General ANA Flashcards
(304 cards)
1
Q
When the scapula moves anterior & lateral it is called _______.
A
Protaction
2
Q
Calcitonin is secreted by which cell?
A
Parafollicular
3
Q
Which pulse is palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad?
A
Ulnar
4
Q
Which types of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract?
A
Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar
5
Q
The palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus form which of the following?
A
Pillars of Fauces
6
Q
What is a characteristic of the large intestine?
A
Haustra
7
Q
The esophageal hiatus is located @ which vertebral level?
A
T10
8
Q
The peronius longus tendon goes under the foot & crosses the groove of which bone?
A
Cuboid
9
Q
Which of the following structures pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm?
A
Internal Vena Cava @ T8
10
Q
The apex of the lung is @ what level?
A
Just above the 1st Rib
11
Q
Which of the following produces surfactant?
A
Type II Alveolar Cells
12
Q
The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the _____ to the _______.
A
Valve Cusps, Papillary Muscles
13
Q
Which of the following are the largest taste buds?
A
Circumvallate
14
Q
Which of the following are the fewest taste buds in number?
A. Fungiform
B. Filiform
C. Foliate
D. Cirumvallate
A
D. Cirumvallate
15
Q
What MAIN structure passes through the deep inguinal ring of the male?
A
Spermatic Cord
16
Q
The posterior costal pleura extend caudally to the level of the _____.
A
12th Rib
17
Q
Which of the following is the superficial boundary of the peroneal cavity?
A
Colles Flexure (fascia)
18
Q
Name the plane that divides the body into right & left halves?
A
Median or Sagittal
19
Q
What is the thickest part of the heart?
A
Left Ventricular
20
Q
What is the most muscular part of the heart?
A
Left Ventricular
21
Q
Muscle spindles are _______ receptors.
A
Stretch
22
Q
Which of the following structures is found in the peritoneal cavity?
A
Sigmoid Colon
23
Q
What granular structure excretes renin?
A
Afferent Arteriole
24
Q
Which type of joint is a fibrous articulation?
A
Intervertebral Disc
Symphysis Pubis
25
What do larynogotracheal diverticulum develops from?
Pharynx
26
What canal is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa?
Pudendal
27
What organ is devoid of lymphatics?
Brain
28
What organ has both endocrine & exocrine functions?
Pancreas
29
Fibrocartilage unites bone in which of the following articulations?
Intervertebral Disc
Pubis Symphysis
30
Meissner’s Plexus is located in which part of the intestinal lining?
Submucosa
31
At what vertebral level is the horizontal fissure of the lung located?
T4 @ Mid Axillary Line
T6 @ Mid Clavicular Line
32
The _________ is located between the epidermis & the dermis.
Basement Membrane
33
Cryptorchism causes sterility because of ___________.
↑ Temperature of the Testes
34
During swallowing the posterior entrance to the nasal cavity is blocked by the __________, therefore
preventing aspiration.
Soft Palate
35
The main function of the oval window is to ______________.
Transmit Sonic Vibration to Ossicles of Perilymph
36
What types of cells line the pleural cavity?
Flat Mesothelial Cells
37
The thoracic crura of the diaphragm attach to the __________.
T12 - L1 Vertebra
38
What part of the mediastinum is the heart located in?
Middle
39
What is the cause of penile erections?
Arterial Dilation of Corpus Cavernosium
40
Posterior costal pleura extend to what thoracic level?
T12
41
What structure passes thru the left & right crura of the diaphragm?
Aorta
42
What is a derivative of the parameonephric duct?
Uterus
43
The pituitary gland sits in a depression of bone called the _______.
Sphenoid
44
Taenia Coli feature what structure?
Haustra
45
Where does the floor of the palatine tonsil lie?
Palatopharyngeus & Superior Constrictor
46
The vermiform appendix is an out pouching of the________.
Cecum
47
Where does spermatogenesis take place?
Seminiferous Tubules
48
The Thymus Gland is located in the ___________ mediastinum.
Superior
49
The true pelvis is located ____________.
Below the Pelvic Inlet but above the Pelvic Outlet
50
The _____ rib is @ the junction of the manubrium & body of the sternum.
2nd
51
Which duct opens into the vestibule of the mouth?
Parotid
52
What types of cells are corpus spongiosum?
Erectile Tissue
53
What is a synonym for a dust cell?
Macrophage
54
Which function do muscle spindles aid in?
Proprioception
55
Which gland commonly undergoes calcific changes?
Pineal Gland
56
The Cupula is located in the _________.
Cervical Pleura
57
What part of the fallopian tube contains uterine ostium?
Infundibulum
58
The ____________ is an outgrowth of the hepatic diverticulum.
Cystic Duct
59
The tail of the pancreas is in contact with the _________.
Spleen
60
The lymph nodes of the breast drain into the _________.
Pectoral Nodes
61
Which part of the uterine tube contains abdominal ostium?
Infundibular
62
Which of the following structures is adjacent to the suprascapular artery?
Scapular Notch
63
What types of cells make up the uterus?
Simple Columnar Cells
64
The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into the____________.
Middle Meatis
65
Which hormone(s) do the Parafollicular cells of the thyroid produce?
Calcitonin
66
What structure comes from the urogenital sinus?
Urethra & Urinary Bladder
67
The lateral aspect of the rectus abdominal sheath is known as the ___________.
Linea Semilunaris
68
Plasma cells are derived from what?
Lymphocytes
69
Which cells are controlled by the pituitary gland?
Follicular Cells
70
Which GI structure contains central lacteals?
Villi
71
Which of the following structures lay posterior lateral to the testes?
Epididymis
72
The pampiniform plexus is located where?
Spermatic Cord
73
The haustra of the large intestines are formed from the ________.
Taenia Coli
74
Which plane divides the body into anterior & posterior halves?
Coronal
75
What structure passes through the right & left crura?
Aortic Hiatus
76
When the adenoids swell they occlude what?
Eustachian Tube
77
Which lung structure is composed of hyaline cartilage?
Bronchi
78
The majority of the respiratory tract is composed of which of the following cells?
Pseudo Stratified Columnar
79
From which part of the pleura is the cupola derived?
Cervical Pleura
80
The junction of the esophagus & stomach is located where?
Inferior to the Diaphragm
81
The uncinate process is part of which of the following?
Pancreas
82
In which of the following linings of the intestines is Meissner’s Plexus found?
Submucosal
83
Where is the vertebral prominence?
C7
84
Which is a vertical plane @ right angles to the sagittal plane?
Coronal
85
What structure is the demarcation between visceral & parietal pleura?
Cupula
86
Which of the following produce steroid hormones?
Adrenal Cortex
87
The union of what forms the common bile duct?
Common Hepatic & Cystic Ducts
88
Which structure is the proximal attachment for the semimembranosus muscle?
Ischial Tuberosity
89
Articulation between the thumb, trapezium & the base of the 1st metacarpal forms what type of joint?
Saddle Joint
90
What would be the same anatomical position as anterior & posterior?
Ventral & Dorsal
91
The majority of lymph is returned to the circulation via the ________.
Thoracic Duct
92
The adenoids are located where?
Nasopharynx
93
The skin from the anus to the rectum is made up of which type of cells?
Stratified Squamous & Simple Columnar
94
The trachea is lined with which type of cells?
Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar
95
The glenoid labrum is made up of what type of tissue?
Fibrocartilage
96
Respiratory bronchioles terminate in the ______________.
Alveolar Ducts
97
The junction of the esophagus & pharynx is @ the level of the_______________?
Cricoid Cartilage
98
The esophageal hiatus is located @ which of the following vertebral levels?
T10
99
The distal ascending colon is located in which abdominal quadrant?
right Upper
100
The stomach is located in which abdominal quadrant?
Left Upper
101
The descending colon is located in which abdominal quadrant?
Left Lower
102
The cecum is located in which abdominal quadrant?
Right Lower
103
Which cell types are responsible for the maturation of RBC’s?
Reticulocytes
104
Which of the following regions of the stomach is adjacent to the esophagus?
Cardiac
105
The superior border of the esophagus is located @ which vertebral level?
C6
106
Which of the following is the function of kupffer cells?
Phagocytosis
107
Which type of epithelium lines the esophagus?
Stratified Squamous
108
Which of the following organelles of skeletal muscle transmits action potential from outside to inside the cell?
T-tubules
109
Which cells are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocytes?
Platelets
110
Sperm are allowed to mature in which of the following structures?
Epididymis
111
Glandular cells that produce renin come from which of the following?
Afferent Arterioles
112
Which of the following is a pivot joint?
Knee proximal
Knee distal
Radioulnar joint distal
Radioulnar joint proximal
Proximal Radioulnar
113
Ankylosing of the sternoclavicular joint would cause difficulty with which movement?
Abduction of the Shoulder
114
Which of the following is the dermatome to the nipple?
T4
115
Red pulp is located in which of the following organs?
Spleen
Pancreas
Uterus
Bladder
Spleen
116
The anterior portion of the trigone is formed by the ________?
Urethra
117
What is located between the isthmus & the vagina?
Cervix
118
The superior portion of the uterus above the fallopian tubes is called what?
The Fundus
119
What forms the apex of the heart?
Left Ventricle
120
The greater omentum extends from which two organs?
Greater Curvature of the Stomach to the Transverse Colon
121
Which structure is located in the superior mediastinum?
Arch of aorta
Trasnverse colon
Stomach
Uterus
Arch of the Aorta
122
What organs are retroperitoneal?
Supradrenal Glands
Aorta
Duodenum (2nd 3rd part)
Pancreas
Uterus
Colon (ascending and descending)
Kidneys
Esophagus
Rectum
123
Which of the following organs has endocrine & exocrine functions?
Pancreas
124
Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle?
Alveolar sacs
Sigmoid colon
Juejunum
Distal duodenum
Alveolar Sacs
125
Which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located in?
Right Lower
126
The external iliac artery supplies blood to which of the following structures?
Upper limbs
Abdominals
Lower limbs
Both upper and lower limbs equally
Lower Limb
127
At what level does the esophagus begin?
Cricoid Cartilage @ C6
128
What hormone does the corpus luteum produce?
Progesterone
129
What stimulates hair follicles?
Pacianian Corpuscles
130
Which of the following movements locks the knee with weight bearing?
Abduction
External rotation
Adduction
Internal rotation
Internal Rotation
131
The spinothalamic & spinoreticular tracts are found in which portion of the spinal cord?
Lateral Fasciculus
132
The T-lymphocytes are derived from which organ?
Thymus
133
The tissue of the mitral & tricuspid valves is made up of?
Endocardium
134
The union of which 2 structures forms the ejaculatory duct?
Vas Deferens & Seminal Vesicle
135
Which types of cells line the vaginal canal?
Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium
136
What is the location of the angle of Louis?
2nd Rib
137
Blood is supplied to the primary bronchi directly from what main vessel?
Aorta
138
What do cells in the suprarenal cortex secrete?
Cortisol
139
What is the layer of skin on the soles of the feet and the palms of the hands called?
Stratum Lucidum
140
What type of tissue is found in the alveolar sac?
Simple Squamous
141
What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
SA Node
142
Axial rotation is most greatly restricted in what part of the spine?
Lumbar
143
Where is the apex of the heart located?
5th Intercostal Space
144
Adduction & abduction of the vocal cords are dependent upon what?
Arytenoid Cartilage
145
What structure causes the nasal passage to swell or shrink?
Nasal Membrane
146
What is the mucous membrane of the urinary bladder made up of?
Transitional Epithelium
147
What type of tissue makes up the valves of the heart?
Endocardium
148
Which structure connects the stomach to the liver?
Lesser Omentum
149
Which structure attaches the stomach to the transverse colon?
Lesser Omentum
150
Which organ lies directly anterior to the splenic vein?
Pancreas
151
Brunner’s glands are in the _______ portion of the duodenum.
1st
152
What is the location of Bartholin’s glands?
Lower Part of the Vagina
153
Which structure holds the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
Lingual Frenulum
154
Abduction of the arm brings the inferior border of the scapula in what direction?
Superior & Lateral
155
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the 1st rib?
Scalene Tubercle
156
What are appendices, epiploicae & taenia coli features of?
Colon
157
What do the Islets of Langerhan secrete?
Glucagon (alpha cells)
158
Which of the following secrete epinephrine & norepinephrine?
Adrenal Medulla
159
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
T4
160
Peyers patches are lymphoid tissue located in the ________?
Ileum
161
What does the sphenoid sinus lay immediately inferior to?
Hypophyseal Fossa
162
What are the 3 embryonic shunts?
Ductus Arteriosus
Ductus Venosus
Foramen Ovale
163
In the fetus, blood bypasses the liver sinusoid through which structure?
Ductus Venosus
164
Which of the following provides communication between the atria of a fetal heart?
Foramen Ovale
165
Which of the following connects the left pulmonary artery directly to the descending aorta in the fetus?
Ductus Arteriosus
166
Which of the following are derivatives of neuroectoderm?
Neural Crest
Neural Tube
167
The lens of the cornea is derived from _________.
Surface Ectoderm
168
What structure is the suprarenal medulla derived from?
Neural Crest
169
What does the urogenital system develops from?
Intermediate Mesoderm
170
An abnormal development of which of the following is a result of malformation of the hindgut?
Urorectal Septum
171
What is the embryonic origin of the adenohypophysis?
Rathke’s Pouch
172
What are lens placodes derived from?
Ectoderm
173
Which of the following give rise to brachial arch cartilage?
Neural Crest
174
Which brachial arch gives rise to the thymus?
3rd
175
How many stages are there in mitosis?
5
176
What are the 5 stages of mitosis?
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
177
Which of the following give rise to the spleen?
Lateral Mesoderm
178
Which of the following give rise to pharynx & thyroid epithelium?
Endoderm
179
Which of the following give rise to the muscles of the trunk?
Paraxial Mesoderm
180
Which of the following give rise to the Adrenal Cortex?
Lateral Mesoderm
181
Which of the following give rise to the muscles & connective tissue of the head?
Mesoderm
182
Which of the following give rise to the pineal gland?
Neural Tube
183
What is the 1st stage of mitosis?
What is the 2nd stage of mitosis?
What is the 3rd stage of mitosis?
What is the 4th stage of mitosis?
What is the 5th stage of mitosis?
What is the 1st stage of mitosis?
Interphase
What is the 2nd stage of mitosis?
Prophase
What is the 3rd stage of mitosis?
Metaphase
What is the 4th stage of mitosis?
Anaphase
What is the 5th stage of mitosis?
Telophase
184
Which stage of mitosis is the resting stage?
Interphase
185
At which stage of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear?
Prophase
186
At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes move towards the poles?
Metaphase
187
At which stage of mitosis do the chromatids move towards the poles?
Anaphase
188
At which stage of mitosis do you have separation of the chromosomes?
Telophase
189
Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
Head
190
Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
Liver
Pancreas
Urinary Bladder
191
Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
Bronchi
Lungs
Trachea
192
Which of the following is derived from the neural tube?
Central Nervous System
193
Which of the following is derived from the neural crest?
Cranial Nerves
Sensory Nerves
194
What are the 3 germ layers?
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
195
Which of the following forms the epithelial lining of the GI Tract?
Endoderm
196
The mid gut forms which of the following structures?
Ileum
197
Which structure shunts blood from the Right Atrium to the Left atrium in the fetus?
Foramen Ovalis
198
Which of the following give rise to skin, hair, & nails?
Surface Ectoderm
199
Which of the following give rise to the retina?
Neural Tube
200
Which of the following give rise to the tonsils?
Endoderm
201
Which of the following give rise to the posterior pituitary?
Neural Tube
202
Which of the following give rise to the enamel on teeth?
Surface Ectoderm
203
Which of the following give rise to the skull?
Mesoderm
204
Which of the following originate from the trilaminar embryonic disc?
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
205
Which of the following give rise to blood cells?
Lateral Mesoderm
206
Which of the following give rise to the anterior pituitary gland?
Surface Ectoderm
207
Which of the following give rise to the lymph cells & the lymphatic system?
Lateral Mesoderm
208
Which of the following give rise to the dermis layer of skin?
Paraxial Mesoderm
209
Which of the following give rise to the muscles of the viscera & limbs?
Lateral Mesoderm
210
Which of the following give rise to the tympanic cavity?
Endoderm
211
Which of the following give rise to the cardiovascular system?
Lateral Mesoderm
212
Which bone articulates the appendicular skeleton with the scapula?
Clavicle
213
Which carpal bone articulates with the 2nd metacarpal?
Trapezoid
214
Which of the following structures remains from old lamellae after remodeling?
Interstitial Lamella
215
Which cells are responsible for removing calcium during bone remodeling?
Osteoclasts
216
Which of the following bones forms the middle malleolus?
Tibia
217
Which of the following articulates with the anterior portion of the calcaneus?
Cuboid
218
What 2 bones go into the formation of the perpendicular plate?
Ethmoid & Vomer
219
Which bone of the foot has 3 articular facets?
Calcaneus
220
Which bone makes up the lateral malleolus?
Distal Fibula
221
What type of bone is the occiput derived from?
Intramembranous
222
Is the cervical curve primary or secondary?
Secondary
223
What spinal curves are present at birth?
Thoracic
Sacral
224
Which of the following curves are formed last?
Lumbar
225
At what vertebral level is the apex of the lumbar curve located?
L3
226
Where is the smallest spinous process in the lumbar spine located?
L5
227
Which of the following refers to the ends of long bones?
Epiphysis
228
Which of the following is located between the diaphysis & the epiphysis?
Metaphysis
229
What is the most vascular growth zone in a bone?
Metaphysis
230
What term refers to the shaft of a bone?
Diaphysis
231
What is the name that refers to the cartilage between the end & the shaft of the bone?
Epiphyseal Plate
232
What is a boneFORMING cell derived from mesenchyme?
Osteoblast
233
Which of the following is a feature of the humerus?
Coronoid Fossa
Tibial tuberosity
Radial tuberosity
Glenoid fossa
Coronoid Fossa
234
The sesmoid bone in the foot is located in which tendon?
Flexor Hallicus Brevis
235
The resting stage of the epiphyseal plate is composed of what?
Hyaline Cartilage
236
The intertrochanteric crest is located on the __________ aspect of the femur.
Posterior
237
The tibialis posterior muscle attaches to which bone?
Calcaneus
238
What structure is in the distal attachment of the brachialis tendon?
Ulnar Tuberosity
239
Where is the soleal line?
Posterior Tibia
240
Where is the Olecranon fossa located?
Humerus
241
What attaches muscles of the supra & infra spinus fossa?
Scapular Spine
242
The lesser sciatic notch is located on what bone?
Ischium
243
The scaphoid is located on the _________ of the anatomical snuffbox
Floor
244
What is the multinucleated cell that breaks down bone?
Osteoclast
245
What is the concentric matrix around an osteoblast?
Lamella
246
What is the small space or cavity around cells of the bone?
Lacuna
247
Which part of the bone contains Osteocytes?
Lacuna
248
What are the fibrous strands in the medullary compartment that are interconnected?
Trabeculae
249
Canal & lamellae concentrically arranged best describe this type of structure within bone
Haversian System
250
Which of the following is the basic structural unit of compact bone?
Haversian System
251
What is the transverse canal in bone?
Volkman’s Canal
252
Which part of the bone contains the nutrient artery?
Volkman’s Canal
253
Which bone transmits forces from the arm? (excluding humerous, ulna, and radius as well as hand structures) ?
Clavicle
254
Which of the following is located immediately distal to the head of the humerus?
Anatomical Neck
255
Where is the primary ossification center for a long bone located?
Diaphysis
256
The radial notch articulates with what?
Head of the Radius
257
What separates Haversian systems from each other?
Interstitial Lamellae
258
The lacrimal fossa is part of which structure?
Frontal Bone
259
The interosseous membrane of the leg is classified as a ________.
Syndesmosis
260
How many tarsal bones are in the foot?
7
261
Articulation @ the humerus & ulna during extension occurs @ the _____________.
Olecranon Fossa & Olecranon Process
262
The anterior portion of the hard palate is ________.
Maxillary Bone
263
What separates the greater & lesser sciatic notches?
Ischial Spine
264
What carpal bone(s) articulate with the radius?
Scaphoid & Lunate
265
Of the following, what is the location for a sesmoid bone?
Flexor Pollicus Brevis
Flexor Pollicus Brevis
266
The articular disc in the distal radioulnar joint articulates with the _______.
Lunate
267
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous bone?
Clavicle
268
The intermediate cuniform articulates distally with the ___________.
2nd Metatarsal
269
What 2 bones make up a joint known as schindylesis?
Ethmoid & Vomer
270
Which of the following bones contains the superior, middle, & inferior nasal concha?
Ethmoid
271
The 1st cuniform bone articulates with the _______ & _______ bones.
Navicular, 1st Metatarsal
272
Which of the following bones is not part of the knee joint?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Femur
D. Patella
B. Fibula
273
Which cells produce osteoid?
Osteoblasts
274
Bones & joints of the extremities are derived from ____________.
Somatic Lateral Mesoderm
275
Which of the following bones articulate with the radius?
A. Lunate
A. Trapezium
B. Pisiform
C. Capitulate
A. Lunate
276
Which of the following bones has only 1 articulation?
A. Pisiform
B. Hamate
C. Trapezium
D. Scaphoid
A. Pisiform
277
The styloid process is located on the ___________ portion of the radius.
Lateral
278
The lunate bone articulates proximally with the ________.
Radius
279
Which multinucleated cell remodels bone?
Osteoclasts
280
The insertion point of the patellar tendon is the ________.
Tibial tuberosity
281
Membranous intramedullary bone formation is found where?
Clavicle
282
Which carpal bone is most often fractured?
Scaphoid
283
Which metacarpal bones articulate with the hamate?
4th & 5th Metacarpal
284
Which of the following bones are developed from interosseous membrane?
Parietal
285
What structure lies proximal to the trochlear on the distal humerus?
Coronoid Fossa
286
Which structure forms the point of the shoulder?
Acromium
287
What does the head of the fibula articulate with?
Tibia
288
Which of the following distributes stress from the upper extremities to the axial skeleton?
Clavicle
289
The ilium, ischium, & pubis meet within which of the following?
Acetabulum
290
Where is the primary ossification center for a long bone located?
Diaphysis
291
The radial notch articulates with what?
Head of the Radius
292
Which of the following carpals is located in the proximal row?
Lunate
293
The lateral aspect of the clavicle articulates with the __________?
Acromium Process
294
What is an example of a dicondyloid joint?
Tibiofemoral
295
A costal joint in a child is made up of ____________ cartilage.
Hyaline
296
What is an example of a diarthrodial joint?
Synovial Joint
297
Which of the following joints contains labrum?
Hip
298
What type of articulation is made up of bone & hyaline cartilage?
Synchondrosis
299
Which of the following is a pivot joint?
Proximal Radioulnar
300
The only joint to articulate the axial skeleton with the upper limb is?
Sternoclavicular
301
What type of joint is the Zygopophyseal?
Diarthrodial
302
What type of joint is the occiput-atlas?
Condylar
303
PATGE 21 STOP
304
What organs are intraperitoneal?
S: stomach
A: appendix
L: liver
T: transverse colon
D: duodenum (first part)
S: small intestines (jejunum and ileum)
P: pancreas (only tail)
R: rectum (upper third)
S: spleen
S: sigmoid colon
