General Cardiopulm Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

where is S1 and S2 best heard

A

S1: mitral area
S2: aortic area

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2
Q

compare and contrast murmers vvs. gallops

A

murmers: turbulent blood flow often through incompetant valvues

Gallop = S3 and S4
S3: flappy ventricle/poor compliance - CHF or normal in healthy young

S4: stiff atrium /exaggerated atrial contraction - MI, HTN

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3
Q

amplitude of pulse is on what number scale

and name them

A

0-4+ so 5 point scale

0: absent
1+: thready
2+: weak 
3+ normal 
4+ bounding
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4
Q

where do you assess posterior tib pulse?

A

just posterior to medial mal

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5
Q

name two reasons reasons for unilateral edema

two reasons for bilateral edema

A

unilateral: DVT, lymphadema
bilateral: CHF, liver failure etc.

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6
Q

Chest pain is unlikely to be angina if it changes with

  • deep breathing
  • jt movement or palpation
  • position changes

what would those above be indicative of individually if their action changed chest pain

A

deep breathing: pleural, pulmonary or chest wall sources

jt movement or palpation: MSK

position changes: pleuritis

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7
Q

what is orthopnea

A

difficulty breathing when supine

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8
Q

what is platypenea

A

difficulty breathing when upright

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9
Q

BORG dyspnea scale is a ____ point scale

what is the most out of breath on the scale?

A

11 point scale

goes from 0-10: 10 is maximally dyspnic

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10
Q

where on dyspnea scale would someone fall who is too dyspnic to leave the house?

A

4!!! which sounds little but thats where the scale is

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11
Q
inspiratory mms training dosing
\_\_\_\_\_% of \_\_\_\_
Intensity of \_\_\_ on RPE scale (both 10 and 20 scale)
How many sets
How many minutes each
How do you progress intensity each week?
A

60-70% of max inspiratory pressure

RPE: 5-6/10, 12-13/20

7 sets

2 minutes each

progress by 5% intensity each week

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12
Q

Name the four main breathing exercises to control dyspnea

A

Breathing control
Pursed lip breathing
Blow as you go
Paced breathing

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13
Q

Name the four main breathing exercises to increase ventilation

A

Deep breathing/thoracic expansion
Stacked breathing
Incentive Spirometry
Inspiratory mms training

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14
Q

What are the 4 parts to active cycle of breathing

A

breathing control
thoracic expansion
Forced expiration/huff
COUGH

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15
Q

true or false active cycle of breathing can be performed in postural drainage position

A

true!

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16
Q

what are some disadvantages of active cycle of breathing?

A

congnition must be in tact, may not be great for children

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17
Q

what can the trandelenburg position result in that you need to be aware of

A

desaturation

also look out for elevated ICP etc.

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18
Q

dosing for percussion
total time per lung segment ____
___ at a time

A

total time: 5 minutes

1 minute at a time

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19
Q

what do you do after the percussion part of postural drainage

A

vibration during expiratory phase until cough produced

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20
Q

Eucapnia is what

A

normal level of CO2 in arterial blood

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21
Q

Balloon catheter is also known as what

what is its purpose

A

Swan-Ganz: in pulmonary artery to obtain pulmonary artery wedge pressure and L atrial pressure

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22
Q

Thermodilution measures what

A

CO

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23
Q

Central venous pressure line (CVP) measures what

A

pressure in vena cava

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24
Q

V/P scan most commonly used when

A

diagnosis of PE

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25
Name the four classes of antiarrhythmics Which is thought to be the most effective antiarrhythmic
1) BB 2) Calcium channel blocker 3) Potassium channel blocker 4) Sodium channel blocker POTASSIUM MOST EFFECTIVE: due to blocking both potassium and sodium channels
26
What class of drug is lidocaine
Sodium channel blocker for arrythmias
27
What class of drug is amidarone
Potassium channel blocker for arrythmia
28
What class of drug is ditiazem
calcium channel blocker for arrythmia
29
what two things are positive inotropic agents used for
heart failure and atrial fib: increases force and velocity of contraction, slows heart rate and decreases conduction velocity through AV node
30
what are urokinase and alteplase used fr
thrombolytic agents: clot dissolution
31
PRIL PINE SARTAN
PRIL: ace inhibitor PINE: CCB SARTAN: ARB
32
what is leukotriene medication used for, potential side effects?
anti-inflammatory/corticosteroid liver dysfunction
33
bronchodilators used most often with what two patients
COPD | asthma
34
what should you as a PT keep in mind with mucolytic agents how are they administered
administered through nebulizer | Airway clearance within one hour of ttx
35
Is 1 or 4 better on angina pain scale better
1: mild 2: moderate bothersome 3: moderately severe 4: worst ever
36
what ABI indicates moderate blockge and is associated with intermittent claudication during exercise
.4-.79 lower than .4 = severe may be at rest ALL INDICATES PAD
37
``` Normal HTN Elevated HTN stage I HTN stage II HTN Hypertensive crisis ```
``` Normal: <120 AND <80 Elevated 120-129 AND <80 stage one: 130-139 OR 80-90 stage two: at least 140 OR at least 90 Hypertensive crisis: >180 and/or >120 DBP ```
38
Stridor indicates what condition | what does it sound like
upper airway obstruction | high pitched wheeze
39
atrial flutter vs. atrial fibrillation BPM
flutter: 250-350pbm Fib: 350-600bpm
40
no P waves = what
a fib
41
saw tooth P waves = what
a flutter
42
PR interval longer than .2seconds = what
1st degree AV block: doesn't have to have sxs
43
Mobitz type I/Wenckenbach Mobitz type II are both types of what which is less dangerous
2nd degree AV block | type I is less dangerous
44
progressive prolongation of PR interval until one impulse is not conduced is called what
mobitz type I or Wenchenbach; grade 2 AV block less serious than mobitz type II
45
Consecituve PR intervals followed by nonconcuction of one or more impuses is called what
mobitz type II; grade 2 AV block more serious
46
what degree of AV block is emergent?
3: all impulses are blocked at AV node so nothing gets to ventricles
47
what does a PVC look like on ECG
absent P wave | wide and bizarre QRS
48
3 or more consecutive PVC at >150 bpm is what? can lead to what?
ventricular tachycardia can lead to ventricular fibrillation
49
Explain v-fib
quivering, no CO | Need immediate defibrillation
50
What is ventricular astytole
flat line, CPR
51
ST segment depression(1-2mm) is a sign of what three things
digitalis toxicity hypokalemia subendocardial ischemia
52
what is a Q wave indicitive of
MI
53
T wave inversion occurs days after MI due to delay in repolarization, CVA, left and right bundle branch blocks but when does it happen normally
can happen in children and some adults benign.
54
normal HR for ``` infant child adult bradycardia tachycardia ```
infant: 100-130 child: 80-100 adult: 60-100 bradycardia: <60 tachycardia: >100
55
Volume or amplitude of pulse is on a scale. what is the scale
3+: large or bounding 2+: normal 1+: small 0: absent
56
name the 6 major obstructive respiratory diseases (not including COPD itself)
emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis
57
obstructive disease hallmark is FEV1/FVC of what %
<70%
58
what is rate pressure product (RPP)
myocardial oxygen consumption and coronary blood flow giving you an easy way to know when angina pectoris or ECG changes are coming in pts with heart disease. RPP = HR x SBP (because this is a huge number you'll normally see the value ___x10 to the 3rd
59
what do you use RPP for
guide exercise prescription in individuals with heart disease/angina pectoralis
60
on the 20 RPE scale, what correlates to ~70% of max HR what is the upper limit of prescribed initial cardiac rehab on 20 point RPE scale
13-14 11-13
61
What % do you begin threshold inspiratory mms trainer at How long at treatment sessions how many times a day how do you progress
30-40% (same) 5-15 minutes 2-3x a day 40-60% MIP over 4-6 weeks
62
What % do you start PFLEX inspiratory mms trainer at how many minutes and times a day how do you progress
30-40% (same) 10-15 minutes daily increasing to 20-30 minutes 3-5x a week Once they can tolerate 30 minutes at a level, increase resistance
63
Name the related diagnosis and sputum descriptors - frothy - bloody - purlulent - mucoid
- frothy: pulmondary edema - bloody: tuberculosis - purlulent: abcess in lungs - mucoid: asthma
64
side effect of corticosteroid having to do with cardiopulm
increased blood pressure: others are mms wasting, OP, skin breakdown, cataracts, adrenocorticosupression, hyperglycema