General Knowledge Flashcards
(84 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes emergency medical services (EMS)?
A
A team of healthcare professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
2
Q
EMT- Basic training in nearly every state follows or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:
A
U.S. Department of Transportation
3
Q
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
A
State office of EMS
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT a skill that is provided by the EMT-Basic?
A
Initiation of a intravenous line
5
Q
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
A
EMT- Paramedic
6
Q
An Individual would MOST likely be denied certification as an EMT-B if he or she
A
Has had a prior felony conviction
7
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
A
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
8
Q
Laypeople may be trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT:
A
electrocardiographic monitoring
9
Q
First responders, such as firefighters, LE, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:
A
The presence of a person trained to initiate BLS care cannot be ensured
10
Q
An EMT who has advanced training in specific areas of ALS is called
A
an EMT-I (intermediate)
11
Q
As an EMT-B, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:
A
your local EMS protocols
12
Q
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
A. A 48-year-old apneic patient who is intubated by the nasal route
B. A 53-yr-old cardiac arrest patient who is manually defibrillated
C. A 61- year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
D. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AED
A
D. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AED
13
Q
Which of the following is a unique function of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD)?
A
Providing callers with life-saving instructions
14
Q
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMT-B personnel to perform emergency medical care is the:
A
Medical Director
15
Q
What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
Online or Offline
A
Offline
16
Q
The person who provides the ongoing working liaison among the medical community, hospitals, and the EMT is the:
A
Medical Director
17
Q
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
A
Identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
18
Q
Although transport time to a specialty center may be slightly longer than to a local emergency department
A
The patient will receive definitive care more quickly.
19
Q
EMTs who follow a coordinated continuum of care do so because:
A
It maximizes survival and reduces patient suffering
20
Q
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A
Continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful
21
Q
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the
A
Individual EMT-B
22
Q
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
A
Maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills
23
Q
The self-control needed to perform effectively when confronted with a horrifying event or life-threatening situation is developed through all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Experience
B. proper training
C. an effective partner
D. stress coping strategies
A
C. an effective partner
24
Q
Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process?
A. “It is because of our lousy healthcare system that I developed the tumor.”
B. “I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate”
C. “I understand that my death is inevitable and am ready to die when the time comes”
D. “The Dr’s must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy”
A
B. “I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate”
25
Which of the following statements regarding the different states of the grieving process is correct?
A. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression
B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages
C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously
D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process
C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously
26
The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as:
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Depression
D. Acceptance
D. Acceptance
27
Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient?
A. "Things will get better in time"
B. "It is ok to be angry and sad"
C. "This must be painful for you"
D. "Tell me how you are feeling"
A. "Things will get better in time"
28
Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, except:
A. "Am I going to die?"
B. "How much will this cost me?"
C. "What are you doing to me?"
D. "Will I be permanently disabled?"
B. "How much will this cost me?"
29
While trying to make a family member feel better involved after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family may view this as:
A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief
B. A show of respect for the person who has died
C. coaching them through the grieving process
D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude
A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief
30
Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other healthcare providers often feel:
A. relieved
B. Superior
C. Hopeful
D. Shamed
D. Shamed
31
When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as:
A. Anger projected toward the EMT-B or other providers
B. fear of being completely dependent upon other people
C. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage
D. a decreased to exercise age-appropriate judgment
C. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage
32
When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT-B should:
A. Immediately refer them to a counselor
B. tell them that their feelings are understood
C. refrain from using words such as died or dead
D. acknowledge the death of their child in private
D. acknowledge the death of their child in private
33
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Psych Disorders
B. distrust of the EMT-B
C. history of chronic disease
D. fear of medical personnel
B. distrust of the EMT-B
34
The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phrases?
A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
35
The chemical and physical reactions commonly referred to as the "fight or flight" response involve interaction of the:
A. nervous and endocrine systems
B. respiratory and nervous systems
C. gastrointestinal and nervous systems
D. cariovascular and endocrine systems
B. respiratory and nervous systems
36
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
D. An EMT-B becomes distracted at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving the same type of car that a child was previously killed in.
37
What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT-B is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
a. acute stress reaction
b. cumulative stress reaction
c. posttruamatic stress reaction
d. Critical incident stress reaction
B. Cumulative Stress Reaction
38
Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
A. When personnel are assessed during periods of rest
B. before personnel are preparing to re-enter the scene.
C. When patients are actively being assessed or treated
D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved
C. When patients are actively being assessed or treated
39
Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is a program used to:
A. Reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents
B. evaluate adherence to locally established protocols
C. determine better ways to deal with similar incidents
D. apprise the media of the nature of the critical incident.
A. Reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents
40
A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should be conducted no longer than _ hours following an incident:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 72
D. 72
41
Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?
A. Frequently reflect on troublesome calls
B. Avoid friends and interests outside of EMS
C. Request overtime to increase your income
D. Focus on delivering high-quality patient care
D. Focus on delivering high-quality patient care
42
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
A. Increased interest in daily activities
B. Isolation from the rest of the crew
C. Hyperactivity during an EMS call
D. Acute Increase in his or her appetite
B. Isolation from the rest of the crew
43
A condition of chronic fatigue and frustration that results from mounting stress over time is referred to as:
A. Burnout
B. Isolation
C. Delirium
D. Irritability
A. Burnout
44
When considering his or her personal life, it s important for the EMT-B to realize that:
A. he or she should not discus stressful issues with family members.
B. Shift work is the least stressful type of EMS-related work schedule.
C. Family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS.
D. It is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty.
C. Family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS.
45
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harrassment, occurs when the harasser:
A. Requests sexual favors in return for something else.
46
It is MOST important for EMS personnel to develop non adversarial relationships with their coworkers because they:
A. Are highly prone to stress and burnout
B. Depend on each other for their safety.
C. Must work together every third day.
D. May have to bunk in the same roon
B. Depend on each other for their safety.
47
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
A. Punitive action and the loss of a job
B. low morale and frequently missed shifts
C. Tension among coworkers and supervisors.
D. Substandard or inappropriate patient care
D. Substandard or inappropriate patient care
48
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
A. Check for other patients
B. Ensure the vehicle is stable
C. Request another ambulance.
D. Contact medical control
B. Ensure the vehicle is stable
49
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
A. A living object
B. Smoke or dust
C. Direct contact
D. An inanimate object
A. A living object
50
Which of the following communicable diseases is BOTH a sexually transmitted disease and a blood-borne disease?
A. Herpes
B. Mumps
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
51
Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions differ from universal precautions in that:
A. BSI is designed to approach all bodily fluids as being potentially infectious.
B. BSI precautions are necessary only when visible blood is present on a patient.
C. BSI reminds you to apply precautions in all direct patient contact situations
D. BSI is a concept that is stupid
A. BSI is designed to approach all bodily fluids as being potentially infectious.
52
Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears, and saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they:
A. splash into the face or mouth
B. are in copious quantities
C. come in contact with intact skin
D. Contain visible amounts of blood
D. Contain visible amounts of blood
53
The simplest yet MOST effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
A. Undergo an annual physical exam
B. Ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date
C. Wash you hands in-between patient contacts
D. Undergo HIV and TB testing at least twice a year
C. Wash you hands in-between patient contacts
54
Minimum BSI precautions for all patients if there is any possibility for exposure to blood or body fluids include:
A. Latex gloves only
B. gloves and eye protection
C. gloves, mask, and a gown
D. gloves, gown, mask, and head cover.
B. gloves and eye protection
55
Prescription glasses are considered to be acceptable eye protection ONLY if they:
A. Have shatterproof lenses
B. Have large rounded lenses
C. Have removable side shields
D. Are secured in place with a strap
C. Have removable side shields
56
Which of the following situations would dictate the use of a mask and gown in addition to gloves?
A. Emergency delivery of an infant
B. Closed Tibia fracture with no bleeding
C. Contact with an HIV-infected patient
D. Open humerus fracture with minimal bleeding
A. Emergency delivery of an infant
57
You should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator when you suspect that your patient may be infected with:
A. HIV
B. Pertussis
C. Herpasyphilaids
D. Tuberculosis
D. Tuberculosis
58
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
A. Excessive blood splashing
B. Careless handling of sharps
C. Lack of proper immunizations
D. Failure to follow BSI
B. Careless handling of sharps
59
Which of the following PPE items do the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) require your employer to provide you with?
A. Bulletproof vest
B. Vinyl and latex gloves
C. A fully-encapsulated suit
D. Flame-retardant bunker gear
B. Vinyl and latex gloves
60
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:
A. Are older than 35 years of age
B. Have a weak immune system
C. Have been infected in the past
D. Received a hepatitis B vaccination
C. Have been infected in the past
61
The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the exposure control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT:
A. Family history of hepatitis
B. Postvaccine antibody titers
C. Vaccine safety and efficacy
D. record keeping and tracking
A. Family history of hepatitis
62
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
A. It is far more contagious than Hep B
B. It is easily transmittable in the EMS field
C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood
D. There is no vaccine to prevent HIV infection
D. There is no vaccine to prevent HIV infection
63
Which of the following body organs is affected by the hepatitis B and C viruses?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
B. Liver
64
Common signs and symptoms of hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fever
B. jaundice
C. weight gain
D. loss of appetitie
C. weight gain
65
The typical incubation period for hepatitis B is:
A. 2-6 weeks
B. 4-12 weeks
C. 2-10 weeks
D. 10-12 weeks
B. 4-12 weeks
66
High fever, headache, and a stiff neck are common signs of :
A. meningitis
B. pertussis (whooping cough)
C. hepatitis A
D. TB
A. meningitis
67
If a pathogen is strong or able to reproduce disease, it is referred to as:
A. Virulent
B. pathogenic
C. contagious
D. communicable
A. Virulent
68
Patients with TB pose the GREATEST risk to the EMT-B when they are:
A. febrile
B. vomiting
C. bleeding
D. coughing
D. Coughing
69
After treating and transporting a patient with TB, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which reveals a positive result. This means you have:
A. Been infected
B. avoided exposure
C. been exposed
D. become immune
C. been exposed
70
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by direct contact with respiratory secretions?
A. HIV
B. Syphilis
C. Hep B
D. Meningitis
D. Meningitis
71
Determination of exposure is an important part of an exposure control plan because it:
A. Determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur.
B. determines which type of communicable diseases might be present in the workplace
C. defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace
D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.
D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.
72
The Ryan White Law is a federal law intended to protect EMS providers by requiring:
A. Notification by the hospital and follow-up after exposure.
B. That all patients transported to a hospital be tested for HIV.
C. Hospitals to provide hepatitis vaccinations to EMS personnel.
D. Blood and body fluid protective equipment for all EMS personnel.
A. Notification by the hospital and follow-up after exposure.
73
The treatment that you receive following exposure to an infectious disease depends on:
A. your overall health
B. the type of the disease
C. how you were exposed
D. the length of exposure
B. the type of the disease
74
If it is not possible to adequately clean your rescue at the hospital following a call, you should:
Clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.
75
Which of the following statements about communicable diseases is correct?
A. Not all people who are infected with a communicable disease show signs of symptoms of illness
B. Anyone who has been exposed to a communicable disease always is a carrier of that disease.
C. Anyone who is infected with a communicable disease shows signs or symptoms of that disease.
D. Any time you take the temp of a patient who has AIDS, you need to wear gloves or you now have SUPER AIDS.
A. Not all people who are infected with a communicable disease show signs of symptoms of illness
76
Which of he following statements regarding whooping cough is correct:
A. It is a bloodborne disease that is also referred to as rubella
B. It is a viral infection that is seen most commonly in adults
C. It is an airborne disease that is referred to as pertussis
D. It most commonly affects children over the age of 6
C. It is an airborne disease that is referred to as pertussis
77
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazmat incident:
A. identifying the material
B. calling the HazMat team
C. evacuation of bystanders
D. ensuring personal safety
D. ensuring personal safety
78
If you are caught in an open area during a thunderstorm with frequent lightning, you should:
A. stand under a tree or other tall object
B. crouch as low to the ground as possible
C. quickly move away from the ambulance
D. remain still to avoid attracting electricity
B. crouch as low to the ground as possible
79
Common hazards associated with fire include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Smoke and toxic gases
B. carbon dioxide deficiency
C. high ambient temps
D. the risk of building collapse
B. carbon dioxide deficiency
80
Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it:
A. Binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
B. causes filling of the lungs with copious secretions
C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide
D. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells
A. Binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
81
The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
A. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat
B. avoid outer clothing with zippers
C. wear at least three layers of clothing
D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton
C. wear at least three layers of clothing
82
When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear:
A. a single thick pair of puncture-proof leather gloves.
B. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves
C. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity
D. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves
A. a single thick pair of puncture-proof leather gloves.
83
Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a person's potential for violence?
A. Overly friendly
B. Jerky movements
C. History of violence
D. Large physical size
D. Large physical size
84
Which of the following statements regarding a patient with a behavioral crisis is correct?
A. Depression accounts for a very small percentage of violent attacks
B. A quiet patient is not as likely to attack you as one who is screaming
C. A past history of violence is an unreliable indicator of future violence.
D. People who say that they are "hearing voices" are usually bluffing you
B. A quiet patient is not as likely to attack you as one who is screaming
