General Anatomy ( 5% ) Flashcards

1
Q

An example of hyaline cartilage is

  • a) knee meniscus.
  • b) epiglottis.
  • c) epiphyseal growth plate
  • d) intervetebral disc.
  • e) articular surface of the clavicle.
A

c) epiphyseal growth plate

  • a) knee meniscus. (fibro)
  • b) epiglottis. (Elastic)
  • d) intervetebral disc. (Fibro)
  • e) articular surface of the clavicle. (SC joint is synovial but articular surfaces are covered by fibrocartilage (only time a synovial joint does not contain hyaline cart). AC joint is synovial with an articular disk of fibrocartilage)
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2
Q

Hyaline cartilage

  • a) Unable to be deformed
  • b) Regrows in new cartilage.
  • c) Forms epiphyseal growth plates
A

c) Forms epiphyseal growth plates

  • a) Unable to be deformed
  • b) Regrows in new cartilage. (Avascular and chrondocytes are bound in lacunae so can’t migrate to damaged areas. Therefore healing ability is very limited. Damaged hyaline cartilage is usually replaced by fibrocartilage scar tissue)
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3
Q

With regard to cartilage all are true except

  • a) Epiphyseal growth plates are made of hyaline cartilage
  • b) Intervertebral discs and menisci of the knee are fibrocartilage
  • c) The epiglottis is elastic cartilage
  • d) All types of cartilage are prone to calcification with age
  • e) Fibrocartilage has a blood supply.
A

d) All types of cartilage are prone to calcification with age

(not elastic)

  • a) Epiphyseal growth plates are made of hyaline cartilage
  • b) Intervertebral discs and menisci of the knee are fibrocartilage
  • c) The epiglottis is elastic cartilage
  • e) Fibrocartilage has a blood supply. (For example, the annulus fibrosis)
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4
Q

The diameter of a motor nerve fibre is:

  • a) 1-2 microns
  • b) 3-5 microns
  • c) 5-12 microns
  • d) 12-20 microns
  • e) 20-50 microns
A

d) 12-20 microns

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5
Q

regarding muscle

  • a) skeletal muscle is a mix of red and white muscle
  • b) individual fibres are surrounded by epimysium which is impermeable to fluid
  • c) a motor unit supplies red and white muscle fibres.
  • d) white fibres are slow twitch and aerobic.
A

a) skeletal muscle is a mix of red and white muscle

  • b) individual fibres are surrounded by epimysium which is impermeable to fluid (fibres are surrounded by endomysium, bundles are surrounded by perimysium, muscles are covered in epimysium)
  • c) a motor unit supplies red and white muscle fibres. (Only 1 type of fibre)
  • d) white fibres are slow twitch and aerobic. (Opposite)
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6
Q

With regards to muscle all are true except

  • a) The muscle cell and muscle fibre are the same thing
  • b) There are 2 different types of muscle, skeletal and smooth
  • c) Skeletal muscle fibres are multinucleated
  • d) Intrafusal muscle fibres are innervated by gamma motor neurons of the anterior horn
  • e) Muscle spindles are a sensory receptor
A

b) There are 2 different types of muscle, skeletal and smooth

(and cardiac)

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7
Q

All of the following muscles have 2 different nerve supplies except

  • a) FDP
  • b) Adductor magnus
  • c) Tibialis anterior
  • d) Dorsal + palmar interossei
  • e) Digastric
A

c) Tibialis anterior

deep fibular nerve - anterior compartment lower leg

d) Dorsal + palmar interossei

  • deep branch of ulnar nerve*
  • Lumbricals have two different supplies - lateral 2= median, medial 2= ulnar*
  • a) FDP (median aspect by AION branch of median, lateral aspect by ulnar nerve)
  • b) Adductor magnus (adductor portion by posterior division of obturator nerve, hamstring portion by sciatic nerve)
  • e) Digastric (posterior belly by digastric branch of facial (VII) nerve, anterior belly by mylohyoid nervem a branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3)
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8
Q

An example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is:

  • a) proximal tibial epiphysis.
  • b) costochondral joint.
  • c) intervertebral disc.
  • d) lamboid suture.
  • e) temperomandibular joint.
A

c) intervertebral disc.

Secondary cartilaginous aka symphysis

Two bone ends covered in hyaline cartilage joined by fibrocartilage

  • a) proximal tibial epiphysis. (Primary cartilaginous aka synchondrosis, because it has hyaline cart)
  • b) costochondral joint. (Synchondrosis - hyaline cartilage)
  • d) lamboid suture. (Synostosis - united by fibrous tissue)
  • e) temperomandibular joint. (Synovial joint with an articular disk)
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9
Q

An example of a synovial joint is

  • Sacro-iliac.
  • Intervertebral joints.
  • Sterno manubrial.
  • Epiphyses.
  • Costal cartilage.
A

Sacro-iliac.

(Upper 1/3 syndesmosis, middle 1/3 symphysis, lower 1/3 synovial)

  • Intervertebral joints. (Symphysis)
  • Sterno manubrial. (Symphysis)
  • Epiphyses. (Bone; epiphyseal plate = synchondrosis)
  • Costal cartilage. (Costochrondral joints are synchondroses, costovertebral joints are synovial)
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10
Q

In terms of joints all are true except

  • a) Epiphyses are cartilaginous joints.
  • b) The pubic symphysis is a 2ndary cartilaginous joint
  • c) The synovial membrane of synovial joint lines the capsule, non-articulating surfaces and hyaline cartilage
  • d) The knee joint contains about 0.5mL of synovial fluid
  • e)Hiltons law describes the nerve supply to joints and overlying skin
A

a) Epiphyses are cartilaginous joints.

(Epiphyses are the ends of a long bone. Epiphyseal plates are (primary) cartilaginous joints)

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11
Q

Regarding dermatomes

  • a) They do not overlap in the chest.
  • b) Is the area of skin and muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve.
  • c) They do not overlap at axial lines.
  • d) Are separated from a dermatome from a discontinuous segment of the spinal cord by an axial line.
A

c) They do not overlap at axial lines. (True)
d) Are separated from a dermatome from a discontinuous segment of the spinal cord by an axial line. (true)

  • a) They do not overlap in the chest. (Opposite as there is no axial line or regions supplied by discontinuous dermatomes like in the limbs)
  • b) Is the area of skin and muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve. (Only skin - Not muscle)
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12
Q

With regard to dermatomal nerve supply:

  • a) C7 supplies the index finger
  • b) The anterior axial line of the upper limb runs between C6 & C7.
  • c) T6 is at the level of the nipple.
  • d) The umbilicus is supplied by either T12 or L1.
  • e) The heel is supplied by S2.
A

a) C7 supplies the index finger

  • b) The anterior axial line of the upper limb runs between C6 & C7. (Can’t have an axial line between consecutive spinal level dermatomes. The anterior axial line is C5/T2 and C6/T1)
  • c) T6 is at the level of the nipple. (T4)
  • d) The umbilicus is supplied by either T12 or L1. (T10)
  • e) The heel is supplied by S2. (S1)
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13
Q

All are true about dermatomes except

  • a) The sympathetic grey ramus that accompanies each spinal nerve does not continue to the skin
  • b) The axial line is the line of junction of 2 dermatomes supplied from discontinuous spinal levels
  • c) There is no overlap of dermatomes over axial lines
  • d) The skin of the middle finger is C7
  • e) The skin of the umbilicus is T10
A

a) The sympathetic grey ramus that accompanies each spinal nerve does not continue to the skin.

(Needs to supply sweat glands so it does run to the skin)

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14
Q

With regard to myotomal nerve supply:

  • a) opponens pollicus is C8.
  • b) shoulder abduction is C5, 6.
  • c) ankle plantar flexion is L4,5.
  • d) elbow extension is C7/8
  • e) ankle eversion is L4.
A

d) elbow extension is C7,8

  • a) opponens pollicus is C8. (T1)
  • b) shoulder abduction is C5, 6. (Just C5)
  • c) ankle plantar flexion is L4,5. (Dorsiflexion; Plantar is S1/2)
  • e) ankle eversion is L4. (Inversion L4/5, eversion L5/S1)
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15
Q

The approximate vertebral levels of

  • a) Transpyloric plane = L2
  • b) Cricoid cartilage = C3.
  • c) Oesophageal opening in the diaphragm = T8
  • d) Division of common carotids = C5
  • e) Aortic bifurcation = L4
A

e) Aortic bifurcation = L4

  • a) Transpyloric plane = L1
  • b) Cricoid cartilage = C6.
    • Larynx is C3 to C6, with cricoid at the bottom
    • Thyroid T4
  • c) Oesophageal opening in the diaphragm = T10
    • ​IVC is T8, aorta T12
  • d) Division of common carotids = C4
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16
Q

All of the following nerves pass between the 2 heads of a muscle except

  • a) Tibial
  • b) Deep peroneal
  • c) Median
  • d) Ulnar.
  • e) Posterior IO.
A

b) Deep peroneal

  • a) Tibial - gastrocnemius
  • c) Median - pronator teres
  • d) Ulnar - FCU
  • e) Posterior IO.
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17
Q

All are true about the nerve supply to the body wall except

  • a) Posterior rami of spinal nn supply the extensor mm of the vertebral column
  • b) Anterior rami supply all other muscles of the trunk
  • c) Each posterior rami divides into an anterior and posterior branch
  • d) The posterior ramus of C1 has no cutaneous branch
  • e) No posterior ramus ever supplies skin or muscle of a limb
A

b) Anterior rami supply all other muscles of the trunk

(all except deep muscles of back)

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18
Q

all are true about anterior rami except

  • a) the anterior ramus runs with the segmental artery between transversus abdominus and internal oblique
  • b) where the spinal nerve and artery cross, the artery lies nearer the skin
  • c) the segmental nerve enters the abdominus and passes to the overlying skin while the segmental artery ends in the flank muscles
  • d) the intercostal nerve has a lateral and anterior branch
  • e) anterior rami of the lower 6 thoracic nerves supply the anterior abdominal wall
A

b) where the spinal nerve and artery cross, the artery lies nearer the skin

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19
Q

Panniculus adiposis

  • a) not well developed in man
  • b) is a thin layer of muscle
  • c) is unlike fat
  • d) contains nerves, blood vessels and lymph
  • e) portal vessels run through it
A

d) contains nerves, blood vessels and lymph

“The panniculus adiposus is the fatty layer of the subcutaneous tissues, superficial to a deeper vestigial layer of muscle, the panniculus carnosus. It includes structures that are considered fascia by some sources but not by others.”

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20
Q

Regarding the deep fascia which is false

  • a) can provide attachment for muscle
  • b) attaches to the skin by thin fibrils
  • c) attaches to underlying bone
  • d) has no nerve supply
  • e) is absent on the face
A

d) has no nerve supply

  • a) can provide attachment for muscle (true - eg palmar and plantar aponeurosis)
  • b) attaches to the skin by thin fibrils
  • c) attaches to underlying bone (is continuous with periosteum)
  • e) is absent on the face
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21
Q

With regard to bone

  • a) nutrient arteries supplies cortical bone predominantly.
  • b) smallest channels are Haversian canals
  • c) trabecular network in cancellous bone is capable of considerable rearrangement with regard to fibre orientation
  • d) periostium covers the articulating surface of bone.
  • e) bone substance does not receive its nutrition from the periosteum.
  • f) periosteum is not sensitive.
A

c) trabecular network in cancellous bone is capable of considerable rearrangement with regard to fibre orientation

  • a) nutrient artery supplies cortical bone predominantly. (Marrow, spongy bone and deep cortical bone. Most cortical bone supplied by periosteal arterial branches)
  • b) smallest channels are Haversian canals. (Canaliculi)
  • d) periostium covers the articulating surface of bone. (Cartilage does. Periosteum covers non-articulating surfaces then reflects to join the joint capsule at articular surfaces)
  • e) bone substance does not receive its nutrition from the periosteum.
  • f) periosteum is not sensitive. (Contains nerve and vessels. Painful after a #)
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22
Q

regarding the newborn skull

  • a) it has similar vertical proportion to an adult skull
  • b) the bones of the vault ossify in membrane and the bones of the base in cartilage
  • c) anterior fontanelle borders: frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid
  • d) posterior fontanelle borders: occipital, parietal, temporal.
A

b) the bones of the vault ossify in membrane and the bones of the base in cartilage

  • a) it has similar vertical proportion to an adult skull
  • c) anterior fontanelle borders: frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid. (Just frontal and parietal)
  • d) posterior fontanelle borders: occipital, parietal, temporal. (Not temporal)
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23
Q

all are true of bones except

  • a) Volkmann’s canals usually run at right angles to Haversian canals
  • b) Blood vessels run in the periosteum
  • c) Periosteum is osteogenic
  • d) Endosteum is osteogenic.
  • e) The nutrient artery of the shaft is the main source of blood supply to the bone
A

e) The nutrient artery of the shaft is the main source of blood supply to the bone

(cortical bone is mainly supplied by periosteal arterial branches)

  • a) Volkmann’s canals usually run at right angles to Haversian canals
  • b) Blood vessels run in the periosteum
  • c) Periosteum is osteogenic (Basal layer of periosteum contains osteogenic cells which develop into osteoblasts as required )
  • d) Endosteum is osteogenic. (Lies between cortical bone and medulla, contains osteoclasts)
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24
Q

With regards to bone, all are true except

  • a) The end of the shaft in contact with the epiphyseal plate is the metaphysis
  • b) The metaphysis is supplied by capillary loops from the nutrient artery
  • c) The epiphysis has no blood supply
  • d) The epiphysis eventually ossify
  • e) Once the epiphysis ossify it establishes a blood supply with the metaphysis
A

c) The epiphysis has no blood supply

(bone must have a blood supply)

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25
Q

Regarding parasympathetic nervous system

  • a) Supply all viscera
  • b) Have connector cells in brainstem and sacrum
A

b) Have connector cells in brainstem and sacrum

(CN III, VII, IX, X + S2-4)

  • a) Supply all viscera - ‘sweat glands, adrenal medulla, erector pili mm, many blood vessels have only sympathetic innervation’
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26
Q

All are true of myotomes except

  • a) Hip flexion L2,3
  • b) Knee extension L4,5.
  • c) Elbow flexion C5,6
  • d) Wrist flexion and extension both C6,7
  • e) Intrinsics of hand T1
A

b) Knee extension L4,5.

(L3, 4)

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27
Q

1) Regarding tissues:

  • a) cartilage is very vascular
  • b) ligaments are generally not elastic
  • c) deep fascia is insensate
  • d) cardiac muscle is not striated
  • e) periosteum is not sensitive
A

b) ligaments are generally not elastic

  • a) cartilage is very vascular (avascular generally though small blood flow to fibrous type)
  • c) deep fascia is insensate (has innvervation)
  • d) cardiac muscle is not striated (it is, as is skeletal muscle)
  • e) periosteum is not sensitive (continuous with deep fascia - hurts when you have a fracture)
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28
Q

2) An example of a unipennate muscle is:

  • a) sartorius
  • b) flexor pollicis longus
  • c) rectus femoris
  • d) deltoid
  • e) tibialis anterior
A

b) flexor pollicis longus

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29
Q

An example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is:

  • a) distal tibiofibular joint
  • b) costochondral joint
  • c) sagittal suture
  • d) manubrio-sternal joint
  • e) knee joint
A

d) manubrio-sternal joint

  • a) distal tibiofibular joint (syndesmosis - fibrous)
  • b) costochondral joint (primary cartilaginous - synchondrosis)
  • c) sagittal suture (synostosis - fibrous)
  • e) knee joint (synovial)
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30
Q

4) Which vessel is not an end artery?

  • a) renal artery
  • b) retinal artery
  • c) pulmonary artery
  • d) intercostal artery
  • e) splenic artery
A

d) intercostal artery

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31
Q

5) The appendages of the skin:

  • a) are derived from mesoderm
  • b) are derived from epidermal tissues
  • c) lie in the dermal layer
  • d) are derived from endoderm
A

b) are derived from epidermal tissues

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32
Q

6) Melanocyte(s):

  • a) number determine the colour of the skin
  • b) are responsible for hair colour, greying is the result of decreasing numbers
  • c) produce varying melanins
  • d) are found mainly in the dermal layer
A

c) produce varying melanins

  • a) number determine the colour of the skin (number is consistent between people - amount of melanin produced varies)
  • b) are responsible for hair colour, greying is the result of decreasing numbers (melanin is responsible for colour - ?the actual role of melanocytes)
  • d) are found mainly in the dermal layer (basal layer of epidermis)
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33
Q

7) In regard to connective tissue:

  • a) aponeuroses are a form of deep fascia
  • b) retinaculae are a form of ligament
  • c) deep fascia is insensate
  • d) some ligaments are designed to allow a degree of elasticity
A

d) some ligaments are designed to allow a degree of elasticity

(ligamentum flavum and ligamentum nuchae)

  • a) aponeuroses are a form of deep fascia (??true - variant of deep fascia that acts like a tendon)
  • b) retinaculae are a form of ligament (are a form of deep fascia)
  • c) deep fascia is insensate
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34
Q

8) With regards to cartilage:

  • a) in the elderly, the epiglottis can occasionally be seen on x-ray as its elastic cartilage calcifies
  • b) bones that develop by intramembranous ossification have fibrocartilage at their articular surfaces
  • c) cartilage is nourished exclusively by ground substance as it has no blood supply
  • d) the most common form of cartilage is fibrocartilage
A

b) bones that develop by intramembranous ossification have fibrocartilage at their articular surfaces
c) cartilage is nourished exclusively by ground substance as it has no blood supply (fibrocartilage has a poor blood supply so probably not correct but is listed as so)

  • a) in the elderly, the epiglottis can occasionally be seen on x-ray as its elastic cartilage calcifies (elastic cartilate never calcifies)
  • d) the most common form of cartilage is fibrocartilage (hyaline)
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35
Q

9) Which is correct?

  • a) oblique alignment of striated muscle fibres allows for greater force of contraction
  • b) smooth muscle is multi-nucleated
  • c) the epimysium surrounds groups of striated muscle fibres to form muscle bundles or fasciculi
  • d) rectus femoris fibres are arranged in a muti-pennate form to allow increased force of contraction
  • e) alpha anterior horn cells of the spinal cord supply the intrafusal muscle fibres
A

a) oblique alignment of striated muscle fibres allows for greater force of contraction

  • b) smooth muscle is multi-nucleated (striated eg skeletal and cardiac muscle has multinucleated cells)
  • c) the epimysium surrounds groups of striated muscle fibres to form muscle bundles or fasciculi (perimysium - epimysium surrounds individual cells)
  • d) rectus femoris fibres are arranged in a muti-pennate form to allow increased force of contraction (bipennate)
  • e) alpha anterior horn cells of the spinal cord supply the intrafusal muscle fibres (anterior horn cells supply skeletal muscle - intrafusal fibres are sensory receptors)
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36
Q

10) Which is correct?

  • a) B-cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity
  • b) plasma cells are differentiated B-cells
  • c) all lymphoid tissue is encapsulated
  • d) in lymph nodes, follicles of lymphocytes are concentrated in the medullary region
A

b) plasma cells are differentiated B-cells

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37
Q

11) Which of the following pairs do not match with regard to mode of ossification?

  • a) ribs and vertebra
  • b) clavicle and humerus
  • c) femur and 1st metatarsal
  • d) patella and pisiform
  • e) mandible and clavicle
A

b) clavicle and humerus

Intramembranous ossification occurs in the flat bones of skull, mandible, and clavicle

Endochondral ossification occurs elsewhere and has hylanine cartilage as a precursor

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38
Q

12) Regarding cartilage, which is INCORRECT?

  • a) it is essentially avascular
  • b) hyaline cartilage contains hyaluronic acid
  • c) rib cartilage is elastic type
  • d) TMJ is fibrous
  • e) all contain mucopolysaccharides
A

c) rib cartilage is elastic type

(hyaline)

Elastic cartilage is found in the eustachian tube and epiglottis

TMJ is an atypical synovial joint with fibrous rather than hyaline cartilage

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39
Q

13) Regarding muscle strength, which is not a factor?

  • a) resting muscle length
  • b) cross sectional area
  • c) lever arm length
  • d) the extent to which the muscle is contracted
  • e) configuration of fibres
A

a) resting muscle length

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40
Q

14) Which is true?

  • a) epidermis is derived from mesoderm
  • b) the sweat glands, sebaceous glands are mesodermal in origin
  • c) the epidermis contains fibrous tissue and blood vessels
  • d) the colour of the skin is determined by the number of melanocytes
  • e) the dermis has a mesodermal origin
A

e) the dermis has a mesodermal origin

  • a) epidermis is derived from mesoderm (ectoderm)
  • b) the sweat glands, sebaceous glands are mesodermal in origin (ectodermal though they extend into the dermis)
  • c) the epidermis contains fibrous tissue and blood vessels (this is the dermis - epidermis is a layer of keratinized stratified squamous epithelial cells)
  • d) the colour of the skin is determined by the number of melanocytes (amount of melanin)
41
Q

15) Regarding sweat glands, which is true?

  • a) the main nerve supply is via cholinergic sympathetic fibres
  • b) the main nerve supply is via adrenergic sympathetic nerves
  • c) they are derived from mesoderm
  • d) the normal tubular sweat glands undergo cyclical changes with the menstrual cycle
  • e) the highest number of sweat glands are found on the feet
A

a) the main nerve supply is via cholinergic sympathetic fibres

  • b) the main nerve supply is via adrenergic sympathetic nerves (these supply apocrine glands)
  • c) they are derived from mesoderm (ectoderm)
  • d) the normal tubular sweat glands undergo cyclical changes with the menstrual cycle
  • e) the highest number of sweat glands are found on the feet
42
Q

16) Regarding cartilage, which is true?

  • a) they have a rich blood supply
  • b) the intervertebral discs contain hyaline cartilage
  • c) hyaline and fibrous cartilage never calcify
  • d) elastic cartilage never calcifies
  • e) elastic cartilage is the commonest type
A

d) elastic cartilage never calcifies

  • a) they have a rich blood supply (avascular mostly but fibrous has a sparse supply)
  • b) the intervertebral discs contain hyaline cartilage (is a symphysis, so the bone ends are covered in hyaline cartilage bnut connected by fibrocartilage)
  • c) hyaline and fibrous cartilage never calcify (often do, elastic never does)
  • e) elastic cartilage is the commonest type (?least common)
43
Q

17) Regarding muscles, which is true?

  • a) cardiac muscle is more powerful than skeletal or smooth
  • b) skeletal muscle fibres are spindle shaped
  • c) smooth muscle does not contain actin or myosin
  • d) skeletal muscle contraction causes peristalsis in the GI tract and ureter
  • e) cardiac muscle fibres are short, branched, mononuclear and striated
A

e) cardiac muscle fibres are short, branched, mononuclear and striated

  • a) cardiac muscle is more powerful than skeletal or smooth
  • b) skeletal muscle fibres are spindle shaped (cylindrical)
  • c) smooth muscle does not contain actin or myosin (does; it does not contain troponin though)
  • d) skeletal muscle contraction causes peristalsis in the GI tract and ureter (smooth muscle)
44
Q

18) Regarding periosteum, which is TRUE?

  • a) it is avascular
  • b) it is osteogenic
  • c) it covers the articular surface of long bones
  • d) it covers the inner surface of the medullary cavity
  • e) it receives its blood supply from overlying muscle
A

b) it is osteogenic

  • a) it is avascular (good blood supply - it supplies most compact bone)
  • c) it covers the articular surface of long bones (reflects away to join the capsule)
  • d) it covers the inner surface of the medullary cavity (that wound be endoestum)
  • e) it receives its blood supply from overlying muscle (contains its own blood vessels)
45
Q

19) An example of secondary cartilaginous joint is:

  • a) hip joint
  • b) manubrio-sternal joint
  • c) costochondral joint
  • d) epiphysis
  • e) wrist joint
A

b) manubrio-sternal joint

Others include: xiphisternal, pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs

  • a) hip joint - synovial
  • c) costochondral joint - primary cartilaginous
  • d) epiphysis - primary cartilaginous
  • e) wrist joint - synovial
46
Q

20) An example of a fibrous joint is:

  • a) the structures of the skull
  • b) vertebral column
  • c) pubic symphysis
  • d) hip joint
  • e) manubrio-sternal joint
A

a) the structures of the skull

Synostosis

Other examples are syndesmosis (eg radio-ulnar, inf tib/fib)

  • b) vertebral column - secondary cartilaginous
  • c) pubic symphysis - secondary cartilaginous
  • d) hip joint - synovial
  • e) manubrio-sternal joint - seconday cartilaginous
47
Q

21) In the skin..

  • a) apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, areolar, periumbilical and genital regions
  • b) dark skinned races posses greater numbers of melanocytes
  • c) sebaceous glands are abundant on the palms and soles
  • d) melanocytes predominate in the dermis
  • e) sweat glands are under the influence of sex hormones
A

a) apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, areolar, periumbilical and genital regions

and have sympathetic adrenergic innervation (cf sweat glands)

  • b) dark skinned races posses greater numbers of melanocytes (same number but different amount of melanin produced)
  • c) sebaceous glands are abundant on the palms and soles
  • d) melanocytes predominate in the dermis (basal layer of epidermis)
  • e) sweat glands are under the influence of sex hormones
48
Q

22) Regarding bone:

  • a) cancellous and compact bone show similar microscopic structure
  • b) the clavicle ossifies in membrane
  • c) the bones of the skull and face ossify in cartilage
  • d) the epiphyseal plates of growing bones are composed of fibrocartilage
  • e) sesamoid bones are only associated with flexor tendons
A

b) the clavicle ossifies in membrane

as does mandible and flat bones of skull

  • a) cancellous and compact bone show similar microscopic structure
  • c) the bones of the skull and face ossify in cartilage (opposite)
  • d) the epiphyseal plates of growing bones are composed of fibrocartilage (hyaline)
  • e) sesamoid bones are only associated with flexor tendons (patella is an extensor)
49
Q

23) What are vincula?

  • a) the papillary ridges that form finger prints
  • b) superficial fibres of the palmar aponeurosis that insert into the skin
  • c) remnant fibres of palmar interossei that insert into the proximal area of the thumb
  • d) a communication between common flexor sheath and the sheet of pollicis longus present in 50% of people
  • e) vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons
A

e) vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons

‘… is a band of connective tissue, similar to a ligament, that connects a flexor tendon to a phalanx bone. They contain tiny vessels which supply blood to the tendon’

50
Q

1) A group C nerve fibre:

  • a) is up to 20um in diameter
  • b) is myelinated
  • c) has motor function
  • d) is fusimotor to muscle spindles
  • e) is postganglionic autonomic
A

e) is postganglionic autonomic

  • a) is up to 20um in diameter (0.2-1.5um)
  • b) is myelinated (unmyelinated; gp C is post-ganglionic terminating in a visceral effector)
  • c) has motor function (are sensory only - slow to transmit, deep, vague sense of pain)
  • d) is fusimotor to muscle spindles (sensory nerves only)
51
Q

2) Regarding autonomic nervous system, visceral pain is not referred to L3-S1 because:

  • a) there are no visceral afferents related to these lumbar splanchnic nerves
  • b) there are no white rami communications to these spinal nerves
  • c) there are no sympathetic ganglia associated with these spinal segments
  • d) there is no sympathetic efferent supply to these spinal nerves
  • e) there are no grey rami communicants associated with the autonomic ganglia of L3-S1 spinal nerves
A

b) there are no white rami communications to these spinal nerves

  • a) there are no visceral afferents related to these lumbar splanchnic nerves (?parasympathetic does not have plexuses related at all to L3-S1, only S2-S4)
  • c) there are no sympathetic ganglia associated with these spinal segments
  • d) there is no sympathetic efferent supply to these spinal nerves
  • e) there are no grey rami communicants associated with the autonomic ganglia of L3-S1 spinal nerves
52
Q

3) Which of the following peripheral fibres have pain and temperature fibres?

  • a) alpha neuron
  • b) beta neuron
  • c) gamma neuron
  • d) delta neuron
  • e) group B fibres
A

d) delta neuron

Cannot find anything via google on delta neurons - ?answer is e) as B fibres are afferent

  • a) alpha neuron (motor neuron - extrafusal muscle fibres of skeletal muscle)
  • b) beta neuron (motor neuron - intrafusal muscle fibres of spindles with collaterals to extrafusal fibres)
  • c) gamma neuron (motor neuron - intrafusal muscle fibres of muscle spindles)
  • e) group B fibres (visceral afferent - unlikely to need temperature fibres for visceral organs)
53
Q

4) Regarding the sympathetic nervous system:

  • a) every spinal nerve receives a white ramus communican
  • b) efferent post ganglionic fibres are myelinated
  • c) afferent sympathetic fibres synapse in the sympathetic trunk
  • d) preganglionic cell bodies lie within the lateral horn of the T1-L2 spinal segments
  • e) each cervical ganglion gives off one ramus communicans
A

d) preganglionic cell bodies lie within the lateral horn of the T1-L2 spinal segments

(more specificlaly the intermediolateral cell columns)

  • a) every spinal nerve receives a white ramus communican
  • b) efferent post ganglionic fibres are myelinated (??all post ganglionic neurons are unmyelinated in the ANS)
  • c) afferent sympathetic fibres synapse in the sympathetic trunk (afferent fibres synapse in dorsal root ganglions, efferent sympathetic in sympathetic trunk)
  • e) each cervical ganglion gives off one ramus communicans
54
Q

5) Which of the following nerve roots is correctly associated with the corresponding muscle action?

  • a) L5 plantar flexion
  • b) L2 knee extension
  • c) C5 abduction of the shoulder
  • d) C8 abduction of the thumb
  • e) S1 extension of the great toe
A

c) C5 abduction of the shoulder

  • a) L5 plantar flexion (S1/2)
  • b) L2 knee extension (L3/4)
  • d) C8 abduction of the thumb (T1)
  • e) S1 extension of the great toe (L5)
55
Q

1) Which has the widest fibre diameter on average?

  • a) muscle spindle nerve fibres
  • b) group b
  • c) delta of group A
  • d) motor
  • e) postganglionic autonomic
A

d) motor

Widest for fastest transmission

56
Q

2) Which is correct?

  • a) the lowest spinal nerve to give cutaneous supply to the anterior abdominal wall is L2
  • b) no post. ramus ever supplies skin or muscle of a limb
  • c) the posterior rami supply the prevertebral flexor muscles
  • d) C1-2 and T1 have no cutaneous branches
  • e) L1-S1 contain autonomic fibres
A

b) no post. ramus ever supplies skin or muscle of a limb

  • a) the lowest spinal nerve to give cutaneous supply to the anterior abdominal wall is L2 (does anterolateral thigh - T12 does low abdominal wall, L1 does suprapubic)
  • c) the posterior rami supply the prevertebral flexor muscles (only the deep muscles of the back)
  • d) C1-2 and T1 have no cutaneous branches (T1 does medial forearms, C2 does occipit and neck)
  • e) L1-S1 contain autonomic fibres (parasympathetic S2-S4, sympathetic T1-L2)
57
Q

3) Which is the correct tendon reflex?

  • a) biceps C5
  • b) triceps C8
  • c) knee L3
  • d) ankle S3
A

c) knee L3

(L2/3/4)

  • a) biceps C5 (C5/6)
  • b) triceps C8 (C7/8)
  • d) ankle S3 (S1/2)
58
Q

1) At birth:

  • a) the transverse diameter of the thorax is thrice the AP diameter
  • b) the liver is relatively twice as big as that of the adult
  • c) the suprarenal gland is twice as big as the kidney
  • d) the spinal cord extends to L5
  • e) the rib cage is more vertically inclined than in the adult
A

b) the liver is relatively twice as big as that of the adult

59
Q

2) In the foetal skull:

  • a) the vertical height of the orbit is equal to the combined heights of the maxilla and the mandible
  • b) the mandible is ossified at birth
  • c) the anterior fontanelle is closed at the end of one year of life
  • d) the volume of the vault is equal to that of the face
  • e) the bones of the face and vault ossify at 6 years
A

a) the vertical height of the orbit is equal to the combined heights of the maxilla and the mandible

60
Q
  1. Regarding the ossification centres of the bones of the foot, which is INCORRECT?
  • a. There are three at birth
  • b. Fifth metatarsus has three ossification centres
  • c. Metatarsals have two centres
  • d. ?
  • e. ?
A

b. Fifth metatarsus has three ossification centres

?? has two

61
Q
  1. Regarding the anatomy of the newborn
  • a. The liver is relatively small
  • b. The bladder lies within the pelvis
  • c. The facial skeleton is relatively small
  • d. The spinal cord extends to the level of the L4 vertebra
  • e. The maxillary sinus is well developed at birth
A

c. The facial skeleton is relatively small

Big head, small face

  • a. The liver is relatively small (relatively twice as large as an adult)
  • b. The bladder lies within the pelvis
  • d. The spinal cord extends to the level of the L4 vertebra (conus meduallaris is at L3)
  • e. The maxillary sinus is well developed at birth
62
Q
  1. An example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is
  • a. Proximal tibial epiphysis
  • b. Costochondral joint
  • c. Intervertebral disc
  • d. Lambdoid suture
  • e. Temporomandibular joint
A

Intervertebral disc

63
Q
  1. An example of a synovial joint is
  • a. Intervertebral disc
  • b. Sternomanubrial joint
  • c. Sacroiliac joint
  • d. Epiphyses
  • e. Distal tibiofibular joint
A

c. Sacroiliac joint - partially synovial

  • a. Intervertebral disc - secondary cartilaginous
  • b. Sternomanubrial joint - secondary cart.
  • d. Epiphyses - secondary cart.
  • e. Distal tibiofibular joint - fibrous - syndesmosis (bone - membrane - bone)
64
Q

1 The following are features of typical synovial joints EXCEPT

  • A Bone ends are covered in hyaline or fibrous cartilage
  • B A capsule encloses the joint cavity
  • C The capsule is reinforced by ligaments
  • D The capsule is lined by synovial membrane
  • E The joint is capable of movement
A

A Bone ends are covered in hyaline or fibrous cartilage

Hyaline only - fibrous cartilage found in atypical synoivial joints

65
Q

2 Regarding cartilage

  • A Hyaline cartilage has an effective blood supply
  • B Hyaline cartilage does not have a tendency to calcify
  • C The epiglottis is composed of elastic cartilage
  • D The larynx is composed of fibrocartilage
  • E The menisci of the knee are hyaline cartilage
A

C The epiglottis is composed of elastic cartilage

66
Q

3 Regarding skin

  • A Skin appendages are mesodermal in origin
  • B Skin colour is determined by melanocyte number
  • C The greatest concentration of sweat glands is on the lip margins
  • D Apocrine glands are confined to the axilla
  • E There are no sebaceous glands on the palms of the hands
A

E There are no sebaceous glands on the palms of the hands

  • A Skin appendages are mesodermal in origin (ectodermal)
  • B Skin colour is determined by melanocyte number (amount of melanin)
  • C The greatest concentration of sweat glands is on the lip margins (axilla, palms of hands, soles of feet)
  • D Apocrine glands are confined to the axilla (axilla, areolar, groin)
67
Q

4 Which of the the following is a primary cartilaginous joint

  • A Manubriosternal joint
  • B 1st sternocostal joint
  • C Acromioclavicular joint
  • D Inferior tibiofibular joint
  • E 2nd costochondral joint
A

B 1st sternocostal joint

  • A Manubriosternal joint - 2ndry cart
  • C Acromioclavicular joint - synovial joint
  • D Inferior tibiofibular joint - fibrous syndesmosis
  • E 2nd costochondral joint (?they meant sternocostal. All sternocostal except first are synovial, all costochondrals are primary cartilaginous)
68
Q

5 Which of the following is a fibrous joint

  • A Pubic symphisis
  • B Xiphisternal joint
  • C 1st sternocostal joint
  • D Superior tibiofibular joint
  • E Inferior tibiofibular joint
A

E Inferior tibiofibular joint

aka Syndesmosis

  • A Pubic symphisis - 2nd cart
  • B Xiphisternal joint - 2nd cart
  • C 1st sternocostal joint - primary cart
  • D Superior tibiofibular joint - synovial
69
Q

24) Regarding tissues:

  • a) cartilage is very vascular
  • b) ligaments are generally not elastic
  • c) deep fascia is insensate
  • d) cardiac muscle is not striated
  • e) periosteum is not sensitive
A

b) ligaments are generally not elastic

70
Q

25) An example of a unipennate muscle is:

  • a) sartorius
  • b) flexor pollicis longus
  • c) rectus femoris
  • d) deltoid
  • e) tibialis anterior
A

b) flexor pollicis longus

  • a) sartorius - parallel
  • c) rectus femoris - bipennate
  • d) deltoid - multipennate
  • e) tibialis anterior - circumpennate
71
Q

26) An example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is:

  • a) distal tibiofibular joint
  • b) costochondral joint
  • c) sagittal suture
  • d) manubrio-sternal joint
  • e) knee joint
A

d) manubrio-sternal joint

  • a) syndesmosis - fibrous
  • b) primary cartilaginous
  • c) synostosis - fibrous
  • e) synovial
72
Q

27) Which vessel is not an end artery?

  • a) renal artery
  • b) retinal artery
  • c) pulmonary artery
  • d) intercostal artery
  • e) splenic artery
A

d) intercostal artery

73
Q

28) The appendages of the skin:

  • a) are derived from mesoderm
  • b) are derived from epidermal tissues
  • c) lie in the dermal layer
  • d) are derived from endoderm
A

b) are derived from epidermal tissues

and lie in epidermis with some dermal extension

74
Q

29) Melanocyte(s):

  • a) number determine the colour of the skin
  • b) are responsible for hair colour, greying is the result of decreasing numbers
  • c) produce varying melanins
  • d) are found mainly in the dermal layer
A

c) produce varying melanins

Found in thern basal layer of epidermis, numbers are consistent between people but the amount of melanin produced varies (this is also what gives hair its colour)

75
Q

30) In regards to connective tissue:

  • a) aponeuroses are a form of deep fascia
  • b) retinaculae are a form of ligament
  • c) deep fascia is insensate
  • d) some ligaments are designed to allow a degree of elasticity
A

d) some ligaments are designed to allow a degree of elasticity

ligamentum flavum and ligamentum nuchae

aponeuroses are a type of ligament, retinaculae are deep fascia

76
Q

31) With regards to cartilage:

  • a) in the elderly, the epiglottis can occasionally be seen on x-ray as its elastic cartilage calcifies
  • b) bones that develop by intramembranous ossification have fibrocartilage at their articular surfaces
  • c) cartilage is nourished exclusively by ground substance as it has no blood supply
  • d) the most common form of cartilage is fibrocartilage
A

b) bones that develop by intramembranous ossification have fibrocartilage at their articular surfaces (TMJ + sternoclavicular)
* c) cartilage is nourished exclusively by ground substance as it has no blood supply (noted as correct although some fibrous cartilage has sparse blood supply, so b) more correct)

77
Q

32) Which is correct?

  • a) oblique alignment of striated muscle fibres allows for greater force of contraction
  • b) smooth muscle is multi-nucleated
  • c) the epimysium surrounds groups of striated muscle fibres to form muscle bundles or fasciculi
  • d) rectus femoris fibres are arranged in a muti-pennate form to allow increased force of contraction
  • e) alpha anterior horn cells of the spinal cord supply the intrafusal muscle fibres
A

a) oblique alignment of striated muscle fibres allows for greater force of contraction

smooth muscle mononucleated

epimysium surrounds individual fibres not fascicles

rectus femoris is bipennate

78
Q

33) Which is correct?

  • a) B-cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity
  • b) plasma cells are differentiated B-cells
  • c) all lymphoid tissue is encapsulated
  • d) in lymph nodes, follicles of lymphocytes are concentrated in the medullary region
A

b) plasma cells are differentiated B-cells

79
Q

34) Which of the following pairs do not match with regard to mode of ossification?

  • a) ribs and vertebra
  • b) clavicle and humerus
  • c) femur and 1st metatarsal
  • regards to connective tissue:
  • d) patella and pisiform
  • e) mandible and clavicle
A

b) clavicle and humerus

Flat bones of skull, manible, and clavicle undergo intramembranous ossification

All others undergo endochondral ossification

80
Q

35) Regarding cartilage, which is INCORRECT?

  • a) it is essentially avascular
  • b) hyaline cartilage contains hyaluronic acid
  • c) rib cartilage is elastic type
  • d) TMJ is fibrous
  • e) all contain mucopolysaccharides
A

c) rib cartilage is elastic type

81
Q

36) Regarding muscle strength, which is not a factor?

  • a) resting muscle length
  • b) cross sectional area
  • c) lever arm length
  • d) the extent to which the muscle is contracted
  • e) configuration of fibres
A

a) resting muscle length

82
Q

37) Which is true?

  • a) epidermis is derived from mesoderm
  • b) the sweat glands, sebaceous glands are mesodermal in origin
  • c) the epidermis contains fibrous tissue and blood vessels
  • d) the colour of the skin is determined by the number of melanocytes
  • e) the dermis has a mesodermal origin
A

e) the dermis has a mesodermal origin

epidermis has ectodermal origin, as do sweat glands and apocrine glands

Dermis contains fibrous tissue and blood vessels, epidermis is just keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

83
Q

38) Regarding sweat glands, which is true?

  • a) the main nerve supply is via cholinergic sympathetic fibres
  • b) the main nerve supply is via adrenergic sympathetic nerves
  • c) they are derived from mesoderm
  • d) the normal tubular sweat glands undergo cyclical changes with the menstrual cycle
  • e) the highest number of sweat glands are found on the feet
A

a) the main nerve supply is via cholinergic sympathetic fibres

Derived from ectoderm

Apocrine glands have adrenergic sympathetic innervation

Sympathetic cholinergic = sweat glands, erector pili m,

Highest concentration on the feet (soles, as well as axilla and palms), but not number

84
Q

39) Regarding cartilage, which is true?

  • a) they have a rich blood supply
  • b) the intervertebral discs contain hyaline cartilage
  • c) hyaline and fibrous cartilage never calcify
  • d) elastic cartilage never calcifies
  • e) elastic cartilage is the commonest type
A

d) elastic cartilage never calcifies

85
Q

40) Regarding muscles, which is true?

  • a) cardiac muscle is more powerful than skeletal or smooth
  • b) skeletal muscle fibres are spindle shaped
  • c) smooth muscle does not contain actin or myosin
  • d) skeletal muscle contraction causes peristalsis in the GI tract and ureter
  • e) cardiac muscle fibres are short, branched, mononuclear and striated
A

e) cardiac muscle fibres are short, branched, mononuclear and striated

86
Q

41) Regarding periosteum, which is TRUE?

  • a) it is avascular
  • b) it is osteogenic
  • c) it covers the articular surface of long bones
  • d) it covers the inner surface of the medullary cavity
  • e) it receives its blood supply from overlying muscle
A

b) it is osteogenic

87
Q

42) An example of secondary cartilaginous joint is:

  • a) hip joint
  • b) manubrio-sternal joint
  • c) costochondral joint
  • d) epiphysis
  • e) wrist joint
A

b) manubrio-sternal joint

88
Q

43) An example of a fibrous joint is:

  • a) the structures of the skull
  • b) vertebral column
  • c) pubic symphysis
  • d) hip joint
  • e) manubrio-sternal joint
A

a) the structures of the skull

89
Q

44) In the skin:

  • a) apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, areolar, periumbilical and genital regions
  • b) dark skinned races posses greater numbers of melanocytes
  • c) sebaceous glands are abundant on the palms and soles
  • d) melanocytes predominate in the dermis
  • e) sweat glands are under the influence of sex hormones
A

a) apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, areolar, periumbilical and genital regions

  • b) dark skinned races posses greater numbers of melanocytes (more melanin)
  • c) sebaceous glands are abundant on the palms and soles (sweat glands)
  • d) melanocytes predominate in the dermis (basal layer epidermis)
  • e) sweat glands are under the influence of sex hormones
90
Q

45) Regarding bone:

  • a) cancellous and compact bone show similar microscopic structure
  • b) the clavicle ossifies in membrane
  • c) the bones of the skull and face ossify in cartilage
  • d) the epiphyseal plates of growing bones are composed of fibrocartilage
  • e) sesamoid bones are only associated with flexor tendons
A

b) the clavicle ossifies in membrane

91
Q

46) What are vincula?

  • a) the papillary ridges that form finger prints
  • b) superficial fibres of the palmar aponeurosis that insert into the skin
  • c) remnant fibres of palmar interossei that insert into the proximal area of the thumb
  • d) a communication between common flexor sheath and the sheet of pollicis longus present in 50% of
  • people
  • e) vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons
A

e) vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons

92
Q

29) Which of the statements regarding ligaments is FALSE?

  • a) ligaments are relatively avascular
  • b) final healing following sprains usually restores full strength
  • c) torn ligaments may predispose to dislocation
  • d) Sharpeg’s fibres penetrate the bone
  • e) a healed sprain may be predisposed to reinjury
A

b) final healing following sprains usually restores full strength

Often results in less than full strength

(as an example, skin scarring is about 75-80% of full strength after healing is finished)

93
Q

27) Which of the following pairs do not match with regard to mode of ossification?

  • a) ribs and cranium
  • b) clavicle and humerus
  • c) femur and 1st metatarsal
  • d) patella and pisiform
  • e) mandible and clavicle
A

b) clavicle and humerus

Clavicle, mandible, flat bones of skull undergo intramembranous ossification

All other bones undergo endochondral ossification

94
Q

33) Regarding muscle strength, which is NOT a factor?

  • a) resting length of muscle
  • b) cross sectional area
  • c) lever arm length
  • d) the extent to which the muscle is contracted
  • e) configuration of fibres, eg fusiform, c.f. bipennate
A

a) resting length of muscle

95
Q

32) Types of muscles, which pairing is INCORRECT?

  • a) unipennate – flexor pollicis longus
  • b) bipennate – 4th lumbrical
  • c) fusiform – supraspinatus
  • d) bipennate – soleus
  • e) multi-pennate – anterior deltoid
A

e) multi-pennate – anterior deltoid

Anterior + posterior deltoid are unipennate

Middle deltoid is multipennate

96
Q

30) Regarding cartilage, which is FALSE?

  • a) it is essentially avascular
  • b) hyaline cartilage contains hyaluronic acid
  • c) rib cartilage is elastic type
  • d) TMJ is fibrous
  • e) all contain mucopolysaccharides
A

c) rib cartilage is elastic type

Rib (costal) cartilage is hyaline cartilage

97
Q

31) Regarding types of joints, which pairing is CORRECT?

  • a) diarthrosis – cranial suture
  • b) synarthrosis – symphysis pubis
  • c) amphiarthrosis – sternoclavicular joint
  • d) cromphosis – intervertebral joints
  • e) syndesmoses – tibiofibular joint
A

e) syndesmoses – tibiofibular joint

a) cranial suture is a synostosis
b) symphysis pubis is a symphysis (secondary cartilagenous)
c) SC joint is atypical synovial
d) Intervertebral joints are secondary cartilagenous

98
Q

34) Regarding the autonomic nervous system, visceral pain is not referred to L3-5 and S1 because:

  • a) there are no visceral afferents related to these lumbar splanchnic nerves
  • b) there are no white rami communicans to these spinal nerves
  • c) there are no sympathetic ganglia associated with theses spinal segments
  • d) there is no sympathetic efferent supply to these spinal nerves
  • e) there are no grey rami communicans associated with the autonomic ganglia of L3-S1 spinal nerves
A

b) there are no white rami communicans to these spinal nerves