Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

General Classifications > General Classifications > Flashcards

General Classifications Flashcards

(48 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Achilles Tendon Rupture

A

Kuwada
Type I: partial tear of <50%. Treatment is closed
Type II: Complete tear with defect after debridement <3cm. Use end to end attachment
Type III: Complete tear with defect after debridement 3-6cm. Treatment is end to end attachment and tendon flap.
Type IV: complete tear with defect after debridement >6cm. Treatment is end to end, recession or graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Open Fractures

A

Gustilo and Anderson
Type I: Open fracture with wound <1cm and clean
Type II: open fracture with a laceration >1cm without extensive soft tissue damage
Type III: Open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage
IIIA: adequate soft tissue coverage
IIIB: extensive soft tissue damage with periosteal stripping
IIIC: open fracture associated with arterial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ruedi and Allgower

A

Pilon fracture classification
Type I: mild displacement and no comminution without major disruption of the ankle joint
Type II: moderate displacement and no comminution with significant displacement of the ankle joint
Type III: Explosion fracture, severe comminution and displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ankle Fractures (2)

A

Lauge-Hansen and Danis Weber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lauge hansen classifications (4)

A

Supination-adduction
Supination external rotation
Pronation abduction
Pronation external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Danis Weber Classifications (3)

A

A: Transverse avulsion of the fibula below the level of the ankle joint
B: spiral, oblique fracture of the fibula at the level of the ankle joint
C: fracture of the fibula above the level of the ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Supination Adduction (2)

A

Danis Weber A
I: Transverse fracture of the fibula
II: Vertical fracture of the medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Supination External Rotation (4)

A

Danis Weber B
I: Rupture of the anterior tib-fib ligament (Wagstaffe or Tillaux-Chaput)
II: Spiral fracture of the fibula with a posterior spike
III: Rupture of the posterior tib-fib ligament (VolKmann’s fracture)
IV: Avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pronation Abduction (3)

A

Danis- Weber B
I: Transverse fracture of the medial malleolus
II: Rupture of the anterior and inferior tib-fib ligaments
III: Fibular fracture at the level of the ankle with the appearance of a spiral fracture on AP and transverse fracture on the lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pronation External Rotation (4)

A

Danis Weber C
I: Avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus
II: Rupture of the anterior inferior tib-fib ligament (Wagstaffe or Tillaux-Chaput)
III: Short oblique fibular fracture above the ankle joint
IV: Rupture or avulsion fracture of the posterior inferior tib-fib ligament (Volkmann’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Volkmanns Fractures (4)

A

A: Large intra-articular fracture (>25%) with displacement
B: Small intra-articular fracture (<25%) with impaction
C: small fracture with minimal impaction and articular damage
D: Avulsion of the posterior inferior tib-fib ligament without articular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ankle Sprains How to test

A

Anterior Draw test- ATF

Talar Tilt- CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Physeal plate trauma

A

Salter Harris
I: Complete transverse separation of the epiphysis from the metaphysis through the physis
II: Epiphysis is separated from the physis with the fracture extending into the metaphysis (Thurston-Holland sign)
III: Partial separation of the physis with an intra-articular break into the epiphysis
IV: Intra-articular fracture extending from the epiphysis into the metaphysis resulting in comminution
V: Impaction of the epiphysis into the physis and metaphysis resulting in comminution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Talar Neck Fractures

A

Hawkins
I: vertical fracture of the talar neck without displacement
II: vertical fracture of talar neck with dislocation of the talar body from the STJ
III: Vertical fracture of the neck of the talus, dislocation of the STJ and ankle
IV: Type III with addition of the talo-navicular joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Talar Dome Fractures

A

Berndt and Hardy
Stage I: Osteochondral compression of the talar dome
Stage II: Partially detached, non displaced osteochondral fracture
III: Completely detached, non displaced osteochondral fracture
IV: displaced osteochondral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Talar Dome fractures MOI

A

DIAL A PIMP
Posterior-Medial lesion: Plantarflexion and inversion
Anterior lateral lesion: Dorsiflexion and inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Talar Body fractures (just the two used)

A

Boyd and Knight/ Sneppen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Boyd and Knight

A

Type I: Coronal or Sagittal Shear fracture
IA: non displaced
IB: fracture with displacement at the talo-crural joint
IC: Type B with additional displacement at STJ
ID: Fracture with total displacement of the talar body

Type II: Horizontal shear fracture
IIA: non-displaced
IIB: displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sneppen

A 
I: Compressive fracture of the talar dome usually involves the medial or lateral aspect
II: Shearing fracture of talar body
IIA: coronal shearing force
IIB: sagittal shearing force
IIC: horizontal shearing force

III:Fracture of posterior tubercle
IV: Fracture of the lateral process
V: crush fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lateral Talar process fracture

Study These Flashcards
A

Hawkins
Type I: simple fracture of the lateral process that extends from the talofibular articular surface down to the posterior talocalcaneal articular surface of the STJ
Type II: comminuted fracture of tht elateral process that involves both fibular and posterior calcaneal articular surfaces of the talus and entire lateral process
Type III: chip fracture of the anterior and inferior portion of the posterior articular process of talus

21
Q

Calcaneal Fractures

Study These Flashcards
A

Rowe, Sanders and Essex-Lopresti

22
Q

Rowe Type I

Study These Flashcards
A

A: fracture of the tuberosity due to inverted or everted foot
B: Fracture of the sustentaculum tali due to twist on supinated foot
C: fracture of the anterior tubercle due to plantarflexion on a supinated foot

23
Q

Rowe Type II

Study These Flashcards
A

A: Beak fracture without Achilles insertion involvement
B: Avulsion fracture of the Achilles tendon

24
Q

Rowe type III

Study These Flashcards
A

Fracture of the body without STJ involvement

25
Rowe Type IV
Fracture of the body with STJ involvement
26
Rowe Type V
comminution of the body of the calcaneus
27
Essex Lopresti
``` Type I (Tongue type): primary fracture line running superior to inferior with secondary fracture line exiting the posterior aspect of the calcaneus Type II (joint depression): primary fracture line running superior to inferior and secondary line srring the STJ ```
28
Sanders
A-lateral B- Middle C-Sustentaculum tali I: all non displaced fractures no matter how many fragments II: 2 part fracture of the posterior facet III: 3 part fracture of the posterior facet IV: 4 part fracture with high degree of comminution
29
Navicular fractures
``` Watson and Jones I: Fracture of tuberosity II: fracture of dorsal lip (most common) III: fracture through body IIIA: without displacement IIIB: with displacement IV: Stress fracture ```
30
Cuboid fractures (2 types)
``` 1) Body fractures I: Stress fracture II: Avulsion A-bifurcate B-tarsometatarsal III: body fracture non-displaced IV: Indirect crush V: plantar dislocation VI: direct crush ``` 2) avulsion fractures
31
Cuneiforms (2 types)
``` 1)body fractures I:simple II: comminuted or crushed III: fracture with dislocation IV: osteochondral 2)Avulsion fractures: usually due to TA ```
32
5th met fractures (2 types)
Stewart and Torg
33
Stewart classification
Type I: True Jones fracture at the metaphysis of the 5th base Type II: Intra-articular fracture of the base of the 5th met resulting from contraction of the peroneus brevis Type III: avulsion fracture of the 5th met Type IV: comminuted intra-articular fracture of the base of the 5th Type V: partial avulsion fracture of the epiphysis have of risk of Iselin's AVN with this type of fracture
34
Torg
I: Acute jones fracture II: Delayed union of a Jones fracture III: Non-union of a Jones fracture
35
Wagner Classification
Grade 0: No open lesions in the skin, bony prominence and structural deformity present Grade 1: Superficial ulcer without deep penetration to deep layers Grade2: deep ulceration penetrating to tendon, bone, joint capsule, or ligament Grade 3: grade 2 ulcer with presence of infection Grade 4: gangrene of the forefoot Grade 5: gangrene of the entire foot
36
USATHC
Grade 0: pre or post ulcerative lesion completely epithelialized Grade 1: superficial wound not involving tendon, capsule or bone Grade 2: wound penetrating to tendon or capsule Grade 3: wound penetrating bone or joint A: non-ischemic, clean wound B: infected wound C: ischemic wound D: both infected and ischemic
37
Charcot classification
Eichenholtz 1) Development: acute destructive period distinguished by joint effusion, subluxation, edema, formation of bone and cartilage debris and intra-articular fractures 2) Coalescence: lessening of edema, absorption of debris and healing of fractures 3) Reconstruction: further repair and remodeling of bone to restore stability
38
Nerve injuries
Sedden and sunderland
39
Sedden Classification
1)Neuropraxia: interruption of nerve impulses due to external nerve pressure resulting in pinpoint segmental demyelination 2 Axonotomesis: severance of individual nerve fibers resulting in partial or complete severance of the nerve 3) Neurotomesis: Complete severance of the nerve resulting in Wallerian degeneration
40
Sunderland
1st degree: Disruption of neurological impulses without Wallerian degeneration 2nd degree: disruption of the axon with Wallerian degeneration distal to the point of trauma 3rd degree: fibrous and obstruction of the nerve, regrowth with fusiform swelling 4th degree: incomplete severance of the nerve 5th degree: complete severance of the nerve
41
Osteomyelitis
Buckholz Type I: Wound induced ostomyelitis IA: Open fracture with complete incontinuity IB: Penetrating wound IC: Post op infections Type II: Mechanogenic osteomyelitis IIA: implants and internal fixation IIB: Contact instability as bone to bone appositional movement III: physeal osteomyelitis IV: ischemic osteomyelitis V: combination osteomyelitis, types 1-4 as acute bone infections VI: Osteitis with septic arthritis VII: Chronic osteomyelitis
42
2 classes of tarsal coalitions
Bridge: Intra-articular coalition that occurs at a normal joint Bar: extra-articular coalition that occurs outside a normal joint
43
Downey (juvenile classification)
Type I: Extra-articular A:No secondary arthritis (Badgley procedure) B: Secondary arthritis (resection, triple) Type II: Intra-articular A: No secondary arthritis (resection, isolated arthrodesis, triple) B: Secondary arthrodesis (triple)
44
Downey (adult classification)
Type I: Extra-articular A: no secondary arthritis (resection, triple) B: secondary arthritis (triple) Type II: Intra-articular A: no secondary arthritis (isolated, triple) B: Secondary arthritis (triple)
45
Malignant melanoma (2)
Clark (based on level of invasion) | Breslow (based on thickness)
46
Clark
Level of invasion Level 1: located in epidermis or epidermal-dermal junction Level 2: located in papillary dermis Level 3: located in papillary to reticular dermis Level 4: located down into the reticular dermis Level 5: located within the subcutaneous tissue
47
Breslow
Based on Thickness of the melanoma | Level 1: 4 cm
48
Hallux Limitus
Oloff and Jacobs Grade I: pre-hallux limitus with metatarsus primus elevatus, plantar subluxation of the proximal phalanx on 1st met head. Pain with end ROM, deformity is functional in nature. Grade II: Some flattening of met head with a possible osteochondral defect, pain on end ROM and structureal adaptation has occured. Passive ROM is limited Grade III: More severe flattening of met head, osteophytic production and large dorsal exostosis on proximal phalanx and met head. Non-uniform narrowing of joint space, crepitus and pain on full ROM Grade IV: more sever form of grade 3 with obliteration of the joint space, loose bodies present in the joint space or capsule, <10 degrees of total MTPJ motion

General Classifications (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions