General Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
This anemia results in abnormal hgb production and is microcytic and hypochromic
A
Thalassemia
2
Q
For a patient over the age of 60 with comorbidities what should be prescribed to treat pneumonia?
A
Fluoroquinolones such as moxifloxacin
3
Q
Which acid base imbalance would you see with persistent vomiting?
A
Metabolic alkalosis
4
Q
What pupil and motor changes would be expected with a left sided CVA?
A
Left pupil changes and right sided motor changes
5
Q
In a patient with HIV with a 5 mm purified protein derivative induration what is the recommended treatment therapy?
A
For drug therapy consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide
6
Q
What do broad T waves with prominent U waves indicate?
A
Hypokalemia
7
Q
What drug can be used to treat metabolic acidosis?
A
Acetazolomide
8
Q
What findings would indicate end stage renal disease
A
90% nephron damage, azotemia, and metabolic alterations
9
Q
What findings represent diminished renal reserve?
A
50% nephron loss and doubled creatinine levels
10
Q
What findings indicate renal insufficiency?
A
Mild azotemia and 75% nephron loss
11
Q
If a patient presents with leukocytosis, elevated urine free cortisol, And glycosuria. What is the likely diagnosis
A
Cushing’s syndrome
12
Q
A decreased T4 can confirm clinical diagnosis of what?
A
Hypothyroid
13
Q
In elevated T4 indicates what?
A
Hyperthyroidism
14
Q
What will the TSH level be in hyperthyroidism?
A
TSH level will be low
15
Q
Patients with COPD always demonstrate what degree of lung compliance?
A
High
16
Q
Written material that causes someone to suffer a damage reputation refers to what?
A
Libel
17
Q
Spoken defamation refers to what?
A
Slander
18
Q
What is the failure of a professional to render services with the degree of care, diligence and percussion that another member of the same profession would render under similar circumstances to prevent injury to someone else?
A
Malpractice
19
Q
Which part of the research process is the most important for the nurse practitioner to participate in?
A
Formulating the research problem
20
Q
Which area of the bowel is melena generally a complication from?
A
Upper bowel gastrointestinal bleeding
21
Q
Which third-party payer has benefits for change state to state?
A
Medicaid
22
Q
Who is Medicaid funded by?
A
Federal and state
23
Q
Who is Medicare funded by?
A
Federal
24
Q
Which anemia presents with glossitis, loss of fine motor control and palpitations?
A
Pernicious
25
Which heart sound occurs when the aortic and pulmonic valves are closed and blood is being pumped through the open mitral and tricuspid valves?
S2
26
During S1 what is happening?
The tricuspid in mitral valves are closed
27
What are common abdominal assessment findings in peritonitis?
Hypo active bowel sounds and rigidity
28
What hearts on when you expect to hear with myocardial infarction, left ventricular hypertrophy, and hypertension
S4
29
Which heart sound sounds like Tennessee
s4
30
What does S III sound like
Kentucky
31
What is the long-term drug of choice for treating patients with generalized convulsive status epilepticus?
Phenytoin
32
What herbal remedy can cause in adverse reaction with aspirin and Coumadin, and increased risk of bleeding, and in creased blood pressure?
Ginkgo biloba
33
Which heart sound corresponds with the R wave on EKG?
S1
34
Which shocks state is indicated by low cardiac output, low CVP, low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, in low systemic vascular resistance?
Anaphylactic shock
35
What is a normal cardiac output?
4-8
36
What is a normal CVP
3-8
37
What is a normal wedge pressure
6-12
38
What is a normal SVR?
800-1200
39
According to the New York heart Association functional classification of heart failure which class presents with symptoms while at rest?
Class IV
40
In what condition will a patient complained of abdominal pain worse with coughing and pain in the right quadrant when the left quadrant is palpated
Appendicitis
41
Which heart murmur may have an Apical crescendo rumble?
Mitral stenosis
42
And what disorder will you see hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, and leukocytosis?
Cushings
43
Which term refers to measuring the degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity
44
What term refers to the degree to which perceptive variability is eliminated from a unit of measurement?
Objectivity
45
What percentage of gastric and duodenal ulcers are associated with H pylori
75% of gastric
| 90% duodenal
46
Who do peptic ulcer's affect more men or women?
Men
47
Which herbal remedy can cause visual disturbances and bradycardia?
Black cohosh
48
What is black cohosh meant to treat?
Menstrual discomfort
49
What is the formula for the fluid requirements for an average adult?
25 to 30 ml/kg/24 hrs
50
How often are mammograms done for women ages 40 to 49
Every two years
51
How often should someone over the age of 60 have a complete physical exam
Every two years
52
How often should be HPV co test be done?
Every five years for women ages 30 to 65
53
How often should liquid-based cytology be done for women ages 30 to 65
Every three years
54
What is the term to describe the frequency with which a disease or disorder appears in a particular population or area at a given time?
Incidence
55
What are the top three causes of death for adolescents ages 12 to 19 years old?
Mvc, suicide, other accidents
56
What are the top three causes of death for people ages 20 to 39?
Motor vehicle crash, homicide, suicide
57
What are the major causes of death for middle-aged adults ages 40 to 59?
Heart disease, accidents, lung cancer
58
What are the top three causes of death for people over the age of 60?
Heart disease, CVA, COPD
59
What percentage of your diet should be made up of fats?
Less than 30% total calories with 10% total calories been saturated fats
60
What does the American Heart Association recommends currently for exercise?
30 minutes or more on most days of the week, target heart rate should be sustained for 30 minutes
61
What should be done for patients over the age of 35 would never had a program of exercise prior to starting an exercise program
Complete history, physical exam, exercise stress test
62
Which herbal agent is used to treat nausea constipation colic and dyspepsia
Ginger
63
Which herbal agent can cause increased risk of bleeding, blood pressure changes, mania and depressed patients, and may inhibit opioid effects
Ginseng
64
What is St. John's wort used to treat?
Depression, anxiety, sleep disorders, improve BPH symptoms
65
Which herbal agent may increase the risk of clotting, should not be taken with aspirin, has many drug interactions, and may lead to cataract formation?
St. John's wort
66
Which herbal agent that is used to treat the common cold may cause anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and may cause increased sedation during anesthesia?
Echinacea
67
Which herbal agent may elevate blood glucose, and could possibly increase the risk of seizures in patients with Seizure disorders
Evening primrose
68
Which herbal drug may lead to hypertension, liver damage, visual impairment, and may worsen Parkinson's symptoms?
Kava kava
69
Written statement of the patients intent regarding medical treatment
Advanced directive
70
This requires that all patients and during hospital should be advised of their right to execute and advanced directive
Patient self-determination act of 1990
71
Type of advanced directive that may or may not include a LivingWell and or specifications regarding durable power of attorney and one or two separate documents
Healthcare directive
72
And compilation of statements and document format that specifies which life prolonging that here's one doesn't does not want to be taken if here she becomes incapacitated
LivingWell
73
This protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs
Title I of HIPPA
74
Known as the administrative simplification provisions this requires the establishment of national standards for electronic healthcare transaction the national identifiers for providers health insurance plans and employers
Title II of HIPPA
75
Who are the covered entity is required to follow HIPPA
Health plans, healthcare providers, health care clearinghouses
76
What are the goals of healthy people 2020
Increase the quality and years of healthy life and eliminate health disparities among Americans
77
What are the five diagnoses that are reportable to the health department
Gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, HIV, Tb
78
This covers inpatient hospitalization, skilled nursing facility, home health services or hospice and most individuals qualified to receive this at the age of 65
Medicare A
79
This covers physician services, outpatient hospital services, laboratory and diagnostic procedures, medical equipment, and some home health services
Medicare b
80
Two forms of Medicare that require A premium
B and D
81
This says the patients entitled to Medicare part a and enrolled in part B are eligible to receive all their healthcare services the one of the provider organizations
Medicare C
82
To qualify to be a Medicare provider in NP must have what?
State license, certification my certifying body, MSN
83
Where is incident to billing not allowed
Hospital setting
84
For NP home visits billable for Medicare a services do nurse practitioners need a physicians order to bill under the NP provider number?
No
85
Federally supported State administer program for low income families and individuals
Medicaid
86
When her Medicaid payments made
After other insurance or third-party payments have been made
87
Contained key patient care activities and time frames for those activities which are needed for specific case taper diagnosis related group
Critical path
88
Blueprint for planning and managing care delivered by all disciplines
Care map
89
In the event of a sentinel event what is expected to be conducted by clinicians and institutions?
Root cause analysis
90
Delineated by the American nurses Association as authoritative statements by which to measure quality of practice service or education
Standards of advanced practice
91
What dictates the level of prescriptive authority allowed
State practice act
92
Who granted nurse practitioners admitting privileges to hospitals?
The joint commission in 1983
93
Results when the caregiver patient relationship is terminated without making reasonable arrangements with an appropriate person for the care by others can be continued
Patient medical abandonment
94
Interventions that are unlikely to produce any significant benefit for the patient
Medical futility
95
Where the likelihood that an interventional benefit the patient is extremely poor
Quantitative futility
96
Where the quality of benefit in interventional produced is extremely poor
Qualitative futility
97
What ally pertains to refusal of care
Danforth amendment
98
The duty to do no harm
Nonmaleficence
99
The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number
Utilitarianism
100
Duty to prevent harm and promote good
Beneficence
101
The duty to be fair
Justice
102
The duty to be faithful
Fidelity
103
The duty to be truthful
Veracity
104
The duty to respect and individuals thoughts and actions
Autonomy
105
What are the steps for discharging a patient from practice?
Send a certified letter with return receipt, provide general health care coverage for the first 15 to 30 days post termination deadline, obtain a release of information to provide copies of all needed records for the subsequent care provider
106
How long do files need to be kept?
Uminimum of five years
107
What are obligations and closing her practice due to relocation retirement or other changes?
Give the patient adequate time to find another provider, keep all files for five years, provide timely notification of names of other providers for future care
108
Where did the role of the nurse practitioner originally come from?
A physician shortage in the area pediatric in the 1960s
109
Why did the movement of an peas to the inpatient setting result?
Manage care, hospital restructuring, and decreases the medical residency programs
110
What are the four distinct roles of the nurse practitioner?
Clinician, consultant/collaborator, educator, researcher
111
Examples of nonexperimental research
Descriptive, ex post facto, cross-sectional, cohort, longitudinal
112
Study that examines a population with a very similar attribute but different one specific variable
Cross-sectional
113
Research study that compares a particular outcome in groups of individuals who are alike in many ways the differ by a certain characteristic
Cohort
114
Study that involves taking multiple measures of the group/population over an extended period of time to find relationships between variables
Longitudinal
115
Type of research that involves manipulation of variables but lacks a comparison group or randomization
Quasi experiment
116
Type of research that includes case studies, open ended questions, field studies, participant observation, and ethnographic studies
Qualitative
117
What are some problems with qualitative research?
Researcher bias, question of generalizability of the findings
118
In interval with limits at either end with a specified probability of including the perimeter being estimated
Confidence interval
119
The probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups
Level of significance a.k.a. P value
120
What does the P value less than .05 represent
Experimental and control groups are considered to be significantly different
121
What does a negative one represent in regards to correlation
Perfect negative correlation
122
Also with symptoms of burning aching and pressure like pain occurring after eating meals
Duodenal
123
Hyper bulimia hypertension and hemodilution is recommended for which type of stroke
Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage
124
Dextrose increases the what in TPN
Osmolarity
125
First line medication for systolic dysfunction after MI
Ace inhibitor
126
Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139, diastolic blood pressure of 80 to 89 or both is classified as what
Pre-hypertension
127
Management of pre-hypertension in a patient with chronic kidney disease is what class of drug
ACE inhibitor
128
What is the goal and triple H therapy
Prevent cerebral vasospasm
129
What diseases characterized by chronic airway inflammation and superimpose bronchospasm
Asthma
130
When is oral prednisone indicated for in asthmatic
During in asthma flare with increased use of rescue drug
131
In patients with aortic stenosis with no symptoms and preserve injection fraction what therapy has been proposed as a way to slow the rate of stenosis
Statin therapy
132
High-pitched holosystolic murmur at the apex is what type of murmur
Mitral regurgitation
133
In a patient with DKA at what point do you change IV fluids from normal saline to D5w 1/2
When serum glucose reaches 250
134
Hyper residence can be found on exam during
Acute asthma or COPD flare
135
Most elder abuse is committed by who?
Adult children
136
What is the go oxygen saturation during a COPD exacerbation
88 to 90%
137
In pulmonary function test a decreased if using capacity of the long for carbon monoxide is seen with what disorder
Anemia
138
Measurement of the ease of transfer for carbon dioxide molecules from alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cells in the pulmonary circulation is called what
If you can capacity of the long for carbon monoxide DLCo
139
Dry crackles at the bases is a sign of what disease?
Emphysema
140
What happens to the FEV1/FVc ratio with obstructive lung disease
It is reduced. Obstruction of air escaping from the Lungs
141
Decreased FEV one, decrease FVC and increased FEB1/FVC is a pattern consistent with what type of disease?
Neuromuscular disease
