General Anesthetics Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

loss of consciousness, amnesia, immobility

A

anesthesia

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2
Q

loss of pain sensation

A

analgesia

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3
Q

analgesia, amnesia, euphoria

A

Stage 1: anesthesia

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4
Q

Excitement, delirium, combative behavior

A

Stage 2: excitement

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5
Q

unconscious, regular respiration, decreasing eye movement

A

Stage 3: surgical anesthesia

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6
Q

respiratory arrest, cardiac depression/arrest, no eye movement

A

Stage 4: medullary depression

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7
Q

theory that the function of the excitable membrane protein is modified by dissolved anesthetics.

A

lipid theory

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8
Q

Mayerton-overton rule, hyperbaric pressure He can reverse anesthesia.

A

support lipid theory

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9
Q

Enantiomers have differential anesthetic potencies. Some chemical analogues of known anesthetics do not cause anesthesia.

A

counter lipid theory

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10
Q

cuases both significant enhancement of inhibition and inhibition of excitation

A

inhaled anesthetics

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11
Q

Inhibit excitatory NDMA and nicotinic receptors.

A

cyclopropane and ketamine, volatile NO and Xenon

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12
Q

enhancement of GABA transmission. Adrenocortical depression. Pain at injection site. Less CV and resp. depression than thiopental.

A

etomidate

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13
Q

rate of equilibration of inhaled anesthetics depends on what three things?

A

ventilation rate, plasma solubility, lipophilic character

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14
Q

preoperative anxiety and separation anxiety in children

A

midazolam

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15
Q

IV anesthetic. Enhances GABA. Rapid onset, recovery and no cumulative effects.

A

Propofol

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16
Q

most frequently used drug for induction of anesthesia, also used for maintenance in OR and ICU

17
Q

produces apnea after and induction dose

18
Q

Enhance GABA. Fast onset, slow recovery – hangover. Liver metabolized.

A

Barbiturates – Thiopental, Methohexital

19
Q

routine induction agent. Tx – ICP and neuronal protection from focal cerebral ischemia. AE – vasoconstriction – gangrene, contraindicated in intermittent porphyria.

A

Barbiturates – Thiopental, Methohexital

20
Q

perioperative anxiolytics. Anterograde amnesia, sedative hypnotic, antiseizure, anesthesia. Increase of GABA

A

BZ – diazepam, lorazepam, midazolam

21
Q

OD of BZ give…

22
Q

IV NMDA inhibitor. Profound analgesia, stimulation of sympathetic NS, bronchodilation and minimal respiratory depression. AE – lacrimation, salivation, raised ICP.

23
Q

minimize hallucinations, vivid dreams, euphoria by combining ketamine with…

A

BZ – diazepam, lorazepam, midazolam

24
Q

alternative to propofol and barbs for rapid IV induction of anesthesia.

25
Alpha-2 agonist. Adjunct to gen anesthesia. Short term sedation of intubated ventilated pts ICU. AE – heart block, bradycardia, asystole.
Dexmedetomidine
26
Inhaled agents currently in use.
halothane, NO, isoflurane, enflurane, desflurane, and sevoflurane.
27
volatile hepatotoxic, and malignant hyperthermia
halothane
28
produce signs of B12 deficiency – megaloblastic anemia. Outpt dental. Adjunct. AE – pneumothorax, post-op nausea.
NO
29
induction of anesthesia in children, maintenance in adults. Volatile. - sensitizes myocardium to catecholamines – arrythmias
Halothane
30
faster onset and recovery than halothane. Mostly maintenance. Isoniazid enhances metabolism. Requires MAC – less if administered with NO or opioids. AE – muscle relaxant, hypotension, seizure
Enflurane
31
similar to enflurane but no proconvulsive properties. Precipitates myocardial ischemia in pts with CAD. Airway irritant
Isoflurane
32
Maintenance. Airway irritant. Faster onset and recovery than isoflurane.
Desflurane
33
No airway irritation – except when reactant with baralyme. Widely used inhaled induction – especially in children.
Sevoflurane
34
allows pt to skip stages 1 and 2 of anesthesia
thiopental with inhaled anesthetic
35
maximize NO benefits while minimizing adverse effects.
NO with Isoflurane