General Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
When is the wind shear warning active?
A
- on takeoff - ground to 1500’
- on landing - 1500’ to 10’ agl
- on missed approach - up to 1500’
2
Q
When is RNP in terminal?
A
- 30 miles from departure or destination
- at the first fix of a STAR
- until the last fix of a SID
3
Q
When does warning inhibit function?
A
- on take-off up to 400 agl
- on landing until it is deselected
4
Q
When should you check the engine oil.
A
- 5 to 30 minutes after shutdown
- not to exceed 14 hours of cumulative flight time between checks
- Check engine oil on the sight gages on the engine per Gulfstream
5
Q
Are the auto-throttles available in ALT control mode?
A
No
6
Q
What does a red “PYLON HOT” CAS message mean?
A
Bleed air leak in the pylon. Temp above 250°C
7
Q
Engine Ice shedding procedure
A
- Power to idle for 5 seconds then 85% LP for 2 seconds
1 engine at a time
8
Q
The FADEC keeps the engine on High Idle for landing for _____ seconds.
Why?
A
- 5 seconds
Facilitate T/R’s on touchdown
9
Q
Amber CAS “L-R Wing Hot” means?
A
Duct temp > 180°C
10
Q
Amber CAS “L-R Wing Temp Low” means?
A
Duct temp < 100°C
11
Q
Potable water tank capacity is __ US gallons.
A
30 US Gallons
12
Q
What is required for in-flight IRS alignment?
How can you make in-flight alignment go faster?
A
- GPS (only 1 is needed)
- Make turns, accelerate, and decelerate
13
Q
Why are some CB’s red and others black?
A
- Red CB’s - Essential
- Black CB’s - Non-essential
14
Q
What is the engine airstart procedure and altitude/speed limitations?
A
- Windmilling start
- Speeds > 250 knots
- Maximum altitude for airstart is 25,000’
15
Q
What conditions must exist for the activation of the automatic emergency decent mode (EDM)?
A
- Aircraft altitude at or > 40,000’
- Auto-pilot engaged
- Red CAS message “Cabin Pressure Low”
16
Q
Warning inhibit switch will inhibit all aural tones associated with CAS messages except:
A
- Red CAS messages
- Coupled Data Invalid (Lateral or Vertical)
- CAT II Invalid
- LPV Invalid
17
Q
What are the 2 idle settings and when are they active?
A
- Low idle - Flaps < 22°
- High idle - Flaps > 22°
18
Q
What function does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve provide (PRV)?
A
- Positive differential pressure relief
- Negative differential pressure relief
- Cabin re-pressurization rate limiting
- Ground pressurization limiting
- Opens fully 1 minute after WOW (landing)
19
Q
What is the emergency landing gear nitrogen blowdown bottle pressure?
A
3100 psi @ 70°F
20
Q
What are the 2 types of windshear warnings?
A
- Caution (Amber) - increasing performance
- Warning (Red) - decreasing performance
21
Q
What is the normal cabin differential pressure at FL450?
A
9.64 psi
22
Q
What does the blue CAS message “Start Switch Config” mean?
A
Both Start and Crank master switches selected
*FADEC will not allow engine start
23
Q
If the nose wheel steering fails, the rudder pedals go from ___° NWS authority to ___° NWS authority.
A
7° to 16°
24
Q
The combined WOW gets its information from which WOW switches?
A
Main wheel switches
*If 1 main switch is “Air” combined is “Air”
25
The Bleed Air Augmentatin valve (BAAV) operates above ______ feet.
35,000 feet
* Puts 400°C air into the APU inlet
* Delays the start for 15 seconds
26
Where can the fuel quantity can be found with only E-Batts?
MCDU #1
27
Can you use the auto-pilot for a single engine approach?
Yes
| *But, auto-pilot is not authorized for a single engine go-around*
28
How high must an obstacle be in order to appear on the IMap?
1000' agl
29
TCAS should be set to _____ for single engine ops.
TA only
30
When VGP mode is used, vertical guidance will ignore: ?
Altitude pre-selector
31
What is RNP for Approach, Terminal, and Enroute?
Approach 0.3
Terminal 1.0
Enroute 2.0
32
Which DU can you dispatch without?
DU #3
33
The bleed air controller (BAC) will try to maintain a wing leading edge temperature of _____°F.
130°F
34
The Engine Fire Handle shuts off what associated side items?
Fuel
Hydraulics
Electrics
35
What are the 4 ways to open the Bleed Air Isolation Valve?
1. Start Master
2. Crank Master
3. APU bleed air selected on
4. Isolation valve selected on
36
What is the cabin temp range in Auto?
| What is the temp range in Manual?
- Auto 60°F - 90°F
| Manual 35°F - 230°F
37
When may the auto-throttles be used?
AT's are approved for use from takeoff to landing
| *Prohibited for use during single engine approaches and single engine go-arounds.
38
Nose wheel steering starts reducing authority to the tiller to avoid over-steering at ____ knots.
18 knots
39
When is the Ground Service bus light on?
Anytime the ground service bus is powered by anything but the right main DC bus.
40
The Glideslope cancel switch on the Master Warning Panel will cancel glideslope alerts when activated below ______?
| When does it reset?
- 2000' agl
| Descend below 30' agl or climb above 2000' agl.
41
How long after APU start will the APU Load Control Valve allow APU bleed air for engine start and bleed air?
90 seconds once the APU has reached 95%rpm
| *No delay time during air starts
42
When is AGM reversion available?
On the ground below 60 knots
| *Above 60 knots the DU's revert automatically.
43
Auto-throttles stay in Hold mode up to ____ .
400' agl
44
What items are boxed by default on the Map?
Terrain
Obstacles
Traffic
Weather
45
The O2 relief value triggers at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ °F.
90 psi
2600 psi
225° F
46
Standard auto cabin rate of change?
500 fpm climbing
300 fpm descending
47
What is the temp scale limit on the engine start page before and after start?
800° before start
1000° after start
48
When is TOGA available?
Below 16,500' MSL and below 2000' agl
and/or Airspeed < 200 knots
49
Where does the SFD (Stand-by Flight Director) get it's information?
- Heading info - Magnetometer in the tail
- Static info - static ports on each side of aircraft
- Pitot info- pitot tube on L side of aircraft
- Nav info - Nav #1
- Attitude info - Internal AHRS
50
The Stall Barrier System is activated at what AOA?
0.70 - PLI
0.85 - Stick Shaker
1.0 - Stick Pusher
51
How do you turn on the radar on the ground?
Push "STAB" 4 times in 3 seconds
52
Which 5 lights do not test during the warning light test?
What else does it test?
- 2 lights in Engine Fire Handles, 2 lights in Engine Fuel Control Switches, 1 passenger Oxygen green light
- Cabin rate to full deflection
53
The APU is intended for use in flight for what emergency situations?
- Dual engine flame out
- Single engine failure
- Dual generator failure
- Single generator failure
54
GPWS Override inhibits all call outs except ________
Windsheer (Mode 7)
55
What does "ON BATT" on the IRS switch mean?
The IRS is not on its primary power source.
56
The Flight Director command bar for takeoff is at _____ pitch angle.
- 2 Engine V2 + 10 nose up
- 1 Engine V2 to V2 + 10 nose up
57
The Aileron Hardover Protection System (HOPS) shuts off hydraulic power to what surfaces?
Both aileron actuators and both spoiler actuators even if only on actuator sensed a hardover
58
The nose WOW switch information is used by what system?
Nose wheel steering
59
What does the FQSC do?
(Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner)
- Balances fuel during pressure refueling.
| - If a 500 lb imbalance is sensed, it shuts off fuel to the heavy wing until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.
60
"L-R Fuel Level Low" Amber CAS means?
Less than 650 lbs of fuel in the Hopper Tank
61
How much fuel does each hopper tank hold?
190 gallons / 1283 lbs
62
External AC power is capable of powering what buses?
All buses (Main batteries will also be charged)
63
How long will the batteries power the L and R Essential DC buses after 2 APU start attempts?
30 minutes
64
How many Ground Service Bus switches are there, and where are they located?
- 3 switches
| - Forward switch panel, tail compartment , system monitor test panel
65
What controls the No Break Power Transfer system?
BPCU - Bus Power Control Unit
66
APU generator will come on line on start up at _________.
95% after 4 seconds
67
All automatic power transfers will be NBPT's except between _______ and _______.
External AC power and APU generator
68
Main batteries switches illuminate ON when?
- Main batteries are powering the essential DC buses
- APU start
- Aux pump is running
69
With the main batteries on, what is a good way to check to E-Invertor?
Pressurization Panel
| - 2 green lights (Flight/Land)
70
What is the dead bus logic for the AUX TRU?
Left before Right
Essential before Main
71
What are the battery charger specs in charge mode and TRU mode?
- Charge mode - 38 amps, up to 32.2 volts, drops to 28.7 volts
- TRU mode - 40 amps, 28.7 volts
72
What bus charges the E-Batts?
Standby AC bus
73
What is powered by the avionics E-Batts?
1. 2 clocks
2. SFD(Standby Flight Display)
3. EBDI
4. Gear handle and indicator lights
5. MCDU 1 (Standby engine instruments)
6. MCDU 3 (Standby radio tuning)
7. Captain's audio panel
74
How many power sources does each MAU have?How many CB's?
- 4 sources - 4 CB's
Each has a primary and secondary
1A has 2 and 1B has 2
75
What will cause a Break Power Transfer?
- Engine fail
- Generator fail
- Power transfer between APU generator and an AC power cart
76
What 2 sources can power ESS DC buses simultaneously?
- L/R Batteries
| - Aux TRU (when powered by the HMG)
77
What are the E-Batt specs?
24 volt
9 amp
lead-acid
78
What are the E-Inverter specs?
1 kva
115 volts AC
400Hz
Phase A only
79
What is the normal AC power source for the Aux TRU and ESS AC bus?
Left Main AC bus
80
What are the power sources for each DU?
DU 1 - L-Ess DC
DU 2 - L-Main DC
DU 3 - R-Main DC
DU 4 - R-Ess DC
81
What indicates an AGM failure?
Red "X" on the DU
82
What is the power source for the STBY instruments?
E-Batts
83
When will the E-Batts activate when the system is armed?
Any time either L or R Ess DC bus drops below 20 volts
84
What are the specs of the IDG's (Integrated Drive Generators).
```
40 kVa
115 volts
400 HZ
3 phase AC
*Limited to 45% when outside temps are greater than 110°F/43°C
```
85
How many E-Batts are there?
4 total - 2 Avionics and 2 Lighting
86
The main aircraft batteries are rated at ____v/____amp/hours.
24 volt / 45 amp/hours
87
What are the power sources for the fuel pumps?
- L Main / L Ess DC
- R Main / R Ess DC
- L Aux / L Main DC
- R Aux / R Main DC
88
Where does the EBDI get its information from?
- Heading info - IRU 1, IRU 2, SDF
- Nav info - NAV 1, NAV 2
89
Service the left hydraulic system to _____ gallons.
Right system?
Left - 2.8 Gallons
Right - 0.7 Gallons
90
Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?
Opposite side fuel hopper tank
91
When armed, what will cause the Aux hydraulic pump to turn on automatically
- Brake pedal depressed > 10° with no other source of power to the brakes
92
HMG provides what type of electrical power?
5 kVa, 400Hz AC
93
Hydraulic accumulators are pre-charged to _____ psi.
1200 psi
94
Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems?
- L hydraulic system
- R hydraulic system via the PTU
- Aux hydraulic system
95
What conditions will prevent automatic PTU operation when the PTU is armed?
- L hydraulic system quantity low
- R hydraulic system fluid temp indicating high (>104°C)
96
What will cause the PTU to turn on automatically when it is armed?
-L system pressure drops below 1500 psi
97
The engine driven hydraulic pump puts out ____ psi @ ____ gallons per minute.
3000 psi 25 gallons per minute
98
What items are lost if you lose the right hydraulic system pressure?
- R Thrust Reverser
- Redundant hydraulics to the flight controls
99
What powers the FADEC?
- Below 35% HP - L/R Ess DC buses
- Above 35% HP - dedicated generator
100
What does FADEC stand for?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
101
Engine Specs
Rolls Toyce Tay 611-8C medium bypass ratio turbofan rated at 13,850 lbs of takeoff thrust at sea level, standard day
102
Where does the cowl heat get it's bleed air from?
- Own side 7th stage bleed port
103
—Pressurization System—
How many modes?
How many channels?
How do you switch channels?
- 3 Modes (Auto, Semi, and Manual)
- 2 Channels
- Manual to Auto switches channels
104
How many power sources does the outflow valve have?
- 3 power sources
| - 2 AC, 1 DC
105
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with Master Crank or Start?
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with individual engine start switch?
Right AC pack - Start or Crank Master
Left AC pack - Engine (left or right) start switch
106
If the APU is started in the air, what mode will it be in?
Essential mode
107
The APU is supplied fuel from _____?
Left wing fuel hopper tank using the left main fuel pump
108
What items should be checked on the APU fire test?
- 2 overhead lights
- 4 Master caution and warning lights
- 2 CAS message
-Amber Left Fire Bottle Discharge
-Amber Essential AC Bus Fail
109
Will the APU shut down automatically upon detection of a fire?
Yes
110
What is the APU fuel burn?
About 190 PPH
111
Which bottle is the APU fire bottle?
Left (#2)
112
What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU enclosure?
Fuel is shut off at the APU fuel control and at the fuel tank
113
What are the "Cabin Pressure Low" CAS message trips points?
- 8000' when LFE < 7500'
- 10,000' when 7500' < LFE < 9500'
- 14,500' when LFE > 9500'
- 10,000' when in Manual mode
114
The left hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:
- Flight controls
- Flight spoilers
- Ground spoilers
- Yaw damper
- Stall barrier
- Landing gear
- Flaps
- Normal brakes
- Nose wheel steering
- HMG- Ground spoiler "pop-up signal"
- Left thrust reverser
115
The right hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid for:
- Ailerons
- Rudder
- Stall barrier
- Ground Spoilers
- PTU Motor
- Elevators
- Flight Spoilers
- Yaw Damper
- Right T/R
116
The Aux hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:
- Flaps
- Rudder / Yaw damper (550)
- Nosewheel steering (550)
- Brakes- Parking / Emergency brakes
- Main cabin door
- Ground spoiler "pop-up signal" (G550)
- Landing gear and doors (Ground only)
117
When do the battery chargers go into TR mode?
- All 3 conditions met -
1. L and R Main AC buses are powered
2. L and R Main battery switches on
3. Essential buses TR's failed or Aux pump and APU start
118
HMG provides AC power to:
Aux TRU and standby AC buses
119
What will occur with the activation of the EDM?
1. Speed target to Vmo/Mmo
2. Altitude pre-select to 15,000'
3. 90° left turn set in heading hold
4. AT power to idle
5. Descent at Vmo/Mmo to 15,000'
6. At 15,000' speed target changes to 250KCAS
7. AT maintains 250 KCAS
120
Ground service bus is powered by ______ ?Ground:Air:
```
Ground:
- R Main DC bus (when avail.)
- R battery or from Ext DC power
Air:
- R Main DC bus
```
121
???What are the 12th stage bleed air set points. (on triggers to supplement 7th stage air)
???- Auto opens to maintain 14 psi
- Normally regulates to 24 psi
- 35 psi minimum on single pack ops.
- Wing anti-ice selected on
122
Name the causes for a red CAS "AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION" message.
- Flap Handle
- Parking/Emer brake handle
- Speed Brake
- T/R's
- Elevator trim
- GPWS/GRN SPLR/FLAP ORIDE switch
- Gear Handle
123
What are the needed actions for a start valve failure to close?
1. Start Master - Press/light out
2. L/R engine bleeds - Off
3. APU bleed air - Off
4. Wait 30 seconds for bleed air to stabilize
5. Affected engine - Fuel Off- Amber flashing "SVO" icon next to ground idle HP- Start valve should close by 47% H
124
Altitude Trend Vector shows where altitude will be in _____ seconds at the current rate of climb or rate of descent.
6 seconds
125
What is the CAS message for an Elevator HOPS activation?
Amber "ELEVATOR HYDRAULICS OFF"
126
- What does the "Lateral Control" switch do?
| - Is there a CAS message when it is selected?
- Removes all hydraulic power from the spoiler system
| - Amber CAS "Spoilers Hydraulics Off"
127
- What does the EMER STAB switch do?
| - What is it's associated CAS message?
- Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled by movement of the electric pitch trim switches when EMER STAB is selected to ARM.
- Amber "Emergency Stabilizer On A-B " CAS message
128
When the "RAD ALT" Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS aural call-outs except ...?
BANK ANGLE and MINIMUMS
129
When the "GPWS" Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS alerts except ...?
WINDSHEER
130
What is the power source for the Emergency Exit Lights?
Emergency Batteries
131
What is the G450 Maximum Useable Fuel Weight?
29,500 lbs
132
How many lights / items appear during an APU fire test?
-9 total
>2 overhead
>4 master warning/caution panel
>1 red cas, 1 amber cas
Bell on ground
133
Which exterior power source has priority?AC or DC?
AC
134
E-Batts (when armed) will activate when:?
An ESS DC bus drops below 20 volts
135
How many Fault Warning Computers (FWC) are installed on the G450?
2
136
When selected for takeoff, the INHIBIT function is active up to what altitude?
400 feet AGL
137
What does ON BATT in the IRS switch mean?
- The IRS is NOT using its primary electrical power source and is being powered by the Emergency Battery system.
138
How many GPS units are on the G450?
2
139
How many MAU's are installed?
How many power sources for each MAU?
3 MAU's
4 Power sources each
140
If DU2 and DU3 are failed, how do you change DU4 to a MAP display?
- Push 2/3 button for 3 seconds on either Display Controller
- Push MAP button on copilot Display Controller
141
What value should be lower for normal RNP operation, RNP or EPU?
Epu should always be lower than rnp for normal operations
142
When will the APPROACH label appear on the HSI during FMS operation?
2 NM prior to the Final Approach Fix (FAF)
143
What items are selected for display by default on power up on MAP?
- TERRAIN
- TRAFFIC
- WEATHER RADAR
- OBSTACLES
144
With auto throttles engaged on takeoff, HOLD on the PFD appears at what speed?
HOLD memains engaged until what altitude on takeoff?
60 knots
400 feet
145
When will auto speeds for performance disappear after takeoff?
- When the flap position is changed or a new vertical mode (FLCH, VNAV) is selected
146
If the HEADING mode is selected on the Guidance Panel. what annunciation will appear on the bottom of the VSD?
- TRACK- Terrain display is located under the TRACK LINE
147
What is the range of operation of the RADAR ALTIMETER?
-20 to 2500 feet AGL
148
At what RADAR ALTITUDE will the GROUND REFERENCE TAPE appear on the PFD altimeter?
600 feet AGL
149
What is the power logic for auto throttles operation when using FLCH with auto throttles engaged?
- If next altitude is > 6000 feet, auto throttles use CLB EPR
- If next altitude is < 6000 feet, auto throttles use less than CLB EPR
150
Below what altitude will the TCAS system operate in TA mode only?
500 feet
151
When is the WINDSHEAR warning system active?
- On Takeoff from Ground to 1,500 feet AGL
- On Approach from 1,500 feet AGL to 10 feet AGL
- On Missed Approach to 1,500 feet AGL
152
What GPWS warnings are INHIBITED with the GPWS ORDE switch on the Master Warning Panel?
All EGPWS audio warnings except WINDSHEAR
153
What is inhibited with the RAD ALT switch on the Master Warning Panel?
RADIO ALTITUDE audio callouts
154
What airport limitations require selection of the TERRAIN INHIBIT button?
- Within 15 NM of a landing airport when:
>The airport has no published instrument approach
>The longest runway is less than 3,500 ft
>The airport is not in the database
>QFE procedures are used for approach and landing
155
What is the heading source for the SFD?
Magnetometer
156
What are the heading sources for the EBDI?
What NAV radios send NAV information to the EBDI?
- Heading > IRS1, IRS2, SFD STBY HDG
- NAV > NAV 1 and 2, ADF 1 and 2
157
What are the weather radar ground operating limitations?
- Not within 49 feet of personal
- DO NOT operate when refueling
- DO NOT operate when within 300 feet of other refueling operations
158
How do you activate the weather radar on the ground?
Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds
159
The HMG provides:
- AC power to the AUX TRU and Standby AC Buses
- Rated at 5 KVA, 115 volt 400 HZ, 3 Phase AC
- It is powered by the left hydraulic system
160
What is the normal AC power source for the AUX TRU and ESS AC Bus?
L Main AC Bus
161
What is the purpose of the E INVERTER?
Provides AC power to the ESS AC bus (if the bus loses power)
162
If you lose L MAIN AC power, what happens automatically?
- AUX TRU transfers to R MAIN AC bus and powers L ESS DC bus
- ESS AC bus tranfers to R MAIN AC bus
163
What 2 sources can power the ESS DC bus simultaneously?
- L/R MAIN Batteries
- AUX TRU (when powered by the HMG)
164
What is the function of BUS TIE ISLN SWITCH?
- Allows you to isolate buses
- Allows alternate power sources to power failed bus side
165
What will turn of the Ground Service Bus automatically?
- Main cabin door closed
- Forward external switch panel access door closed
- Tail compartment door closed
- NOTE: All doors must be closed for automatic shutoff
166
When the aircraft operates on emergency batteries the crew can only tune:
* Comm 1
* Nav 1
* ATC 1 on MCDU 3
167
After APU start and selecting the APU Bleed Air, when does the Crossbleed Isolation Valve automatically open?
90 seconds after 95% RPM
168
What is the difference between Essential and Non Essential APU modes?
* Essential - Air
* Non Essential - Ground
* Not all AUTO shutdowns are active in Essential Mode
169
The APU is capable of driving the generator when it has reached:
95% RPM for at least 4 seconds
170
If the APU is started in the air, what mode is the APU in? How long will it remain in that mode after landing?
- Essential Mode
| - 15 Minutes
171
What does APU ESSENTIAL CAS message mean?
APU is running while in flight, and a fault is detected which normally would cause APU to shut down if not in ESSENTIAL mode
172
What are the APU starter limitations?
* 3 start attempts
* 1 hour cool down
* *For DC exteral starts a 15 minute cool down is required between start attempts
173
APU generator loading is limited to __% between altitudes of _____feet and _____ feet at speeds greater than __ Mach.
85% between altitudes of 30,000 feet and 37,000 feet and speeds greater than 0.85 Mach
174
FADEC has how many power channels?
2 (A & B)
