General Anesthetics I and II Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Characteristics of General Anesthesia?

A

Hypnosis, amnesia, analgesia, muscle relaxation, attenuation of autonomic reflexes

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2
Q

Is there one anatomic site responsible for producing general anesthesia?

A

No, but certain anesthetic effects can be attributed to certain locations.

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3
Q

Theory for how unconsciousness is produced?

A

Depression of thalamic neurons and blocking thalamo-cortical communication.

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4
Q

Where is immobility in response to noxious stimuli mediated?

A

Spinal Cord

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5
Q

Likely mechanisms of anesthetic drugs?

A

Inhibit excitatory and enhance inhibitory synaptic transmission.

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6
Q

Volatile anesthetics effects on Glutamate and GABA?

A

Glutamate- inhibit release

GABA- both increased and decreased release

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7
Q

Post-synaptic effects of anesthetics?

A

variable effects on EXCITATORY NTs receptors

enhance receptor response to INHIBITORY NTs

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8
Q

Volatile anesthetic effects on Na+ channels

A

Inhibit activity, reduce nt release at synapse

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9
Q

Neurotransmitters serve as what in ligand-gated ion channels?

A

Ligands, mediate fast excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmission

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10
Q

3 categories of Glutamate ion channels

A

NMDA (modulate long term synaptic response)

AMPA, Kainate (involve fast excitatory transmission)

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11
Q

Drug effects on GABAa receptors at clinical concentrations and high concentrations

A

Clinical: increase Cl current produced by low GABA
High:
1) Direct gating ability to activate receptor w/o GABA
2) Prevention of GABA from initiating Cl current

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12
Q

Barbitiuate, Propofol and Volatile anesthetics effect on GABAa receptor?

A

Create conformational change in GABAa receptor to increase affinity for GABA

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13
Q

Where do anesthetics likely bind?

A

Hydrophobic pockets on proteins

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14
Q

What must be used in conjunction with anesthetics in order to conduct surgery?

A

Opioids or Neuromuscular blocking agents to produce analgesia or muscle relaxation.

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15
Q

How are inhaled anesthetics delivered?

A

By agent specific vaporizers attached to anesthesia machine.

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16
Q

Equilibration implies what for anesthetic gas in twophases (ie alveoli and blood, blood and brain)

A

same partial pressures in both phases (does not mean they have same concentration)

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17
Q

What is MAC?

A

Age dependent concentration of an inhaled anesthetic at which 50% of patients will not move.

Additive when 2 agents given together

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18
Q

What propels anesthetics to brain?

A

partial pressure gradients

P (Alv), Pa, P(brain)

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19
Q

In comparison to the other volatile anesthetics what is different about Desflurane?

A

has a low bp, low potency, least soluble

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20
Q

MOA of Nitrous Oxide?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

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21
Q

Use of N2O?

A

mask induction in children (no smell, can flavor)

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22
Q

SE of N2O?

A

Post-surgical N/V
adverse effects on embryonic development
accumulates in closed air spaces (bowel, middle ear, pneumothorax, air emboli)

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23
Q

Name three volatile anesthetics

A

Isoflurane, Desflurane, Sevoflurane

24
Q

What is Isoflurane used for?

A

Gold Std of anesthesia maintenance

25
SE of isoflurane, desflurane, and sevoflurane?
Dose Dependent CNS depression Increased cerebral blood flow, ICP DD decrease in BP, resp fx, relaxes skeletal muscle Increase in HR, malignant hyperthermia
26
What volatile anesthetic is the most pungent?
Desflurane
27
MOA of methohexital?
GABAa receptor binding; produce hypnosis/ sedation | NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist
28
MOA of propofol?
GABAa receptor agonist, antagonist of NMDA- glutamate receptor
29
Use of propofol?
induction/ maintenance of general anesthesia
30
SE of propofol?
Propofol infusion syndrome (seen in pts given for several days) Metabolic acidosis, myocardial failure, rhabodomyolysis, hyperkalemia, renal failure
31
MOA of etomidate?
GABAa receptor agonist
32
Use of etomidate?
Hypnosis; no analgesia | good for pts w/ minimal cardiac reserve
33
SE of etomidate?
involuntary myoclonic movements post-op N/V single dose inhibits cortisol synthesis
34
MOA of ketamine?
NMDA receptor antagonist kappa opiate agonist DD unconsciousness, amnesia, analgesia
35
SE of ketamine?
Stim sympathetics Increased Cerebral blood flow--> ICP emergence delirium, salivation, lacrimation, nystagmus
36
Ketamine treats?
sedative anethestic- children or Developmentally Disbled Induction agent- Reactive airway disease, trauma patients (hypovalemia), cardiac disease Adjuvant- to decrease opioid use
37
Name three Acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockade?
Neostigmine, Edrophonium, Pyridostigmine
38
Of Neostigmine, Edrophonium, Pyridostigmine what has the longest duration of action?
Pyridostigmine
39
MOA of dexmedetomidine?
Binds a2a and a2b in LC and SC--> sedation, sympatholysis, analgesia
40
Use of dexmedetomidine?
awake intubations, craniatomies, adjunct to general anesthesia (in pts susceptible to narcotic induced resp depression)
41
Name three amino steroid non-depolarizing NMB.
Pancuronium, Vecuronium, Rocuronium
42
MOA of Pancuronium, Vecuronium, Rocuronium?
competitive blockade of Ach (no depolarization)
43
What Amino steroid non-depolarizing blocker causes increased HR?
Pancuronium
44
Length of action of Pancuronium, Vecuronium, Rocuronium?
P- long V-intermediate R- intermediate
45
What are Pancuronium, Vecuronium, Rocuronium used for?
Skeletal muscle relaxation
46
Name a depolarizing NMB?
Succinlycholine
47
MOA of succinylcholine?
attaches to Ach receptors and overstimulates | first seen as disorganized contractions then paralysis
48
What is unique about succinylcholine related to its duration of action?
Rapid onset, ultra-short Duration of action | CAN NOT be reversed
49
SE of succinylcholine?
malignant hyperthermia, cardiac dysrhythmias, hyperkalemia, increased ICP and intraocular pressure myalgias, masseter spasm
50
Use of succinylcholine
skeletal muscle relaxation (intubation)
51
MOA of sugammadex?
complexes w/ rocuronium, rendering it inactive
52
SE of sugammadex?
decrease in BP, N/V, dry mouth
53
Name two isoquinoline NMBs.
Atracurium and Cisatracurium
54
MOA of Atracurium and Cisatracurium?
competitive blockade of Ach (no depolarization)
55
Use of isoquinoline NMBs?
skeletal muscle relaxant (pts w/ liver or renal dysfunction)
56
SE of Atracurium?
histamine release w/ resultant hypotension and tachycardia