo cross country is to be made into controlled airspace in an aircraft equipped with a functioning two way radio

Question 65

Met minim requirements for PPL X/C?

Answer 65

2000ft ceiling, 16 km vis.

Question 66

Syllabus requirements for PPL X/C Comp Check?

Answer 66

A, B or C out of direct supervision.

Question 67

What are the aircraft, equipment and facilities required for the PPL Flight Test?

Answer 67

Aircraft to have: Fully functioning controls Instruments in view to both pilots without excessive parallax error, At least a three point lap-and-sash harness Intercom Candidate is to provide adequate and private facilities for prior to and after the flight test.

Question 68

What speed should a candidate use for slow flight?

Answer 68

1.2 x vs

Question 69

When may you give flight instruction on a Restricted Category airworthiness certificate?

Answer 69

Conversation instruction for a type rating Flight instruction for the issue if an ag rating Flight instruction for the specific operational purpose for which the aircraft is certificated

Question 70

What categories of Special Airworthiness certificate are there?

Answer 70

Experimental Exhibition Amateur-built Primary LAS Limited

Question 71

What is the reduced visibility minim for aircraft receiving instruction in a LFZ?

Answer 71

less than 5 km, but not less that 1500 m. Rule 91

Question 72

VFR Met Minima

Answer 72

C and D Airspace: 1000 ft vertically, reduced to 500ft in a control zone), 2 km horizontally, 5 km vis below 10 000ft, 8 km vis above 10 000 ft. G Airspace: below 3000ft AMSL, or 1000 ft AGL, clear of cloud, in sight of the ground, 5 km vis.

Question 73

Controlled and Uncontrolled aerodrome Take-off Met Minima Day and Night

Answer 73

Uncontrolled Day/Night: 600m ceiling, 1500m vis 1500ft ceiling, 8 km vis Controlled 1500ft ceiling, 5 km vis

Question 74

What is special VFR Minima?

Answer 74

Inside a controlled aerodrome, 600 ft ceiling, 1500 m vis Must be equipped with a two way radio, day only, remain clear of cloud.

Question 75

Minimum Heights VFR

Answer 75

1000ft vertically, 600 m horizontally over built up area 500ft vertically, 150 m horizontally, non-built up areas

Question 76

Exceptions to flight below VFR minimum altitudes?

Answer 76

Rule 91.311 Holds an instructor rating, and is conducting flight training or practice flights consisting of: Simulated EFATO below 1000ft AGL Simulating engine failure above 1000ft to a height below 500 ft into a LFZ.

Question 77

GA Examiner Currency Requirements

Answer 77

AC 61-19 Every 24 months demonstrate compentency to the director

Question 78

C-Cat Night Requirements?

Answer 78

Must Hold the CPL night requirements. Must demonstrate competency to in instruction and flying to flight examiner at night.

Question 79

B-Cat Night Requirements

Answer 79

25 hours night TT 20 night PiC 15 hours night flight instruction Log book to be assessed by GA examiner and endorsed.

Question 80

Spin Instructor requirements

Answer 80

Demonstrate instructional and flying competency to a flight examiner

Question 81

Aerobatics instructor requirements

Answer 81

Required to demonstrate instructional and flying competence in at least the three basic aerobatic manoeuvres, loop, barrel roll and stall turn to flight examiner

Question 82

Eligibility Requirements for Aerobatic Rating

Answer 82

Completed a ground course. Completed an aerobatics flight training course Demonstrated competence in aeros and spinning to an appropriately qualified flight instructor Hold class 1 or 2 medical

Question 83

Requirements to instruct aerobatics below 3000 ft but above 1500 ft?

Answer 83

50 hours of aerobatic flight instruction experience

Question 84

Requirements to instruct aerobatic below 1500ft?

Answer 84

100 hours of aerobatic flight instructor experience

Question 85

How often are the volumes updated?

Answer 85

Every 56 days approx

Question 86

How often are supplements issued?

Answer 86

Every 28 days (works out to 13 times a year)