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general Flashcards

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1
Q

Upper GI bleeds is proximal the ligament of

A

ligament of Trietz

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2
Q

lower GI bleeds is distal to the

A

ligament of Trietz

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3
Q

upper GI bleeds clinical features

A

haematemesis, melaena, elevated urea, dyspepsia, reflux, epigastric pain, NSAIDS use

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4
Q

lower GI bleed features

A

fresh, magenta stools, normal urea, painless, common in elderly

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5
Q

most common cause of an upper GI bleed?

A

peptic ulcer

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6
Q

Zollinger Ellison syndrome is

A

gastrin secreting pancreatic tumour that causes recurrent poor healing duodenal ulcers

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7
Q

Mallory Weiss tear is typically at the

A

oesophago-gastric junction

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8
Q

diuelafoy refers to

A

submucosal arteriolar vessel eroding through mucosa

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9
Q

lower GI haemorrhage Angiodysplasia treatment

A

Aargon phototherapy, tranexamic acid, thalidomide

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10
Q

acute GI bleeding Meckel’s diverticulum diagnostic investigation

A

nuclear scintigraphy

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11
Q

treatment of GI bleed in terms of circulation

A

wide bore access for fluids and blood
blood samples
catheter
tranexamic acid

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12
Q

haemorrhagic stroke features

A 
high respiratory rate
rapid pulse
anxiety
clammy, cool skin
low urine output 
low blood pressure
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13
Q

bleeding uncontrolled at endoscopy treatment

A

sengstaken-blakemore tube trnasjugular intrahepatic porto-systemic shunt

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14
Q

recommended units of alcohol

A

6

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15
Q

FAST positive score to perform an AUDIT

A

> 3

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16
Q

AUDIT SCORE OF >20

A

possible dependence

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17
Q

AUDIT SCORE OF 16-19

A

higher risk

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18
Q

AUDIT SCORE OF 8-15

A

increasing risk

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19
Q

AAT to ALT ratio

A

> 2

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20
Q

causes of hepatic encephalopathy

A 
Infection
Drugs
Constipation
GI Bleed
Electrolyte Disturbance
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21
Q

Glasgow hepatitis score criteria

A 
Age
WCC
urea
INR
bilirubin
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22
Q

alcoholic hepatitis nutritional support requires

A

thiamine

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23
Q

small intestine is how long?

A

6m

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24
Q

small bowel is renewed every

A

4-6 days

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25
large bowel turnover is every
3-8 days
26
intrinsic neuromuscular control of the small and large bowel
myenteric plexus via Meissener's plexus | Auerbach Plexus
27
Meissener's plexus location
base of submucosa
28
Auerbach plexus location
inner circular, and outer longitudinal layers of the muscularis propria
29
Crohn's disease genetic association
NOD 2 gene
30
Ulcerative Colitis gene association
HLA
31
pANCA positive in which patients of IBD
75% in UC | 11% in CD
32
ulcerative have granulomas?
no
33
Crohn's disease granulomas
yes non-caseating granulomas
34
dysplasia in hindgut commonly
adenoma tubular
35
low grade adenoma dysplasia of the lower gut
increased nuclear number and size, reduced mucin
36
high grade dysplasia adenoma of the lower gut
carcinoma in situ, crowded, irregular, not yet invasive.
37
genetics of colorectal carcinoma
FAP HNPCC Peutz-Jeghers
38
congenital ano-rectal abnormalities
imperforate anus uro-genital fistulae hirschprung's myenteric plexus deficiency
39
acquired ano-rectal abnormalities
haemorrhoids, fissure, abscesses, fistula in ano, ulceration, cancer, control of continence
40
procedure for prolapse and haemorrhoids
stapled anopexy
41
most likely site for a colo-rectal cancer site
left colon
42
anal squamous cancer treatment
radiotherapy
43
rectal adenocarcinoma treatment
neo adjuvant chemorad | laparoscopic resection
44
Dukes A 5yr survival
>90% submucosa
45
drugs for acid suppression
antacids, H2 receptor antagonists, proton pump inhibitors
46
drugs affecting GI motility
anti-emetics, anti-muscarinics, anti motility
47
drugs affecting IBD
aminosalicylates, corticosteriods, immuno- suppressants, biologics
48
drugs affecting intestinal secretions
bile acid sequestrates and ursodeoxycholic acid
49
antacids contain what metals?
magnesium or aluminium
50
alginates mechanism for working
gel that floats on stomach
51
H2 receptors antagonists block which receptor
histamine
52
H2 receptor antagonists indicated for
GORD/peptic ulcer disease
53
side effects of PPI's
GI upset, C.difficile infection hypomagnesaemia, B12 deficiency
54
mechanism of prokinetic agents on GI motility
parasympathetic control of smooth muscle and sphincter tone via Ach
55
vomiting centre is located
medulla
56
anti-motility drug mechanism for GI
opiate receptors to decrease ACh release
57
anti spasmodics mechanisms
1. anti-cholinergic muscarinic antagonists 2. direst smooth muscle relaxants 3. Calcium CB's
58
types of laxatives
bulk osmotic stimulant softeners
59
contraindications and side effects of aminosalicylates in IBD
caution in renal impairment | may cause GI upset, blood dyscasias, renal impairment
60
IBD corticosteriods concerns
osteoporosis, weight gain, infection, addisonian crisis
61
IBD immunosuppressants mechanism
prevents formation of purines for Dna synthesis
62
adverse effects of immunosuppressants in IBD
bone marrow suppression, hypersensitivity, organ damage, drug interactions
63
biologics name
anti TNF alpha antibodies infliximab
64
cautions and effects of infliximab
TB, MS, pregnancy and infections. effects are infection, reactions, anaemia, demyelination, malignancy, thrombocytopenia
65
drugs affecting biliary secretions
cholestyramine, ursodexycholic acid
66
mechanism of cholestyramine for biliary secretions
reduces bile salts, enables excretion as insoluble complex
67
cholestyramine side affects
reduces absorption of other drugs, affects fat soluble vitamin absorption and decrease vitamin K levels
68
ursodeoxycholic acid uses in what conditions
gallstones, Primary biliary cirrhosis
69
ursodeoxycholic acid mechanism for action
inhibits enzymes for cholesterol formation, slowly dissolves non-calcified stones
70
factors affecting absorption in the GI- drugs
pH, gut length, transit time
71
distribution GI affects - drugs
low albumin
72
metabolism GI affects -drugs
liver enzymes, increased gut bacteria, liver blood flow, gut wall metabolism
73
excretion affects in GI - drugs
biliary excretion
74
severity of liver disease classification
child-pugh classification
75
criteria for child Pugh classification
bilirubin, albumin, PT, encephalopathy, ascites
76
dangerous drugs to consider with liver disease
warfarin, aspirin, opiates
77
second leading cause of cancer death in the western world is
colorectal cancer
78
95% of colorectal cancers are what pathology?
adenocarcinomas
79
strongest risk factor for colorectal cancer
sporadic with no familial/genetic influence
80
2 histological types of colorectal adenoma polyps
tubular(75%) /villous
81
oncogenes involved in colorectal adenoma
k-ras, c-myc
82
loss of tumour suppressor genes in colorectal adenoma
APC, p53, DCC
83
Chemotherapy for treatment in colorectal cancer for
adjuvant, DUKES C +B, cleans up micrometastases
84
agent for chemotherapy in colorectal cancer
5-FU
85
radiotherapy in colorectal cancer is used only for
rectal cancer
86
Dukes stage A colorectal cancer 5yr survival percentage
83%
87
DUKES stage D colorectal cancer 5yr survival percentage
3%
88
age 50-74 receive a FOBT every how many years?
2 years
89
heritable conditions for colorectal cancer
FAP - familial adenomatous polyposis | HNPCC- hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
90
FAP is a … condition (penetration)
autosomal dominant
91
FAP receives what medication as a form of prevention
NSAIDS chemoprevention
92
out of 2000 people in regards to bowel cancer how many people have cancer?
1
93
high risk features in rectal bleeding
persistent changes in bowel habit, with anal symptoms (>6 weeks), right sided abdominal mass, palpable rectal mass, unexplained iron deficiency
94
5 ethics
autonomy, equity, justice, beneficence, malfeasance
95
functional GI disorder's examples
oesophageal spasm, non-ulcer dyspepsia, biliary dyskinesia, irritable bowel syndrome, slow transit constipation, drug related effects
96
causes of non-ulcer dyspepsia
reflux, low grade duodenal ulceration, delayed gastric emptying, irritable bowel syndrome
97
functional causes of vomiting
migraine, drugs, pregnancy, cyclical vomiting syndrome, alcohol.
98
alarming symptoms for functional bowel diseases and stools
``` age >50 short symptom history unintentional weight loss nocturnal symptoms male sex cancer history anaemia rectal bleeding recent antibiotics mass ```
99
investigations for functional bowel diseases
FBC, blood glucose, U+E, thyroid, coeliac, FIT, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy
100
functional causes of constipation
megacolon, idiopathic constipation, depression, psychosis, and institutionalised patients
101
organic causes of constipation
stricture, tumours, diverticular disease, proctitis and anal fissures
102
systemic causes of constipation
diabetes, hypothyroidism, hypercalcaemia
103
neurogenic causes of constipation
autonomic neuropathies, Parkinson's disease, strokes, MS, spina bifida
104
clinical features of IBS
pain, altered habit, bloating, belching, wind, flatulence, mucus
105
NICE diagnostic criteria
mucus, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, altered stool passage
106
calprotectin is released by
inflamed gut mucosa, differentiates by IBS and IBD
107
FODMAP
fermentable oligo, di, and mono saccharides and polyols fructose, lactose, fructans, galactans and polyols
108
IBS drugs for pain
antispasmodics, linaclotide, antidepressants
109
IBS drugs for bloating
probiotics, linaclotide
110
IBS drugs for constipation
laxatives (bulking, softeners, stimulants, osmotic), linaclotide
111
diarrhoea IBS treatment
antimotility agents | FODMAP
112
psychological interventions for functional bowel disease
relaxation, hypnotherapy, CBT, psychodynamic
113
relaxation training for functional bowel disease uses
diarrhoea and psychological co-morbidity
114
hypnotherapy for functional bowel disease uses
pain, constipation, flatulence, anxiety
115
CBT for functional bowel disease uses
abdominal pain, bloating, flatulence
116
psychodynamic interpersonal therapy for functional bowel disease uses
history of abuse
117
IBS - D impact on intestinal motility
stronger frequent contractions
118
IBS -C impact on intestinal motility
contractions reduced
119
peristaltic rhythm is generated by pacemaker cells in the longitudinal muscles is every .. minutes
~3 minutes
120
function of somatostatin
controls secretion of insulin and glucagon
121
what is the name of the membrane bound enzyme that convers trypsinogen to trypsin
enterokinase
122
enzyme that cleaves peptide bonds
proteases
123
nucleases enzyme function
hydrolyses DNA/RNA
124
enzyme responsible for collagen digestion
elastases
125
phospholipids into fatty acids enzymes
phospholipases
126
starch to maltose + glucose enzyme
alpha amylase
127
zymogen secreted by what hormone?
Cholecystokinin
128
what converts CO2 + H2O into H2CO3
carbonic anhydrase
129
adenosine cyclase converts ATP into what?
cAMP
130
ATP conversion into cAMP is regulated by
histamine and prostaglandins via G proteins and adenosine cyclase
131
gastrin and acetylcholine regulate protein kinases via
Ca
132
defect in absorbing an intrinsic factor results in
pernicious anaemia
133
oesophagus mucosa is
stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium
134
in the small intestine there is the crypts of
Leiberkuhn
135
lymphoid aggregations in the small intestine are called
peyer's patches
136
Paneth cells
synthesize antimicrobial peptides and proteins
137
intestinal cells that synthesize antimicrobial peptides and proteins in crypts
Paneth cells
138
innate immune cells
neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil, mast cell, monocyte, dendritic cell, macrophage, natural killer cell
139
adaptive immune cell
``` CD4 T cell CD 6 T cell B Cell memory cell plasma Cell ```
140
what are the three signals that determine a T Cell response
MHC peptide-TCR CD80-CD28 cytokine
141
integrins are
transmembrane proteins
142
bedside investigations
BMI, pulse oximetry, ECG, capillary glucose, urinalysis
143
urine collections analyse what
5HIAA, catecholamines
144
risks for upper GI endoscopic investigations
aspiration, perforation, haemorrhage
145
risks for colonoscopy investigations
perforation, haemorrhage, renal impairment
146
ECRP investigation risks
pancreatitis, haemorrhage, perforation, infection, mortality
147
submucosal neurone plexus
Meissner's plexus parasympathetic
148
myenteric plexus is between what two muscular layers
circular and longitudinal muscle
149
antibiotic use impact on the GI microbiome
reduces diversity and increases Enterobacteriaceae
150
mechanisms of action for probiotics
competition, bioconversion, production of vitamins, direct antagonisms, competitive exclusion, barrier function, reduce inflammation, immune stimulation
151
selected prebiotics
FOS & Inulin, galactose, lactulose
152
endoscopy ALARMS
``` anorexia loss of weight anaemia recent onset melaena swallowing problems ```
153
H. Pylori +/- and description
negative spiral shaped microaerophilic flagellated
154
H. Pylori has infected how many people
50% of the world
155
H. pylori urease dependent diagnostic tests
breath tests 13C or 14C carbon dioxide or ammonia utilised in urease tests
156
gastritis causes
autoimmune bacterial chemical bile
157
H. pylori triple therapy
clarithromyocin 500mg amoxycillin PPI omeprazole 7 days
158
complications of peptic ulcer
acute bleeding, chronic bleeding, perforation, fibrotic stricture, gastric outlet obstruction
159
gastric outlet obstruction blood key markers
low cl low na low K renal impairment
160
cholangiocarcinoma risk factors
PSC, congenital cystic disease, Biliary enteric drainage, thorotrast, hepatolithiasis, carcinogens
161
acute inflammation of hepatitis A, and E on the liver outcome
resolution
162
acute inflammation of hepatitis A, B, E, on the liver outcome
failure if severe damage
163
acute inflammation of the liver outcome via hepatitis b, C
progression to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis B, C
164
haemoglobin is broken down in the
Spleen
165
haemoglobin forms
haem and globin
166
Primary biliary cholangitis is what disease?
auto-immune
167
PBC normally affects
females 9:1
168
PBC normally has what biomarkers in serum?
anti-mitochondrial auto-antibodies, and Raised serum alkaline phosphatase
169
pathology of PBC
granulomatous inflammation involving bile ducts, loss of intrahepatic bile ducts, progression to cirrhosis
170
metabolic disorders that may lead to cirrhosis
primary haemochromatosis ( excess iron) Wilson's disease (excess copper)
171
Crohn's and UC classification
Montreal classification
172
ulcerative colitis markers - specific
``` fever > 37.5C tachycardia >90/min ESR(CRP) raised anaemia hb <10g/dl albumin <30g/l leucocytosis, thrombocytosis ```
173
IBD inflammatory indices
``` high ESR, CRP high platelet high WCC low Hb low albumin Calprotectin ```
174
Crohn's disease specific histological markers
granulomas
175
IBD extra intestinal manifestations
``` eyes (uveitis, episcleritis, conjunctivitis) joints (sacroiliitis, monoarticular arthritis ankylosing arthritis) Renal calculi (CD) liver and biliary tree (fatty change, pericholangitis, sclerosing cholangitis, gallstones) Skin (pyoderma gangerosum, erythema nodosum, vasculitis) ```
176
IBD differential diagnosis
chronic diarrhoeas, Ileo-caecal TB, colitis (infective, amoebic, ischaemia colitis)
177
IBD out patient management
5ASA steroids immunosuppression
178
IBD hospital managment
``` steroids anticoagulation infliximab surgery cyclosporine ```
179
mild to moderate UC 1st line therapy is
5ASA
180
optimal dosage of prednisolone for UC
40mg per day
181
what antibiotic is offered in Crohn's peri-anal disease
metronidazole
182
Crohn's surgical indications
``` failure of medical management relief of obstructive symptoms management of fistulae management of intra-abdominal abscess management of anal conditions ```
183
Crohn's recurrence post surgery
50%
184
synthetic function of liver
clotting factors, bile acids, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, hormones
185
what hormones are formed in the liver
angiotensinogen and insulin like growth factor
186
detoxification liver functions
urea production from ammonia, detoxification of drugs, bilirubin metabolism, breakdown of insulin and hormones.
187
liver storages
glycogen, vitamins A, D, B12, K and stores copper and iron.
188
raised aminotransferases suggests what involvement?
parenchymal
189
what drugs can raise Gamma GT
NSAIDS
190
differential diagnosis for Jaundice
carotenemia
191
bilirubin detectable when exceeding ...umol/L
34
192
complications of ERCP
sedation related pancreatitis cholangitis sphincterotomy
193
chronic liver disease is when the disease persists longer than ...months
6 months
194
presentation of compensated chronic liver disease
routinely detected on screening tests, abnormality of liver function tests
195
decompensated chronic liver disease clinical presentation
ascites variceal hepatic encephalopathy
196
new onset ascites requires what investigation
diagnostic paracentesis
197
SAAG >1.1g/dl
portal hypertension massive metastatic spread constrictive pericarditis
198
SAAG < 1.1g/dl
malignancy Tb pancreatic
199
uncontrolled variceal bleeding management
endoscopic band ligation terlipressin sengstaken-blakemore tube
200
hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with which viral hepatitis
B & C
201
hepatocellular tumour marker
AFP
202
external anal sphincter is comprised of
skeletal muscle
203
colon actively transports when from lumen into blood
sodium
204
bacterial fermentation in the colon produces
short chain fatty acids, vitamin K and gas
205
following retention of faecal material in constipation is there absorption of toxins
no
206
enterotoxigenic bacteria in the gut work through what mechanism
protein enterotoxins turn of intestinal chloride secretions from crypt cells increasing H20 secretions
207
enterotoxigenic bacteria via increasing chloride secretion through what secondary messengers
cAMP cGMP calcium
208
ligament separating the right and left liver lobes
falciform ligament which leads onto the round ligament
209
which lobe is next the gallbladder
quadrate lobe
210
which lobe is next to the inferior vena cava
caudate lobe
211
what components of bile is secreted by hepatocytes?
``` bile acids lecithin cholesterol bile pigments toxic metals ```
212
what components of bile solubilise fat and are synthesised in the liver?
bile acids lecithin cholesterol
213
how many grams of cholesterol is synthesised in a day?
0.5g
214
bile acids are conjugated with what prior to secretion?
glycine or taurine
215
1 word to describe the action of secretin
neutralisation
216
1 word to describe the action of Cholecystokinin
digestion
217
hepatic A and E are what sort of viruses?
enteric
218
hepatic B, C and D are what sort of viruses?
parental
219
hepatic A and E are what sort of infections?
self limiting acute
220
hepatic B, C and D are what sort of infections?
chronic
221
how many people a year die from hepatitis?
1 million
222
acute hepatitis A is diagnosed by what antibodies?
IgM
223
who receives a HAV immunisation?
travellers, patients with chronic liver disease, haemophiliacs, occupational exposure and gay community
224
HBV antigen HBsAg is indicative of what? | surface antigen
presence of virus
225
HBV antigen e HBeAg is indicative of what?
active replication
226
hepatitis core antigen HBV HbcAg is indicative of what
active replication
227
HBV DNA is indicative of what
active replication
228
IgM anti HBc antibody indicates what?
acute infection
229
IgG anti HBc HBV antibody indicates what?
chronic infection
230
anti HBe HBV antibody indicates what
inactive virus
231
HDV often co-infects with which virus?
HBV
232
HDV viral description
small RNA virus, no protein coat enveloped by HBsAg
233
NAFLD criteria
``` AGE diabetes BMI AST:ALT platelet count albumin ```
234
high risk NALFD stats
``` >45 diabetic >30BMI AST:ALT >1 low platelet count <150 low albumin <34 ```
235
treatment for NAFLD
``` weight and exercise insulin sensitizers glucagon like peptides vitamin E farnesoid X nuclear receptor ligand ```
236
autoimmune hepatitis is influenced by which antibody
IgG
237
PSC is which gender dominant
male
238
what disease is pANCA positive
PSC
239
anti-liver transplant rejection drugs are
steroids azathiopurine cyclosporine
240
facultative anaerobic bacteria definition
can grow in presence and absence of O2
241
obligate anaerobe definition
cannot grow in presence of oxygen
242
what are the three short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria in the gut
butyrate, propionate, acetate
243
butyrate function in cells
epithelial cell growth and regeneration
244
propionate role in the liver
gluconeogenesis in the liver | satiety signalling
245
acetate role in the tissues and lipids
transported to peripheral tissues and involved in lipogenesis
246
right side of the colon in comparison to the left side of the colon in terms of microbiota metabolism
right is more carbohydrate rich mildly acidic rapid turnover
247
left side microbiota metabolism of the colon
little fermentable carbs pH neutral turnover slow
248
two mechanism of colonisation resistance against pathogens by microbes in the gut
barrier effect | active competitive exclusion
249
at what pH do pathogens optimally grow at
>6
250
which side of the colon is more susceptible to disease?
left side higher pH slower transit less substrate
251
name hexose sugars
glucose, galactose, fructose
252
lactose consists of
glucose + galactose
253
sucrose consists of
glucose + fructose
254
maltose consists of
glucose + glucose
255
alpha amylose is glucose linked in …
straight chains
256
amylopectin is glucose linked in
highly branched chains
257
glycogen and starch are monomers linked by
alpha 1,4, glyosidic bonds
258
alpha 1,4, glyosidic bonds in glycogen and starch are broken down by what enzyme and mechanism
hydrolysed by amylase
259
cellulose molecular structure
unbranched linear chains of glucose monomers linked by beta 1,4 glycosidic bonds
260
what transmembrane protein channels does fructose travel through
GLUT 5 then GLUT 2
261
what transmembrane protein channel does glucose exit the cell via
GLUT 2
262
triacylglycerol consists of
a glycerol and 3 stearic acids
263
fat soluble vitamins are
A, D,E, K
264
water soluble vitamins are
B group, C and folic acid
265
iron is transported across a brush border membrane ..
DMT1
266
iron in the blood binds to
transferrin
267
stored iron is incorporated into
ferritin
268
fixed components for nutritional demand
basal requirements membrane function mechanical work substrate turnover
269
variable component for nutritional demand
processing intake physical activity body temp growth
270
BMI =
weight KG/ height squared (m)
271
BMI > 25 is
overweight
272
BMI > 30 is
obese
273
BMI <20
underweight
274
BMI < 16
severe consequences
275
high risk of refeeding problems criteria
BMI <16 no nutritional intake for 10 day low potassium, phosphate or magnesium history of drug use or alcohol
276
treatment to avoid refeeding problems
correct fluid depletion thiamine before feeding feed 5-10kcal/kg gradual increase
277
acute pancreatitis is associated with a rise in which serum biomarker
amylase
278
75% of carcinoma of the pancreas is
duct cell mucinous adenocarcinoma
279
mean survival of pancreatic carcinoma inoperable
<6months
280
oesophagus ends at what vertebral level
T11-T12
281
hypermotility oesophageal disorders often present with what appearance on a BA swallow
corkscrew
282
cause of a hypermotility disorder is often
idiopathic
283
hypomotility often caused by
connective tissue disease, diabetes and neuropathy
284
complications of motility disorders
aspiration pneumonia, squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma
285
squamous cell carcinoma often occurs in the what part of the oesophagus
proximal and middle third
286
survival rate of oesophageal cancer
<10% 5yr
287
demographic details on a X-ray
``` name ID gender DOB date time location ```
288
GALT stands for
Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue
289
vitamin A deficiency results in
night blindness
290
thiamine deficiency signs
memory, dementia
291
niacin deficiency signs
dermatitis, unexplained heart failure
292
vitamin C deficiency
scurvy
293
what is a skin manifestation of Coeliac disease
dermatitis herpetiformis
294
pathology of dermatitis herpetiformis
IgA deposit in skin
295
IgA or IgG more reliable in coeliac disease?
IgA if you make IgA
296
97% of coeliacs are positive in which genes?
HLA
297
Coeliacs are sensitive to which fraction of gluten?
Gliadin
298
Gluten is found in
wheat, rye and barley
299
Giardia Lamblia is responsible, is what, for what and responds to
unicellular parasite that causes malabsorption and responds t metronidazole
300
causative agent in whipples disease is
tropheryma whippelii
301
iron absorption takes place in what part of the small intestine
duodenum
302
crypt cells secrete
Cl + water
303
intracellular messengers involved in CFTR secretion of Cl
ATP into cAMP by adenylate Cyclase which then stimulates PKA which activates CFTR
304
pacemaker cells for segmental contractions are embedded in the
longitudinal muscle layer
305
migrating motility complex is initiated by what hormone
motilin
306
tumour markers for pancreatic cancer are
Ca19-9
307
O-A-TIGER causes of chronic pancreatitis
``` obstruction autoimmune toxin idiopathic genetic environmental recurrent injury ```
308
borborygmic stands for
rumbling/gurgling noise in the intestines
309
EUS investigation In oesophageal cancer is good for which staging
T/N
310
PET CT scan is good for which stage
M
311
side effects of laparoscopic hiatus hernia repair and fundoplication
``` dysphagia difficulty to belch gas bloating excessive flatulence diarrhoea ```
312
spread of oesophageal cancer via blood goes to
liver
313
autoimmune gastritis results in the loss of
intrinsic factor | decreased acid production
314
high mucous content glands are controlled by which receptors
sympathetic alpha 1 adrenoreceptors
315
high amylase content glands are controlled by which receptors
sympathetic amylase content beta 2 adrenoreceptors

Gastro intestinal tract (3 decks)

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