General Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
Requirements for Aviation Documents CA Act S55 and S78
A
Rules made under this Act may require that an aviation document shall be required by or in respect of all or any of the following:
- New Zealand registered aircraft
- Aeronautical products
- Aerodrome
- Aviation participants
2
Q
Fit and Proper person CA Act S80
A
- The person’s compliance history with transport safety and transport safety requirements. Whether inside or outside New Zealand
- The person’s related experience (if any) within the transport industry
- The person’s knowledge of the applicable civil aviation system regulatory requirements
- Any history of physical or mental health or serious behavioral problems
- The person’s use of drugs and alcohol
- Any conviction for any transport safety offence, whether or not:
- The conviction was in a New Zealand Court; or
- The offence was committed before the commencement of this Act
- Any evidence that the person has committed a transport safety offence or has contravened or failed to comply with any rule made under this Act.
3
Q
Duty of the Pilot in Command CA Act S14
A
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall—
- Be responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft in flight, the safety and wellbeing of all passengers and crew, and the safety of cargo carried
- Have final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board
4
Q
Duty of the PIC in Emergencies CA Act S15 and S16 - in flight emergency
A
In an emergency arising in flight, the pilot-in-command may breach civil aviation legislation only if the pilot-in-command is satisfied that—
- the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and
- there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
the degree of danger involved in complying with the provision is clearly greater than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.
- If the pilot-in-command breaches civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the pilot-in-command must—
immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and
- as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and
- if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.
5
Q
Duty of the PIC in Emergencies CA Act S15 and S16 - emergency not arising in flight
A
In an emergency not arising in flight, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or the operator of the aircraft may breach civil aviation legislation only if—
- the emergency involves a danger to life or property that necessitates the urgent transportation of persons or medical or other supplies for the protection of life or property; and
- the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and
- there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
- the degree of danger involved in deviating from the prescribed requirement is clearly less than the degree of risk in failing to attend to the emergency.
6
Q
What does the ‘duty of the PIC in Emergencies CA Act s15 and S16” not permit?
A
Nothing in this section permits—
- the operation of an aircraft that is not registered in New Zealand or elsewhere; or
- the breach of any prescribed requirement as to the airworthiness of an aircraft; or
- the operation of an aircraft by a person who is not lawfully entitled to operate that aircraft.
7
Q
If the PIC or the operator breaches the civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the PIC or operator must…
A
- immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and
- as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and
- if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.
8
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service S41 no person may…
A
- operate, maintain, or service an aircraft, aerodrome, or aeronautical product, or provide an aviation-related service, in a manner that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property;
- do any other act in respect of an aircraft, aerodrome, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service in a manner that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property; or
- cause or permit an aircraft, aerodrome, or aeronautical product to be operated, maintained, or serviced, or an aviation-related service to be provided, in a manner that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property; or
- cause or permit any other act to be done in respect of an aircraft, aerodrome, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service in a manner that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
9
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service S41, any person who commits an offence against this subsection, will be caused…
A
Whether or not the person knows that the unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property will be caused.
10
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service S41 any person who commits an offence against this subsection will be caused…
A
- If the person knows, or is reckless as to whether, the unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
11
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service S41, a person who commits an offecnce against this subsection (unknowingly) is liable on conviction…
A
- In the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $150,000
- In the case of any other person, to a fine not exceeding $1,500,000.
12
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service S41, a person who commits an offence against subsection (knowingly) is liable on conviction…
A
- In the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to a fine not exceeding $3000,000 or both.
- In the case of any person, to a fine not exceeding $3,000,000
13
Q
Operating aircraft in careless manner
A
- Every person commits an offence who operates any aircraft in a careless manner
- Every person who commits this offence is liable,—
In the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $30,000; or
In the case of any other person, to a fine not exceeding $100,000.
14
Q
Endangerment caused by holder of aviation document S103
A
- The holder of an aviation document must not, in respect of any activity or service to which the document relates, do or omit to do any act, or cause or permit any act or omission, that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
- A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence against this subsection whether or not the person knows that the act or omission will cause unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
- A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence against this subsection if the person knows, or is reckless as to whether, the act or omission will cause unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
- A person who commits an offence against subsection (2) is liable on conviction,
in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $90,000:
in the case of any other person, to a fine not exceeding $300,000. - A person who commits an offence against subsection (3) is liable on conviction,—
in the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or to a fine not exceeding $150,000, or both:
in the case of any other person, to a fine not exceeding $1,500,000.
15
Q
Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
A
Length of the take-off run available plus the length of any stop way
16
Q
Accident
A
- A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of—
(i) being in the aircraft; or
(ii) direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including any part that has become detached from the aircraft; or
(iii) direct exposure to jet blast - The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that—
(i) adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and
(ii) would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component—
except engine failure or damage that is limited to the engine, its cowlings, or accessories, or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
3.The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.
17
Q
Act
A
The Civil Aviation Act 1990
18
Q
Aerobatic flight
A
- Intentional manoeuvre in which the aircraft is in sustained inverted flight or is rolled from upright to inverter or from inverted to upright position; or
- Manoeuvres such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a stall turn, hammerhead or whip stall, or a combination of such manoeuvres.
19
Q
Aerodrome control service
A
Means an air traffic control service provided for the control of aero from traffic
20
Q
Aerodrome traffic circuit
A
Pattern flown by aircraft operation in the vicinity of an aerodrome
21
Q
Aeronautical information circular (AIC)
A
Notice containing information that;
(1) Does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and
(2) Relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters.
22
Q
AIP supplement
A
- Temporary changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are published by means of special pages
23
Q
Aircraft category and category of aircraft
A
Aeroplane, balloon, glider, hang glider, helicopter, or microlight.
24
Q
ATC service
A
means a service provided for the purposes of—
- preventing collisions between aircraft and between aircraft and obstructions on any manoeuvring area; and
- expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air traffic; and
includes—
- an aerodrome control service:
- an area control service:
- an approach control service
25
Air transport operation
Means an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward except—
(1) A commercial transport operation
(2) An adventure aviation operation
(3) A helicopter external load operation under Part 133
(4) An agricultural aircraft operation under Part 137
(5) A trial flight.
26
Air operation
Means an air transport operation, a commercial transport operation, or an adventure aviation operation.
27
Airworthiness certificate
(1) For a New Zealand registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the Director under Part 21, Subpart H; and
(2) For a foreign registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the competent authority of the State of registry.
28
Airworthiness directive
Means a mandatory airworthiness requirement that specifies modifications, inspections, conditions, or limitations to be applied to an aircraft or aeronautical product to ensure continued safe operating conditions.
29
Airworthy condition
Means the condition of an aircraft, including its components, fuel, and other materials and substances essential to the manufacture and operation of the aircraft, that complies with all the requirements prescribed by the Civil Aviation Rules relating to design, manufacture, maintenance, modification, repair, and safety.
30
Alerting service
Means an air traffic service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required.
31
Altitude
Means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level.
32
Area control service
Means an air traffic control service provided for controlled flights in controlled airspace
33
ATC clearance
Means authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.
34
ATC instruction
Means a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
35
Aviation event
Means an event to be conducted below the minimum safe heights prescribed under Part 91 that is—
(1) An air show or practice for an air show; or
(2) An air race or practice for an air race; or
(3) An aerobatic competition; or
(4) Aerobatic training or practice.
36
AWIB (Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcast) service
Means an automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the facilitation of aviation, and for the avoidance of doubt, an AWIB service is not an air traffic service.
37
Basic weather report
Means a verbal comment, in support of aviation, describing any of the following current weather conditions observed at a particular place or airspace:
(1) Wind direction and strength
(2) Mean sea level air pressure
(3) Air temperature
(4) Weather conditions and cloud cover.
38
Ceiling
Means the height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 feet covering more than half the sky (e.g. BKN 1000ft).
39
Certificated organisation
Means an organisation issued with a certificate under rules made under the Act
40
Class 3.1A Flammable liquid
Means a liquid that has a flash point of below 23ºC and has an initial boiling point (IBP) of a maximum 35ºC, and includes petrol based products (AVGAS).
41
Class 3.1C Flammable liquid
Means a liquid that has a flash point at or above 23ºC, but at or below 60ºC, and includes kerosene based products (Jet A-1).
42
Class 3.1D flammable liquid
Means a liquid that has a flash point of above 60ºC, but at or below 93ºC, and includes diesel products.
43
Class B cargo or baggage compartment
(1) There is sufficient access in flight to enable a crew member to effectively reach any part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher; and
(2) When the access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent, will enter any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers; and
(3) There is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station.
44
Clearance limit
Means the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.
45
Clearway
Means a defined rectangular area on the ground or water, at the departure end of the runway—
(1) under the control of the aerodrome operator; or
(2) with the agreement of the authority controlling the clearway—
selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
46
Command practice
Means the performance by a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command during a flight under the supervision of a pilot-in-command designated for the purpose by the operator.
47
commercial transport operation
Means an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward—
(1) Where—
(i) each passenger is performing, or undergoing training to perform, a task or duty on the operation; or
(ii) the passengers or goods are carried to or from a remote aerodrome—
(2) Except those operations in paragraph (1) that are—
(i) a helicopter external load operation conducted under Part 133; or
(ii) an agricultural aircraft operation conducted under Part 137.
48
Controlled airspace
Means an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights, and to VFR flights, in accordance with the airspace classification.
49
Controlled flight
Means any flight that is subject to an ATC clearance
50
Co-pilot
Means a licensed pilot, serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command; but does not include a pilot receiving flight instruction from a pilot on board the aircraft.
51
Crew member
Means a person carried by an aircraft who is—
(1) Assigned by the operator—
(i) as a flight crew member or flight attendant to perform a duty associated with the operation of the flight; or
(ii) to perform a duty associated with the operation of the aircraft during flight time; or
(2) Carried for the sole purpose of—
(i) undergoing or giving instruction in the control and navigation of the aircraft; or
(ii) undergoing instruction as a flight engineer or flight attendant; or
(3) Authorised by the Director to exercise a function associated with the operation of the aircraft during flight time; or
(4) A flight examiner.
52
Dangerous goods
Means articles or substances that are capable of posing risk to health, safety, property, or the environment and—
(a) Are listed in, or classified in accordance with, the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air; or
(b) Have properties that would result in the articles or substances being classified as dangerous goods under the ICAO’s "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air".
53
Day
Means the hours between—
(1) The beginning of morning civil twilight, which is when the centre of the rising sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon; and
(2) The end of evening civil twilight, which is when the centre of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.
Source: AIP GEN section & CAR Part 1
In New Zealand, daylight is divided in 8 different zones (GEN 2.7-2/3)
MCT and ECT are then stated for various days of the year in GEN 2.7-4/7.
In the exam you might be asked to give the ECT or MCT of a zone for a date that is not specified in the graph.
54
Dual flight time
Means flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and rated pilot on board a dual control aircraft.
55
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Means an equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated radio frequency to facilitate a search and rescue operation.
56
Enhanced vision imaging system
Refers to technology which uses imaging sensors to see in front and along the flight path of aircraft to display an image of the external scene topography to the flight deck
57
Final reserve fuel
Means the minimum quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight in the event of any unplanned manoeuvring in the vicinity of the destination or alternate or a suitable aerodrome, as the case may be, and in ordinary circumstances remains on board until completion of the landing.
58
Fit and proper person
Means a person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the Act.
59
Flight examiner
Means a person who holds a flight examiner rating issued in accordance with Part 61 or is approved by the Director to conduct specific flight tests.
60
Flight attendant
Means an appropriately trained person assigned by the operator to be responsible to the pilot-in-command for passenger safety on an aircraft.
61
Flight crew member
Means an appropriately qualified person assigned by the operator for duty in an aircraft during flight time as a pilot or flight engineer.
62
Flight information service
Means an air traffic service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information intended for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
63
Flight level
Means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of hundreds of feet that—
(1) Is related to a specific datum 1013.2 hPa; and
(2) Is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
64
Flight manual
Means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
65
Flight plan
Means specified information that is required under the rules to be provided to an ATS unit or to a flight following service regarding an intended flight, or portion of a flight, of an aircraft.
66
Flight time
Means the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight including all associated push back, taxiing and subsequent holding time.
67
Height
Means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum and includes the vertical dimension of an object.
68
Introductory flight
Means a flight of short duration offered by a flight training organisation to a prospective trainee where the dominant purpose of the flight is to encourage the trainee to become a pilot
69
Incident
Means any occurrence, other than an accident, that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and affects or could affect the safety of operation.
70
Landing area
That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
71
Landing distance available (LDA)
Means the length of the runway that is declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane.
72
Night
Means the hours between—
(1) The end of evening civil twilight, which is when the centre of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon; and
(2) The beginning of morning civil twilight, which is when the centre of the rising sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.
73
Night vision goggles
means a head-mounted, lightweight, and selfcontained binocular appliance that amplifies ambient light used to enhance the ability to maintain visual reference to the surface at night
74
Night vision imaging system
refers to the integration of all the following elements for the successful and safe operation of an aircraft using NVGs –
operational procedures;
suitable training, competency and currency requirements;
NVGs and associated equipment;
lighting system and associated aircraft components;
continuing airworthiness requirements; but
excludes –
(i) enhanced vision imaging system:
(ii) a synthetic vision system:
75
NOTAM
Means a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
76
NVG operation
means an operation during any part of which NVGs are used to maintain visual reference to the surface in an aircraft which is NVIS equipped and approved for NVIS operations
77
Passenger
In relation to an aircraft, means any person carried by the aircraft, other than a crew member.
78
PIC
In relation to any aircraft, means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft.
79
Rating
Means an authorisation entered on, or associated with, a licence, certificate, or logbook, and forming part of it, stating special conditions, privileges, or limitations relating to the licence or certificate
80
Regular air transport passenger service
Means a service offered by an operator consisting of four or more air transport operations between two or more aerodromes in any consecutive 28 day period.
81
SARTIME
Means the time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of alerting action.
82
Serious incident
Means an incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred.
83
Simultaneous operation - visual conditions
Instrument conditions: not currently applicable at New Zealand aerodromes.
Visual conditions: Operations using parallel runways where both may be in use at the time, in accordance with the following criteria (excluding provision for wake turbulence separation requirements):
(a) Uncontrolled aerodrome — simultaneous-independent operations, with displacement between parallel runway centrelines not less than 210 m.
(b) Controlled aerodrome — aerodrome control service on watch:
(i) simultaneous-independent operations: where ATC controls aircraft with displacement between parallel runway centrelines not less than 210 m (not less than 165 m edge-to-edge if grass runways); or
(ii) simultaneous-dependent operations: where ATC controls aircraft including sequencing or staggering operations (to avoid side-by-side parallel flight or side-by-side manoeuvring on a parallel runway); or
(iii) simultaneous-segregated operations: where ATC controls aircraft departures on one runway and aircraft arrivals on the parallel runway.
84
Synthetic vision system
refers to a system which uses computer generated images of the external scene topography from the perspective of the flight deck, derived from aircraft attitude, high precision navigation solutions, and databases of terrain obstacles and relevant cultural features to display a synthetic vision image of the external scene topography to the flight deck
85
Technical instructions
Means ICAO Document 9284 Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air approved and published by decision of the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation under Annex 18 of the Convention.
86
Threshold
Means that point where a 1:20 obstacle-free approach surface intersects the runway surface.
87
Type
(1) In relation to the licensing of aviation personnel means all aircraft of the same basic design, including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a significant change in handling or flight characteristics; or
(2) In relation to the certification of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers, means those aircraft, aircraft engines or propellers which are similar in design.
88
Unlawful interference
Means an act or attempted act endangering a passenger, crew member, ground personnel, aircraft, or facility.
89
UNICOM
Means a ground radio communications service in the aeronautical mobile service providing local aerodrome information for the facilitation of aviation, and, for the avoidance of doubt, a UNICOM service is not an air traffic service.
90
VFR flight
Means a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules.
91
Vicinity of an aerodrome
An area around an aerodrome where aircraft carry out manoeuvres associated with entering, leaving, or operating within an aerodrome traffic circuit.
92
Visibility
Means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night.
93
Visual meteorological conditions (VMC)
Means meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima.
94
Visual reference
Continuous reference to terrain (land or water).
95
AD
Airworthiness directive
96
ADF
Automatic direction-finder
97
AEDRS
Automatic engine data recording system
98
AIREP
Air reporter
99
ATIS
Automatic terminal information service
100
AWS
Automatic weather station
101
BWR
Basic weather report
102
CAR
NZ Civil Aviation Rules
103
CGL
Circling guidance lights
104
DME
Distance measuring equipment
105
ELT
Emergency locator transmitter
106
GNSS
Global navigation satellite system
107
ME1
A medical examiner who holds a Medical Examiner 1 Certificate issued under the Act.
108
ME2
A medical examiner who holds a Medical Examiner 2 Certificate issued under the Act.
109
MEL
Minimum equipment list
110
NVG
Night vision goggles
111
NVIS
Night vision imaging system
112
PLA
Parachute landing area
113
VOR
VHF omnidirectional radio range
