general derma Flashcards by Andrew Wall

what percentage of teenagers will experience acne

90%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

by 40 what percentage of men will still have lesions?

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

by 40 what percentage of women will still have lesions?

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what genetic syndromes result in increased risk of acne?

XYY genotype, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperandrogenism, hypercortisolism

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

mild acne total lesion count

total <30

<20 comedones

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

moderate acne features

lesion, papules, pustules, nodules and cysts

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

total lesion count for moderate acne

total 30-125

20-100 comedones

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

severe acne total lesion count

> 125

total comedone count >100

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

demodex folliculorum is associated with?

Rosacea

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

rosacea is missing what form of lesion in comparison to acne?

no comedones

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what are the variants of rosacea

vascular
inflammatory
phymatous
ocular

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

causes of erythroderma

psoriasis
eczema
drugs
cutaneous lymphoma
hereditary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what percentage of inpatients can have dermal drug reactions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

how long after exposure to drug for a reaction to be noticeable

1-2weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what drugs may stimulate SJS or epidermal necrolysis

antibiotics
anticonvulsants
allopurinol
NSAIDS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Nikolsky sign means

outer epidermis separates easily from basal layer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

SCORTEN score for SJS and epidermal necrolysis

age >40
malignancy
HR >120
epidermal detachment
serum urea >10 
serum glucose >14 
serum bicarbonate >20

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

long term complications of SJS and epidermal necrolysis

pigmentation changes
scarring
eye disease, blindness
nail and hair loss
joint contractures

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

erythema multiforme commonly caused by

HSV then mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

self limiting time frame for erythema multiforme

2 weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

mortality percentage for DRESS

10%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, the staphylococcus produces a toxin that targets what?

desmoglein 1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

majority of acute urticaria is caused by

idiopathic then infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what drugs should be avoided in acute urticaria

opiates and NSAIDS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the majority cause of chronic urticaria

autoimmune/idiopathic

time frame for classifying chronic urticaria

>6 weeks

pros of cryotherapy

cheap and easy

cons of cryotherapy

scarring or failure

different types of cyst

``` epidermoid pilar steatocystoma dermoid hidrocystoma ganglion ```

dermatofibroma is caused by

fibroblasts

dimple sign means

when lesion is squeezed a dimple can be elicited

percentage of Bowen's disease risk of becoming malignant

photo-dynamic therapy means

photochemical reaction using red light to selectively destroy cancer cells

imiquimod mechanism

stimulate cytokine

pros of imiquimod

a way to avoid surgery, good cosmetic result

cons of imiquimod

6 weeks significant inflammation failure

minimum SPF for suncream

30/ 4 star

factors that affect absorption

``` concentration vehicle chemical properties thickness and hydration of stratum corneum temperature skin site occlusion ```

retinoids are analogues for what vitamin

isotretinoin - retinoid is used in what?

acne

acitretin - retinoid is used in what?

psoriasis

Bexarotene - retinoid is used in what?

cut. T cell lymphoma

alitretinoin - retinoid is used in what condition?

hand eczema

name all 4 orally used retinoids

isotretinoin acitretin bexarotene alitretinoin

side effects of retinoids

``` teratogenic dry lips dry skin increased triglycerides psychiatric ```

derma immunosuppressants

``` oral steroids azathiopurine ciclosporin methotrexate mycophenolate mofetil ```

what function tests should you do with immunosupression

FBC renal function liver function

suffix CEPT stands for

receptor binding

MAB suffix stands for

monoclonal antibodies

infix ZU stands for

humanised

infix IX stands for

chimeric

infix U stands for

fully human

infix LI/L stands for

immunomodulator

infL-IX-i-MAB stands for

immunomodulator chimeric monoclonal antibodies

biologic for spontaneous urticaria

omalizumab

Eczema biologic

Dupilumab

plaque psoriasis biologic

Adalimumab

biologic side effects

infection no vaccines malignancy TNF I - demyelination

endogenous eczema types

``` atopic discoid venous seborrheic dermatitis pompholyx juvenile plantar dermatitis asteatotic ```

allergic contact dermatitis type of hypersensitive

type 4

type 4 hypersensitivity regulated by

clonal expansion of T cells in response to hapten/allergen

occupational risk of irritant contact dermatitis

``` hairdressers NHS staff cleaners ring soap nappy rash ```

potent topical steroid

betamethasone

calcineurin inhibitor names

pimecrolimus | tacrolimus

hair cycle stages

anagen catagen telogen

anagen for hair cycle refers to

active growing phase

catagen phase for hair cycle refers to

growth stops, follicle shrinks

telogen phase in hair cycle refers to

resting phase

chromosome responsible for determining age of onset for psoriasis

chromosome 6

psoriasis susceptibility region gene

PSORS1-9

psoriasis histology findings

``` hyperkeratosis neutrophils in corneum hyperplasia- acanthosis dilated dermal capillaries T cell infiltrate ```

psoriasis Koebner phenomenon refers to

skin lesions on lines of trauma

woronoff's ring

blanched halo of uniform width following treatment for psoriasis

sub types of psoriasis

``` chronic palmo-plantar guttate scalp nail flexural pustural erythrodermic psoriasis ```

differentials for psoriasis

seborrheoic dermatitis lichen planus mycosis fungoides

PsArthritis treatment

methotrexate

what percentage of excess mortality is there in winter in the UK

40%

risk factors for skin cancer

``` UV photochemotherapy P-UVA carcinogens radiation HPV familial immunosupression ```

high risk signs of SSC

``` immunosuppression >20mm diameter >4mm depth ear, nose, eyelid perineural invasion poorly differentiated ```

ipilimumab mechanism and use

CTLA-4 and melanoma metastatic

pembrolizumab mechanism and use

PD-1 and metastatic melanoma

vemurafenib and dabrafenib mechanism and use

metastatic melanoma and B-RAF

sezary cells refer to

atypical T cells

prognosis for sezary syndrome

2-4 years

extracorporeal photophoresis refers to

WBC drawn and mixed with psoralen to make sensitive to UVA radiation and then treated, re-infused

commonest skin cancers

BCC, SCC

impetigo bacterial causes

staph Aureus

erysipelas bacterial cause

group A streptococci

cellulitis bacterial cause

Str. pyogenes

complication of shingles

post-herpetic neuralgia

viral warts cause

HPV

molluscom contagiosum cause

POX virus

pityriasis versicolor cause

malassezia

scabies causitive agent

sarcoptes scabiei

general derma Flashcards

(94 cards)