General Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
When is the wind shear warning active?
A
- on takeoff- ground to 1500’
- on landing- 1500’ to 10’ agl
- on missed approach- up to 1500’
2
Q
When is RNP in terminal?
A
- 30 miles of departure or destination
- first fix of a STAR
- until the last fix of a SID
3
Q
When does the warning inhibit function?
A
- on take-off up to 400 agl
- on landing until it is deselected
4
Q
When should you check the engine oil.
A
5 to 30 minutes after shutdown
5
Q
Do you have auto-throttles in ALT control mode?
A
No
6
Q
What does a red “PYLON HOT” CAS message mean?
A
Bleed air leak in the pylon. Temp above 250°C
7
Q
The Auto Fuel Return turns on/off at ____/____?
A
- on at 0°C fuel tank temp
- off at 10°C fuel tank temp
8
Q
Engine Ice shedding procedure
A
- 1 engine at a time
- Power quickly to idle for 5 seconds then 90% LP
9
Q
The FADEC keeps the engine on High Idle for landing for _____ seconds. Why?
A
- 5 seconds
- Facilitate T/R’s on touchdown
10
Q
Amber CAS “L-R Wing Hot” means?
A
Duct temp > 180°C
11
Q
Amber CAS “L-R Wing Temp Low” means?
A
Duct temp < 100°C
12
Q
Potable water tank capacity
A
30 US Gallons
13
Q
What is required for in-flight IRS alignment?
How can you make in-flight alignment go faster?
A
- GPS (only 1 is needed)
- Make turns, accelerate, and decelerate
14
Q
Why are some CB’s red and others black?
A
- Red CB’s - Essential power
- Black CB’s - Non-essential power
15
Q
Auto speeds display up to what altitude?
A
1500’ agl
16
Q
What is the preferred engine airstart procedure and altitude/speed limitations?
A
- Automatic air start is preferred.
- Starter assisted for speeds < 250 knots
- Windmilling start for speeds > 250 knots
- Maximum altitude for airstart is 25,000’
17
Q
What conditions must exist for the activation of the automatic emergency decent mode (EDM)?
A
- Aircraft altitude > 40,000’
- Auto-pilot engaged
- Red CAS message “Cabin Pressure Low”
18
Q
Warning inhibit switch will inhibit all aural tones associated with CAS messages except:
A
- Red CAS messages
- Coupled Data Invalid (Lateral or Vertical)
- CAT II invalid
- LPV invalid
19
Q
What are the 2 idle settings and when are they active?
A
- Low idle - Flaps < 22°
- High idle - Flaps > 22°
20
Q
What function does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve provide (PRV)?
A
- Positive differential pressure relief
- Negative differential pressure relief
- Cabin repressurization rate limiting
- Ground pressurization limiting
- Opens fully 1 minute after WOW (landing)
21
Q
What is the emergency landing gear nitrogen blowdown bottle pressure?
A
3100 psi @ 70°F
22
Q
What are the 2 types of windshear warnings?
A
- Caution (Amber) - increasing performance
2. Warning (Red) - decreasing perforance
23
Q
What is the normal cabin differential pressure at FL510?
A
10.17 psi
24
Q
What does the blue CAS message “Start Switch Config” mean?
A
Both Start and Crank master switches selected
*FADEC will not allow engine start
25
If the nose wheel steering fails, the rudder pedals go from ___° NWS authority to ___° NWS authority.
7° to 16°
26
The combined WOW gets its information from which WOW switches?
Main wheel switches
| *If 1 main switch is "Air" combined is "Air"
27
The Bleed Air Augmentatin valve (BAAV) operates above ______ feet.
35,000 feet
* Puts 400°C air into the APU inlet
* Delays the start for 15 seconds
28
With only E-Batts, the fuel quantity can be found where?
MCDU #1
29
Can you use the auto-pilot for a single engine approach?
Yes, but it must be off for a go-around
30
How high must an obstacle be in order to appear on the IMap?
1000" agl
31
TCAS should be set to _____ for single engine ops.
TA only
32
When VGP mode is used, vertical guidance will ingnore: ?
Altitude pre-selector
33
What is RNP for Approach, Terminal, and Enroute?
Approach 0.3
Terminal 1.0
Enroute 2.0
34
Which DU can you dispatch without?
#3
35
The bleed air controller (BAC) will try to maintain a wing leading edge temperature of _____°F.
130°F
36
The Engine Fire Handle shuts off what associated side items?
Fuel
Hydraulics
Electrics
37
What are the 4 ways to open the Bleed Air Isolation Valve?
1. Start Master
2. Crank Master
3. APU bleed air selected on
4. Isolation valve selected on
38
What is the cabin temp range in Auto?
| What is the temp range in Manual?
- 60°F - 90°F Auto
| - 35°F - 230°F Manual
39
When may the auto-throttles be used?
AT's are approved for use from takeoff to landing
| *Prohibited for use during single engine approaches
40
Nose wheel steering starts reducing authority to the tiller to avoid over-steering at ____ knots.
18 knots
41
When is the Ground Service bus light on?
Anytime the ground service bus is powered by anything but the right main DC bus.
42
The Glideslope cancel switch on the Master Warning Panel will cancel glideslope alerts when activated below ______?
When does it reset?
- 2000' agl
| - Descend below 30' agl or climb above 2000' agl.
43
How long after APU start will the APU Load Control Valve allow APU bleed air for engine start and bleed air?
60 seconds
*No delay time during air starts
44
Manifold pressure regulating valves regulate air to _____ psi.
40 psi
45
When is AGM reversion available?
On the ground below 60 knots
*Above 60 knots the DU's revert automatically.
46
Auto-throttles stay in Hold mode up to ____ .
400' agl
47
What items are boxed by default on the Map?
Terrain, Obstacles, Traffic, Weather
48
The O2 relief value triggers at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ °F.
- 90 psi
- 2600 psi
- 225° F
49
Standard auto cabin rate of change?
- 500 fpm climbing
| - 300 fpm descending
50
Normal bleed air pressure In flight.
14-40 psi
51
What is the temp scale limit on the engine start page before and after start?
800° before start
| 1000° after start
52
When is TOGA available?
- Below 16,500' MSL and below 2000' agl
or
- Airspeed < 200 knots
53
Where does the SFD (Stand-by Flight Director) get it's information?
- Heading info - Magnetometer in the tail
- Static info - Left lower and right upper probes
- Nav info - Nav #1
- Attitude info - Internal AHRS
54
The Stall Barrier System is activated at what AOA?
- 0.70 - PLI
- 0.85 - Stick Shaker
- 1.0 - Stick Pusher
55
How do you turn on the radar on the ground?
Push "STAB" 4 times in 3 seconds
56
Which 5 lights do not test during the warning light test?
| What else does it test?
- 2 lights in Engine Fire Handles
2 lights in Engine Fuel Control Switches
1 passenger O2 green light
- Cabin rate to full deflection
57
The APU is intended for use in flight for what emergency situations?
- Dual engine flame out
- Dual generator failure
- Single engine failure
- Single generator failure
58
GPWS Override inhibits all call outs except for ________.
Windsheer (Mode 7)
59
What does "ON BATT" on the IRS switch mean?
The IRS is not on its primary source.
60
The Flight Director command bar for takeoff is at _____ pitch angle.
- 2 Engine V2 + 10 nose up
| - 1 Engine V2 to V2 + 10 nose up
61
The Aileron Hardover Protection System (HOPS) shuts off hydraulic power to what surfaces?
- Both aileron actuators, even if only one sensed a hardover
- CAS - "L-R Aileron Hydraulic Off"
- spoiler actuators still have power
62
The nose WOW switch information is used by what 2 systems?
- Nose wheel steering
| - Standby rudder
63
What does the FQSC do?
| Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner
- Balances fuel during pressure refueling.
| - If a 500 lb imbalance is sensed, it shuts off fuel to the heavy wing until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.
64
"L-R Fuel Level Low" Amber CAS means?
- < 650 lbs of fuel in the Hopper Tank
65
How much fuel does each hopper tank hold?
- 190 gallons
| - 1283 lbs
66
What does "Fuel Tank Temp" RED CAS message mean?
- Fuel tank temp is too low or too high
67
External AC power is capable of powering what buses?
- All buses
| - Main batteries will also be charged
68
How long will the batteries power the L and R Essential DC buses after 2 APU start attempts?
- 30 minutes
69
How many Ground Service Bus switches are there, and where are they located?
- 3 switches
| - Forward switch panel, tail compartment , system monitor test panel
70
What controls the No Break Power Transfer system?
BPCU - Bus Power Control Unit
71
APU generator will come on line on start up at _________.
99% after 2 seconds
72
All automatic power transfers will be NBPT's except between _______ and _______.
External AC power and APU generator
73
Main batteries switches illuminate ON when?
- Main battery is powering essential DC buses
- Starting APU
- Aux pump is running
74
With the main batteries on, what is a good way to check to E-Invertor?
Pressurization Panel
| - 2 green lights (Flight/Land)
75
When do you push the AC/DC Reset?
- CAS Message
| - Checklist calls for it
76
What is the dead bus logic for the AUX TRU?
Left before right
| Ess bus before Main
77
What are the battery charger specs in charge mode and TRU mode?
- Charge mode - 38 amps, up to 32.2 volts, drops to 28.7 volts
- TRU mode - 50 amps, 28.7 volts
78
What bus charges the E-Batts?
Standby AC bus
79
What is powered by the avionics E-Batts?
1. 2 clocks
2. SFD(Standby Flight Display)
3. EBDI
4. Gear handle and indicator lights
5. MCDU 1 (Standby engine instruments)
6. MCDU 3 (Standby radio tuning)
7. Captain's audio panel
80
How many power sources does each MAU have?
| How many CB's?
- 4 sources
| - 4 CB's
81
What will cause a Break Power Transfer?
- Engine fail
- Generator fail
- Power transfer between APU Gen and AC power cart.
82
What 2 sources can power ESS DC buses simultaneously?
- L/R Batteries
| - Aux TRU (when powered by the HMG)
83
What are the E-Batt specs?
24 volt
9 amp
lead-acid
84
What are the E-Inverter specs?
1 kva
115 volts AC
400Hz
Phase A only
85
What is the normal AC power source for the Aux TRU and ESS AC bus?
Left Main AC bus
86
What are the power sources for each DU?
DU 1 - L-Ess DC
DU 2 - L-Main DC
DU 3 - R-Main DC
DU 4 - R-Ess DC
87
What indicates an AGM failure?
Red "X" on the DU
88
What is the power source for the STBY instruments?
E-Batts
89
When will the E-Batts activate when the system is armed?
Any time either L or R Ess DC bus drops below 20 volts
90
What are the specs of the IDG's (Integrated Drive Generators).
Rated at:
- 40 kVa
- 115 volts 400 Hz
- 3 phase AC
91
How many E-Batts are there?
4 total - 2 Avionics and 2 Lighting
92
The main aircraft batteries are rated at ____v/____amp/hours.
24 volt / 53 amp/hours
93
What are the power sources for the fuel pumps?
- L Main / L Ess DC
- R Main / R Ess DC
- L Aux / L Main DC
- R Aux / R Main DC
94
Where does the EBDI get its information from?
- Heading info - IRU 1, IRU 2, SDF
| - Nav info - NAV 1, NAV 2
95
Service the left hydraulic system to _____ gallons.
Right system?
How many gallons does the hydraulic reservoir hold?
Left - 4.8 Gallons
Right - 1.6 Gallons
Reservoir - 1.5 Gallons
96
Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?
- Opposite side fuel hopper tank
97
When armed, what will cause the Aux hydraulic pump to turn on automatically
- Brake pedal depressed > 10° with no other
source of power to the brakes
- Standby rudder selected
98
What is the brake accumulator pre-charge?
1200 psi
99
HMG provides what type of electrical power?
10 kVa, 400Hz AC
100
Hydraulic accumulators are pre-charged to _____ psi.
1200 psi
101
Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems?
- L hydraulic system
- PTU via the R hydraulic system
- Aux hydraulic system
102
What conditions will prevent automatic PTU operation when the PTU is armed?
- L hydraulic system quantity indicating
< 1.5 gallons
- R hydraulic system fluid temp
indicating 104°C or greater.
103
What will cause the PTU to turn on automatically when it is armed?
-L system pressure drops below 1500 psi
104
The engine driven hydraulic pump puts out ____ psi @ ____ gallons per minute.
3000 psi
| 26 gallons per minute
105
What items are lost if you lose the right hydraulic system pressure?
- R Thrust Reverser
| - Redundant hydraulics to the flight controls
106
What powers the FADEC?
- Below 35% HP - L/R Ess DC buses
| - Above 35% HP - dedicated generator
107
What does FADEC stand for?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
108
Engine Specs
Rolls Royce BR710C4-11
| 15,385 lbs of thrust at sea level
109
Where does the cowl heat get it's bleed air from?
- Own side 5th stage bleed port
110
Pressurization System
How many modes?
How many channels?
How do you switch channels?
- 3 Modes (Auto, Semi, and Manual)
- 2 Channels
- Manual to Auto switches channels
111
How many power sources does the outflow valve have?
- 3 power sources
| - 2 AC, 1 DC
112
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with Master Crank or Start?
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with individual engine start switch?
- Right AC pack (Start or Crank Master)
| - Left AC pack (Engine start switch)
113
If the APU is started in the air, what mode will it be in?
Essential mode
114
The APU is supplied fuel from _____?
Left wing fuel hopper tank using the left main fuel pump
115
How high can the APU start an engine?
- 30,000'
| - Max engine start limit is 25,000'
116
What items should be checked on the APU fire test?
- 2 overhead lights
- 4 Master caution and warning lights
- 2 CAS messages
117
Will the APU shut down automatically upon detection of a fire?
Yes
118
What is the APU fuel burn?
264 PPH
119
Which bottle is the APU fire bottle?
Left (#2)
120
What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU enclosure?
- Fuel is shut off at the APU fuel control and at the fuel tank
121
What are the "Cabin Pressure Low" CAS message trips points?
- 8000' when LFE < 7500'
- 10,000' when 7500' < LFE < 9500'
- 14,500' when LFE > 9500'
- 10,000' when in Manual mode
122
The left hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:
- Flight controls
- Flight spoilers
- Ground spoilers
- Yaw damper
- Stall barrier
- Landing gear
- Flaps
- Normal brakes
- Nose wheel steering
- HMG
- Ground spoiler "pop-up signal"
- Left thrust reverser
123
The right hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid for:
- Flight controls
- Flight spoilers
- Ground spoilers
- Yaw damper
- Stall barrier
- Right thrust reverser
- PTU
124
The Aux hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:
- Flaps
- Rudder / Yaw damper
- Nosewheel steering
- Brakes
- Parking / Emergency brakes
- Main cabin door
- Ground spoiler "pop-up signal"
- Landing gear and doors (Ground only)
125
When do the battery chargers go into TR mode?
- All 3 conditions met -
1. L&R Main AC buses are powered
2. L&R Main battery switches on
3. Essential buses TR's failed
or
Aux pump and APU start
126
How much power do the battery TR's provide?
50 amps
127
HMG provides AC power to:
Aux TRU and standby AC buses
128
What will occur with the activation of the EDM?
1. Speed target to Vmo/Mmo
2. Altitude preselect to 15,000'
3. 90° left turn set in heading hold
4. AT power to idle
5. Descent at Vmo/Mmo to 15,000'
6. At 15,000' speed target changes to 250KCAS
7. AT maintains 250 KCAS
129
Ground service bus is powered by ______ ?
Ground:
Air:
Ground - R Main DC bus (when avail.)
- R battery or from Ext DC power
Air - R Main DC bus
130
What are the 8th stage bleed air set points. (on triggers to supplement 5th stage air)
- Auto opens to maintain 14 psi
- Normally regulates to 24 psi
- 35 psi minimum on single pack ops.
- Wing anti-ice selected on
131
Name the causes for a red CAS "AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION" message.
- Flap Handle
- Parking/Emer brake handle
- Speed Brake
- T/R's
- Elevator trim
- GPWS/GRN SPLR/FLAP ORIDE switch
- Gear Handle
132
- What are the steps for a start valve failure to close?
- What are the indications?
- When should the start valve close?
- 1. Start Master - Press/light out
2. L/R engine bleeds - Off
3. APU bleed air - Off
4. Wait 30 seconds for bleed air to stabilize
5. Affected engine - Fuel Off
- Amber flashing "SFO" icon next to ground idle HP
- Start valve should close by 47% HP
133
Altitude Trend Vector shows where altitude will be in _____ seconds at the current rate of climb or rate of descent.
6 seconds
134
What is the CAS message for an Elevator HOPS activation?
Amber "ELEVATOR HYDRAULICS OFF, L-R"
135
What is the CAS message for a single and double rudder HOPS activation?
- Single rudder HOPS - Amber "RUDDER HYDRAULICS OFF" and Blue "SINGLE RUDDER"
- Double rudder HOPS - Amber "RUDDER HYDRAULICS OFF"
136
- What does the "Spoiler Control" switch do?
| - Is there a CAS message when it is selected?
- Removes all hydraulic power from the spoiler system
| - Amber CAS "Spoilers Hydraulics Off"
137
- What does the EMER STAB switch do?
| - What is it's associated CAS message?
- Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled by movement of the electric pitch trim switches when EMER STAB is selected to ARM.
- Amber "Emergency Stabilizer On A-B " CAS message
138
When the "RAD ALT" Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS aural call-outs except ...?
BANK ANGLE and MINIMUMS
139
When the "GPWS" Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS alerts except ...?
WINDSHEER
