GENERAL Flashcards
(280 cards)
1
Q
What is inductance?
A
Induced voltage is the opposite of the applied voltage in direction.
2
Q
What causes opposition to applied current flow in an AC circuit?
A
Inductive reactance and capacitance reactance.
3
Q
What represents capacitance in an AC circuit?
A
A Capacitor.
4
Q
What is the function of a Capacitor?
A
It serves as a reservoir or storehouse for electricity.
5
Q
Why should NI-CAD and lead-acid batteries not be stored or serviced in the same area?
A
The electrolyte in NI-CAD batteries is the chemical opposite of the electrolyte in lead-acid batteries; the fumes from the lead-acid batteries can contaminate the electrolyte in the NI-CAD batteries.
6
Q
What does an electrical circuit consist of?
A
A source of electrical pressure, resistance in the form of an energy-consuming device, and conductors in the form of wires to provide an electron flow.
7
Q
What is the most important law applicable to electrical studies?
A
Ohm’s law.
8
Q
What are the elements of Ohm’s Law?
A
Voltage, current, and resistance.
9
Q
What unit is used to measure power in DC circuits?
A
Watt.
10
Q
How many Watts equal one kilowatt?
A
1,000.
11
Q
What are the three types of DC electrical circuits?
A
Series, Parallel, and series-parallel.
12
Q
What current changes occur in a DC circuit when the applied voltage increases and the resistance remains constant?
A
The current increases.
13
Q
What could cause a NI-CAD battery to fail to deliver its rated capacity?
A
Cell imbalance or faulty cells.
14
Q
What are the functions of most multimeters?
A
They indicate amperes, volts, and ohms.
15
Q
What is the advantage of AC circuits over DC circuits in aircraft?
A
A.C. can be transmitted over long distances more readily and economically than D.C., space and weight can be saved, circuit breakers will operate satisfactorily at altitude, A.C. devices are smaller and simpler, and most 24-volt aircraft systems have special equipment that requires a certain amount of 400-cycle A.C. current.
16
Q
Define the term ‘impedance.’
A
The total opposition to the current flow in an electrical circuit.
17
Q
How many cells comprise a lead-acid battery rated at 24 volts?
A
12 cells (2 volts each).
18
Q
What should be the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid battery?
A
Specific gravity between 1.275 and 1.300.
19
Q
What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of the electrolyte when checking a lead-acid battery?
A
Battery temperature changes electrolyte density only when greater than 90°F or less than 70°F.
20
Q
Why is a specific gravity check of the electrolyte in a NI-CAD battery not acceptable for determining battery charge?
A
The electrolyte-specific gravity does not change with the state of charge.
21
Q
How is Ohm’s Law expressed as an equation?
A
Current (I) equals Volts (E) divided by Resistance (R); (I=E÷R)
Resistance (R) equals Volts (E) divided by Current (I); (R=E÷I)
Volts (E) equals Current (I) multiplied by Resistance (R); (E=I×R)
22
Q
What is the most frequent cause of damage to solid-state components and integrated circuits?
A
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) from the human body due to careless handling.
23
Q
What is magnetism?
A
The property of an object to attract certain metallic substances.
24
Q
What is the difference between permanent and temporary magnets?
A
When an external magnetizing force is removed, permanent magnets retain their magnetism for an extended time, whereas temporary magnets quickly lose most of it.
25
What is the definition of a short circuit?
An unintentional low resistance path between a component/conductor and ground.
26
How would a technician connect a meter in a circuit to read its current?
Insert the meter in series by opening or breaking the circuit.
27
What is the common name for the lines of force that make up a field surrounding a magnet?
Magnetic Flux or Flux Lines.
28
What is the name of the concept that describes the relationship between electricity and magnetism?
Electromagnetism.
29
Name at least two sources of electrical energy.
Thermal and chemical.
30
What is the general purpose of a resistor?
To limit the amount of current flow.
31
How may a small fixed resistor’s value be easily determined?
By the color bands on the surface of the resistor.
32
Name at least two types of resistors.
Potentiometer and thermistor.
33
What is the standard unit of measure of frequency?
Hertz.
34
Describe a basic capacitor.
Two parallel plates are separated by a dielectric.
35
What is the basic unit of measure of capacitance?
Farad.
36
What is the basic unit of measure of inductance?
Henry.
37
What component can change the electrical energy of a voltage to a different level of energy?
Transformer.
38
When using a multimeter, what setting or type of check is typically used to determine an open in a conductor?
Continuity.
39
When troubleshooting for open circuits with a multimeter, a closed circuit, or a good wire, will it indicate what reading?
A near-zero reading.
40
What instrument is used to measure the density of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?
Hydrometer.
41
Name two types of batteries commonly used in aircraft.
Lead Acid and Nickel Cadmium.
42
Regarding batteries, what is an S.L.A. battery?
Sealed Lead Acid Battery.
43
What component can change DC into AC?
Inverter.
44
What component can change AC into DC?
A Rectifier.
45
What is the basic component that allows current to flow in one direction only?
The Diode.
46
What does the acronym LED stand for?
Light-emitting diode.
47
Describe a basic 'AND' gate.
A standard logic symbol with two or more inputs and one output. The two input signals must be received (true) to transmit an output signal.
48
Describe a basic 'OR' gate.
A standard logic symbol with two or more inputs and one output. Only one of the two input signals must be received (true) to transmit an output signal.
49
What kind of information is contained in the title block of a blueprint?
A drawing number; the name of the part or assembly; scale; date; the name of the firm, and the name or initials of the draftsman, checker, and approving official.
50
What type of lines are used on mechanical drawings to show alternate positions?
Phantom lines show alternate positions: one long and two short. Hidden lines are short dashes of equal spaces. Center lines are alternately long and short dashes.
51
How are dimension lines shown on aircraft drawings?
Dimension lines are solid and usually broken at the midpoint for insertion of measurement indications.
52
Where and how are aircraft drawing changes identified?
Changes are usually listed as revisions in ruled columns, either adjacent to the title block or at one corner of the drawing.
53
Define tolerance as used on aircraft blueprints.
Tolerance is the sum of the plus and minus allowance figures.
54
Define clearance as used on aircraft blueprints.
Clearance is a dimension allowable between parts.
55
What is a bill of materials associated with aircraft blueprints?
A list of materials and parts to fabricate or assemble a component or system.
56
Why are symbols used when drawing aircraft blueprints?
To convey complex information about components quickly and accurately.
57
How many views may be required to determine the shape of an object when reading an aircraft drawing?
One-, two-, and three-view drawings are most commonly used.
58
How may an aircraft drawing of a part be drawn to bring out pertinent details?
Drawing a detailed view larger than the principal view.
59
What is the purpose of one-view drawings?
They are used for objects of uniform thickness, such as gaskets, shims, and plates.
60
What are schematics generally used for?
They are mainly used for troubleshooting.
61
What is an orthographic projection?
It is a way of illustrating an object in a drawing showing different views at right angles to each other.
62
Describe the purpose and use of zone numbers on aircraft drawings.
Zone numbers on drawings are like the numbers and letters printed on the borders of a map. They locate a point. To find a point, mentally draw horizontal and vertical lines from the letters and numerals specified; the point where these lines intersect is the area sought.
63
What is the purpose of aircraft weight and balance control?
The primary purpose is safety.
64
How is the moment of an item of equipment obtained when computing aircraft weight and balance?
Weight times arm. The moment of an item is obtained by multiplying the weight of the item by its horizontal distance from the datum.
65
How can this problem be corrected or compensated for without removing or changing any newly installed equipment?
Ballast is used in an aircraft to attain the desired C.G. balance.
66
What is an aircraft's datum and its function?
The datum is an imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal measurements are taken for balance.
67
What is tare weight, and how is it handled when making weight and balance calculations?
Tare weight is the weight of all extra items, such as jacks, blocks, and chocks, on the weighing scale platform, which is subtracted from the total weight.
68
How is the arm of an item of equipment obtained when computing aircraft weight and balance?
The arm of each item of equipment is usually included in the specifications for the aircraft or may be obtained by actual measurement.
69
How would you determine the empty weight and empty weight C.G. of an aircraft if all the weight and balance records are missing?
The aircraft must be weighed, and a new set of weight and balance records must be computed and compiled.
70
How can you determine the effect of a new item of equipment on the aircraft's weight and balance without weighing the aircraft?
The effect can be determined by basic computations if the weight and balance records are up to date.
71
What should be done concerning fuel when weighing an aircraft for weight and balance purposes?
With the aircraft in a level attitude, drain the fuel system until empty.
72
How is a positive moment obtained aft of the datum?
By adding weight.
73
How is a negative moment obtained aft of the datum?
By removing weight.
74
How is a positive moment obtained forward of the datum?
By removing weight.
75
How is a negative moment obtained forward of the datum?
By adding weight.
76
What should be done with equipment normally carried in an aircraft but not permanently installed when weighing an aircraft for weight and balance purposes?
All equipment not permanently installed should be removed.
77
What is an aircraft loading graph?
A method for determining load distribution to keep the weight and operating C.G. within the approved range.
78
What is meant by the term residual fuel?
The fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine after draining.
79
What is meant by the term residual oil?
The oil remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine after draining.
80
What is ballast, and why is it used in aircraft?
Ballast is any weight added or removed to obtain a desired C.G.
81
Name one common leveling method used in weight and balance procedures.
Use of a spirit level at the manufacturer's designated leveling points or use of a built-in leveling scale (or protractor) and plumb bob.
82
What is the difference between fixed-wing and helicopter C.G. ranges?
Most helicopters have a more restricted C.G. range.
83
Why is the aircraft category a factor when computing weight and balance?
Aircraft certified in both normal and utility categories may have two useful loads due to different gross weights.
84
What does the term Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) refer to?
The MAC is the average chord or distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil, usually a wing, as measured in cross-section.
85
What are two ways commonly used to show C.G. and/or C.G. range in different aircraft?
Inches from the datum and % of MAC.
86
Why is accurate, up-to-date empty weight center of gravity data so important?
All other weight and balance calculations are based on an empty weight center of gravity.
87
List at least 5 items concerning weight and balance that would be listed in the TCDS.
CG Ranges, max weight, leveling means, number of seats and locations, baggage capacity, and arm.
88
Describe a plumb bob and its use.
A heavy metal object: cylinder or cone-shaped with a sharp point at one end. Used to determine a spot that is perpendicular to the point the plumb bob is hanging from.
89
What are the recommended markings for permanent ballast?
In red paint with the words 'permanent ballast do not remove'.
90
Before a helicopter is weighed, it must be leveled in what direction?
Longitudinally and laterally.
91
Explain the performance of a rearward adverse loaded C.G. check.
During an aft adverse-loaded C.G. check, all useful load items behind the aft C.G. limit are loaded and all useful load items in front of the aft CG limit are left empty (even though the pilot's seat will be in front of the aft C.G. limit, the pilot's seat cannot be left empty). If the fuel tank is located forward of the aft C.T. limit, minimum fuel will be shown. Calculate CG to determine whether it falls within limits.
92
What does the magnetic particle inspection process consist of?
The basic process consists of magnetizing a part and then applying ferromagnetic particles to the surface area to be inspected. If a discontinuity (defect) is present, the particles will form a recognizable pattern on the surface.
93
What nondestructive testing methods could be used to detect surface cracks in aluminum fittings?
Dye penetrant radiography (X-ray), eddy current, ultrasonic testing, and visual inspection.
94
What occurs during the preparation stages when penetrant inspection liquid is applied to, and then removed from, a part that is cracked?
The penetrating liquid enters the crack and remains there to make the crack visible after the developer is applied.
95
What is the procedure for performing penetrant inspection?
The steps are as follows: Clean the surface, apply the penetrant; remove the penetrant with an emulsifier or cleaner; dry the part; apply developer; and inspect and interpret results.
96
How may A.N. standard steel bolts be identified?
“A.N.” bolts can be identified by the code markings on the bolt heads.
97
What do the markings on the heads of solid shank rivets indicate?
The material of which they are made and their strength.
98
How can the recommended torque for a bolt or nut be determined when torque values are not called out in the maintenance procedures?
From the information contained in the standard torque table.
99
What does the grip length of a bolt correspond to?
The thickness of the material being fastened with the bolt.
100
What may be accomplished to prevent heat-treated aluminum alloy rivets from becoming hard after the quenching sequence?
The rivets may be stored in a refrigerator at a temperature lower than 32°F. They will remain soft for several days.
101
Where may self-locking nuts NOT be used?
At joints that subject either the nut or the bolt to rotation.
102
What is the difference between a general-purpose bolt and a close-tolerance bolt?
Close-tolerance bolts are machined more accurately than general-purpose bolts.
103
What type of cable is commonly used in primary control systems?
Extra flexible 7x9 stainless steel cable.
104
How is work hardening obtained?
By cold-working metal.
105
What width would a welding bead have and what should be the depth of penetration in a butt weld?
The bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal and 100% penetration for a butt weld.
106
What are the undesirable characteristics of a cold weld?
A cold weld has improper penetration, with rough and irregular cold laps that are not feathered into the base metal.
107
What are the penetration requirements for a fillet weld?
A fillet weld should be 25 to 50% of the thickness of the base metal.
108
What precision measuring instruments are used to measure outside dimensions?
Outside micrometer calipers and Vernier calipers.
109
Why should a micrometer be periodically calibrated? Name One.
If it is dropped, its accuracy may be affected.
110
Why is alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment usually less suitable for welding?
Because it tends to become brittle and lose its ductility in the welded area.
111
What is the main difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting resins?
Heat can soften thermoplastic resins, which then harden again when cooled. However, thermosetting resins do not soften when heated and will char and burn rather than melt.
112
What are some of the purposes for which thermoplastic and thermosetting resins are commonly used in modern aircraft?
Thermoplastic acrylic (Plexiglas) is commonly used for windshields and side windows. Thermosetting resins are commonly used as the matrix material in composites.
113
Name one material commonly used as the reinforcing component in structural composite laminates.
Aramid (Kevlar).
114
Name one substance commonly used as the matrix material in structural composite laminates.
Epoxy resin.
115
Name one advantage of using pre-impregnated (prepreg) materials (over non-prepreg materials) in the construction or repair of composite components (besides saving time).
The matrix has the correct proportions of resin and hardener.
116
Which NDT method can be performed without removing the surface coatings, such as primer, paint, and anodized films, and is it effective in detecting surface and subsurface corrosion?
Eddy Current Inspection Method.
117
Which Steel Alloy is noted for its toughness and is most commonly used for aircraft tubular structures, such as frame members, engine mounts, landing gear parts, and other structural parts?
Chrome-molybdenum steel.
118
Which case hardening process is accomplished on steel alloys after heat treating to produce wear-resistant surfaces on engine parts such as crankshafts?
Nitriding.
119
What portable hardness tester is commonly used for testing aluminum alloys, copper, brass, or other relatively soft materials?
Barcol Tester.
120
In what class of threaded fit are aircraft bolts commonly manufactured?
Class 3, medium fit.
121
Name at least three properties of metals.
Elasticity, ductility, and malleability.
122
What term is used that applies to the group of metals that has iron as its principal constituent?
Ferrous.
123
In the aluminum alloy 2000 through 8000 series, as in 2024-T3, what do the first digits indicate?
The primary alloying element.
124
Name two types of hardness testers used on steel and other alloys such as aluminum.
Brinnell and Barcol.
125
What is the term used that applies to a combination of materials such as fiber, whisker, or particle, surrounded and held in place by a resin, forming a structure?
Composite structure.
126
What is another, commonly known name for an aramid material?
Kevlar.
127
Name four advantages of composites.
High strength-to-weight ratio, higher corrosion resistance, greater design flexibility, and easy repair.
128
What are the two general types of self-locking nuts?
Fiber-lock and Elastic stop nut.
129
What are the two basic types of washers?
Plain and Lock.
130
What hardware is used as a threaded bushing to repair threads?
Helicoils.
131
When referring to a standard torque chart, how can a 1/4-28-sized bolt be defined?
It is a 1/4" diameter bolt with a thread count of 28 threads per inch.
132
A solid rivet's diameter is measured in what fractional increments?
1/32”.
133
A solid rivet length is measured in what fractional increment?
1/16”.
134
The diameter of an AN standard steel bolt, as in the part number AN3-5, is measured in what fractional increment?
1/16” (the AN3 is a 3/16” diameter bolt).
135
The length of AN standard steel bolts, as in the part number AN3-5, is measured in what fractional increment?
⅛” (the AN3-5 is a ⅝” bolt in length).
136
What is the procedure for extinguishing reciprocating engine induction system fires that occur during starting?
Continue cranking to start the engine and blow out the fire. If the engine does not start and the fire continues to burn, discontinue starting and have the fireguard extinguish the fire.
137
What procedure should be followed before starting a radial engine to detect liquid (hydraulic) locking of the cylinders?
Pull the propeller through three or four complete revolutions by hand to detect a hydraulic lock.
138
What damage is most likely to result from a liquid lock?
Sufficient force can be exerted on the crankshaft to bend or break a connecting rod.
139
What information must be located adjacent to fuel filler openings for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes built under the current airworthiness standards of 14 CFR part 23?
The fuel filler openings are marked with the word AVGAS and the minimum fuel grade.
140
What information must be located adjacent to oil filter openings for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes built under the current airworthiness standards of 14 CFR part 23?
The oil tank filter openings are marked with the word OIL and the permissible oil designations of reference to the Airplane Flight Manual (A.F.M.) for permissible oil designations.
141
What are the results of using aviation gasoline in a turbine engine?
The manufacturer may allow limited operation. Continued use may cause a loss in engine efficiency and possible engine damage.
142
What is the possible result of operating an engine with a lower grade of gasoline specified?
Loss of engine power, the probability of the engine overheating, and engine damage due to detonation.
143
What are the physical and safety requirements for starting and running a power plant?
Use a proper checklist, position the aircraft into the wind, check the prop (or jet) blast (and jet intake) area, secure the external power cart, and use a fireguard.
144
What are the starting safety procedures when hand-propping a small engine?
Fuel on, switch off, throttle closed, and brakes on. The contact is called, and the switch is placed ON. Be sure the ground is firm, and do not lean into the propeller arc.
145
What type of knots should be used when using rope to secure light aircraft?
Anti-slip knots, such as the bowline or square knot.
146
When towing an aircraft with a tow vehicle, what brakes are used when the aircraft is to be stopped?
The tow-vehicle brakes and the aircraft brakes should be used ONLY if necessary in emergency conditions.
147
Why should aviation mechanics know standard light signals?
Standard light signals may be used for taxi control when taxiing aircraft.
148
Where are aircraft taxi hand signals published?
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). Formerly known as the Airman's Information Manual.
149
When refueling an aircraft, what precautions should be taken?
Use the correct fuel, properly ground the aircraft and refueling unit, and protect aircraft surfaces from hose or nozzle damage.
150
What is meant by the term HOT START when starting an aircraft turbine engine?
A hot start occurs when the engine operating temperature exceeds specified limits during start.
151
May automotive gasoline be used in an aircraft engine?
Only if the FAA approved (such as with a supplemental type certificate [STC]).
152
How do you determine the presence of water in aircraft fuel when draining fuel sumps?
A fuel sample may have a cloudy or hazy appearance or may even contain a solid slug of water. Also, the chemical treatment of samples can detect invisible water.
153
What are some typical ground operation (engine run-up and/or taxi) hazards to watch for or take precautions against?
Noise levels can be damaging to hearing, hydraulic lock in radial engines, and weathervaning in tailwheel aircraft.
154
What does the number 100 refer to in 100LL aviation gasoline?
It is the lean mixture performance number (or octane rating) for the fuel.
155
What are the safety precautions when using a drill press?
Wear eye and ear protection, clamp all work securely, use the proper rpm for the material used, stop the machine before adjusting work or removing jammed work, and clean the area when finished.
156
Why are water-type fire extinguishers not recommended in class 'C-fires'?
The possibility of electrocution because water is a good conductor.
157
Why are the fingers not curled over the prop when hand-propping an engine?
Kickback from the engine may break them or draw your body into the blade path.
158
Why is a tire cage recommended when inflating aircraft tires?
To prevent possible personal injury should the tire or wheel fail.
159
What is the Material Safety Data Sheet?
A detailed chemical information sheet explaining health and safety risks when using the product.
160
What type of fire can a CO2 extinguisher be used on?
Class A, B, and C-type fires.
161
What is the root of a number?
A root of a number that, when multiplied by itself a specified number of times, will produce a given number.
162
What is a squared number, or an example of a squared number?
A number multiplied by itself.
Examples: 2×2=4; 9×9=81, etc.
163
When using the powers of 10, how may 1,000,000 be defined?
10^6 (10 to the sixth power).
164
What is the formula to find the area of a rectangle?
Area = length×width.
165
What is the formula to find the area of a circle?
Area=π(r)2 [pi × radius squared].
166
What is Pi?
A given constant, 3.1416, is the ratio of the circumference to the diameter of any circle.
167
What is a trapezoid?
A quadrilateral (a four-sided shape) has one pair of parallel sides.
168
Name at least two ways a ratio may be expressed.
As a fraction (7/8) and by the use of a colon (7:8).
169
What is a proportion?
A statement of equality between two or more ratios (3:4=6:8).
170
How do you express a decimal as a %?
Move the decimal point two places to the right and add the % symbol (.90 to 90%).
171
What is the sum of a large positive number and a small negative number?
A positive number is less than a negative number.
172
What is the procedure for dividing one fraction by another fraction?
Invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together, and the denominators together.
173
What is a key step in preparing to add or subtract unlike fractions?
Find their lowest common denominator.
174
What is the procedure for converting a fraction into a decimal?
Divide the numerator by the denominator.
175
What is the procedure for converting a fraction into a %?
Divide the numerator by the denominator, move the decimal point over two places in the quotient, and affix a % symbol.
176
What is the procedure for changing a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction?
Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result will be the numerator of the fraction.
177
What is a parallelogram?
A four-sided figure with two pairs of parallel sides.
178
What is an equilateral triangle?
A triangle with three equal sides.
179
What is the hypotenuse in a right triangle?
The side opposite the right angle.
180
How do you find the volume of a cylinder?
Volume = π(r)2h [pi × radius squared × height].
181
What is a mixed number?
A combination of a whole number and a fraction.
182
What is a ratio?
The comparison of two numbers or quantities.
183
Name three of the six types of triangles.
Right, Obtuse, and Scalene.
184
What is the order of operations for algebraic equations?
Parenthesis, exponents, multiplication, division, and subtraction.
185
Where is a 100-hour inspection recorded?
In the maintenance record of the applicable equipment.
186
Who makes the final maintenance record entry after a 100-hour inspection is completed?
The person approving for return to service.
187
What entries are required in the aircraft records after maintenance has been performed?
A description of the work performed, the date of completion, the name of the person performing the work, the signature of the person approving for return to service, the certificate number, and the kind of certificate held.
188
In addition to the maintenance records, where should a description of a major alteration be recorded?
Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration.
189
Who may rebuild an aircraft engine and grant it zero operating time?
The engine manufacturer or agency approved by the manufacturer.
190
Where may a mechanic find an example of a 100-hour inspection maintenance record entry?
14 CFR part 43.
191
What is the usual distribution of FAA Form 337 after it is completed?
One signed copy of the form to the aircraft owner and a copy of that form to the FAA.
192
What regulation authorizes a certified mechanic with an inspection authorization to approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration?
14 CFR 65.95.
193
What could happen to any person who makes or causes to be made a fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any record or report that is required to be kept?
The suspension or revocation of the applicable airmen certificate(s).
194
Who may make a maintenance record entry to approve the return to service of an aircraft after a progressive inspection is performed when the aircraft is away from its home base?
An applicable certified mechanic, an appropriately rated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer.
195
When is a maintenance record entry required to contain the aircraft's total time?
When an inspection record entry is made.
196
What is the minimum scope and detail that the checklist must contain when performing a 100-hour inspection?
That which is shown in 14 CFR part 43, appendix D.
197
What is the definition of the term 'airworthy'?
The aircraft conforms to its type design and is in a condition for safe operation.
198
What determines if an aircraft is considered 'large'?
If the aircraft's maximum certified takeoff weight is over 12,500 lbs.
199
What is the ATA 100 system?
The Air Transport Association's numbering system standardizes technical data regardless of manufacturer.
200
How long must temporary records be kept by aircraft owners?
One year or until the work is repeated or superseded.
201
What is the atmospheric pressure on a standard day at sea level?
14.7 psi or 29.92 inches of mercury.
202
What is kinetic energy?
Energy in motion.
203
What is the definition of a British thermal unit?
The amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 lb of water by 1° F.
204
What are the three methods of heat transfer?
Conduction, convection, and radiation.
205
What is the definition of friction?
Opposition to the relative movement between two objects.
206
What are the two factors involved in work?
Force and movement through a distance.
207
What does a basic lever machine consist of?
A rigid bar, free to pivot on or rotate about a pivot called the fulcrum.
208
What class of lever is a wheelbarrow?
A second-class lever.
209
What is the standard day temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
59°F
210
What factors determine density altitude?
Pressure and temperature.
211
What is the term used to describe the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to when the air is saturated with water vapor?
Relative humidity.
212
In what direction is pressure transmitted when force is applied to a confined fluid?
Equally in all directions.
213
How is pressure expressed in hydraulics and pneumatics?
Pounds per square inch.
214
What is the basic Pascal's law formula for computing force, given pressure and area?
Force equals pressure times the area.
215
Are liquids compressible?
Liquids are usually considered to be incompressible.
216
What is the definition of matter?
Any substance that occupies space, has mass, and is perceptible to the senses.
217
What are the three states of matter?
Solids, liquids, and gases.
218
What is the approximate speed of sound on a standard day at sea level?
761 mph.
219
What types of matter are affected by thermal expansion?
Solids, liquids, and gases.
220
What are the four principal forces acting on an airplane in flight?
Lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
221
What is the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the relative wind called?
The Angle of attack.
222
What causes an airplane wing to stall?
A stall is caused by the separation of airflow across the top of the wing from the wing's upper surface.
223
What function do wing-mounted vortex generators serve?
Vortex generators serve to delay or keep the airflow from separating from the upper surface of the wing during high-speed flight.
224
What effects does the lowering of flaps have on an airplane in flight?
Increased lift, decreased stall speed, and increased drag.
225
What change occurs in the flow of air through the main rotor system of a helicopter when transitioning from normal powered flight to autorotation?
It is reversed. In normal powered flight, air is drawn into the main rotor system from above and exhausted downward. During autorotation, airflow enters the rotor system from below as the helicopter descends.
226
How does blade flapping help compensate for the dissymmetry of lift in helicopter main rotor systems?
Blade flapping serves to increase the angle of attack (and lift) on the retreating blade side of the rotor and decrease the angle of attack (and lift) on the advancing blade side.
227
What have physicists used to compare the densities of all solids and liquids?
Water.
228
What is Potential Energy?
Stored energy.
229
What class lever is a seesaw?
1st class lever.
230
Name at least two types of stresses that may act on an aircraft.
Torsion and tension.
231
What term is used to describe the rate of speed and direction?
Velocity.
232
What is the name of a tube that converges to a smaller diameter and then diverges back to its original diameter? Can it be used to demonstrate Bernoulli's Principle?
A venturi.
233
When air or fluid passes through the middle section of a Venturi, what pressure and velocity changes occur?
The velocity increases, and the pressure decreases.
234
What is the term used to describe the ratio of the speed of an aircraft to the speed of sound?
Mach number.
235
Describe directional stability.
The aircraft's ability not to be adversely affected by a force around its vertical axis creates a yaw-type motion.
236
Describe longitudinal stability.
The aircraft's ability not to be adversely affected by a force around its lateral axis creates a pitching-type motion.
237
Describe lateral stability.
The aircraft's ability not to be adversely affected by a force around its longitudinal axis creates a rolling-type motion.
238
What is the characteristic of wing design that adds an upward lateral angle of a few degrees from horizontal?
Dihedral.
239
A wing design that incorporates a dihedral gives an aircraft what type of stability in flight?
Lateral.
240
What type of wind is parallel and opposite to the direction of flight?
Relative wind.
241
What is the name of the imaginary line that runs from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil?
Chord Line.
242
What is the name of the angle between the chord line of a wing and the longitudinal axis?
The Angle of incidence.
243
Name at least 2 forms of energy that can be converted into heat energy.
Electrical and chemical.
244
Name three temperature scales.
Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin.
245
What FAA publication has a list of engines approved for use in a specific model of aircraft?
Type certificate data sheet and/or aircraft specifications.
246
When must a manufacturer's service bulletin be complied with?
When it is incorporated into an A.D. or other approved data.
247
What manual does the manufacturer prepare for technicians who normally work on units, components, and systems while they are installed on the aircraft?
The aircraft maintenance manual.
248
What is the purpose of A.Ds?
To correct unsafe conditions found in aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances.
249
What FAA publication is used to notify aircraft owners of unsafe conditions that must be corrected?
ADs.
250
When must ADs be complied with?
The contents of A.Ds include compliance time or the period necessary for corrective action.
251
What publication is used by aircraft manufacturers to notify aircraft owners of design defects and product improvements?
Service bulletins, service letters, or service instructions.
252
What publication describes an aircraft's (or engine or propeller) type design and sets forth the limitations prescribed by the applicable Code of Federal Regulations?
The aircraft specifications and/or type certificate data sheet.
253
What federal aviation regulation prescribes the requirements for the issue of typе certificates?
14 CFR part 21.
254
What federal regulations apply to the issuance of an aircraft specification or type certificate for a small reciprocating engine-powered aircraft?
As listed in aircraft specifications or type certificate data sheets.
255
What are FAA advisory circulars?
Non-regulatory material of interest to the aviation public.
256
When is the summary of A.Ds published?
Every other year, a summary is published.
257
Are ADs automatically issued to certified mechanics?
No.
258
Who is responsible for ensuring that only the most current information is used when performing any maintenance on an aircraft?
The person performing the maintenance.
259
On older aircraft for which manuals are not available, what publications could be used to inspect and maintain these aircraft?
AC 43.13-1B (or the latest revision thereof).
260
How can a mechanic determine if the repair of a damaged wing is a major repair or a minor repair?
14 CFR part 43, appendix A.
261
How do subscribers to the Summary of Airworthiness Directives (Book 2) receive A.D. updates?
Through biweekly supplements.
262
What title and part of federal regulations prescribe the certification requirements for a mechanic?
14 CFR part 65
263
Name at least three recent experience requirements for a mechanic.
Worked with FAA approval, technically supervised other mechanics, or supervised maintenance or alteration in an executive capacity.
264
What is the change of address requirement for mechanics?
Notify the FAA in writing within 30 days after any change in permanent mailing address.
265
What type of work may a certificated mechanic accomplish on an aircraft?
A mechanic may perform or supervise maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations (14 CFR 65.81). A mechanic may not perform or supervise major repairs to or major alterations of propellers.
266
What is the mechanics privilege limitation associated with instruments?
A mechanic may not perform or supervise any repair to, or alteration of, instruments.
267
What may a mechanic approve for return to service?
The holder of a mechanic certificate may approve an aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance for return to service as provided in 14 CFR part 65.
268
What may a mechanic use as a guide for determining whether a repair is a major repair or a minor repair?
14 CFR part 43, appendix A
269
What privileges are allowed to an airframe mechanic in addition to performing maintenance?
A certified mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe following a 100-hour inspection.
270
May a certified airframe mechanic perform maintenance on engines?
No, except under the supervision of a certified Powerplant mechanic.
271
What are the privileges and limitations of a certificated mechanic with airframe and Powerplant ratings regarding performing major repairs or alterations and approval for return to service?
A certificated mechanic with airframe and Powerplant ratings may perform major repairs or alterations (except on propellers and any repair or alteration of instruments) but cannot approve the work done for return to service.
272
What is the duration of a mechanic's certificate?
It is effective until surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
273
How long is a temporary certificate in effect?
120 days
274
When may a person apply for a mechanic certificate after revocation of his/ her certificate?
After 1 year, unless the order of revocation states otherwise.
275
What must a mechanic do if a temporary certificate is older than 120 days?
The certificate has expired; request assistance from an FAA office.
276
What privileges are allowed to a Powerplant mechanic in addition to performing maintenance?
A certified mechanic may perform and approve a power plant's return to service following a 100-hour inspection.
277
What maintenance can a pilot perform, and what are the limitations?
A pilot may perform and approve for return to service preventative maintenance on an aircraft owned or operated by him/ her and not used in air-carrier service.
278
When may a mechanic (not employed by a repair station) perform an annual inspection?
When the mechanic holds an inspection authorization.
279
May a certificated mechanic supervise and approve (or disapprove) the return to service of the inspection of an aircraft (or portion thereof)?
No. A certified mechanic may not supervise but must perform inspections to approve (or disapprove) a return to service.
280
What ratings are issued under a mechanics certificate?
Airframe and Powerplant.
